accounting auditing Flashcards

1
Q

What should be included for the Auditor’s address?

A

The City and State where located

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2
Q

What is Management Responsible for in regards to the Financial Statements?

A

Preparation and Fair Presentation of Financial Statements in accordance with the Applicable Financial Reporting Framework

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3
Q

What is Management Responsible for in regards to Internal Control?

A

Internal Control Design, Implementation, Maintenance

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4
Q

What are the headings in the Audit Report for an Unmodified Opinion?

A

(TIM-AA) Title; Introduction; Management Responsibility; Auditor Responsibility; Audit Opinion

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5
Q

What are the headings in the Audit Report for an Modified Opinion?

A

(TIMA-BA) Title; Introduction; Management Responsibility; Auditor Responsibility; Basis for (Modified) Opinion; Audit Opinion

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6
Q

In an Unmodified Opinion with Emphasis-of-Matter / Other-Matter sections, what is the order of the headings?

A

(TIM-AA EMO) Title; Introduction; Management Responsibility; Auditor Responsibility; Audit Opinion; Emphasis-of-Matter; Other-Matter

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7
Q

What are the requirements for referencing a Component Auditor in the Audit Report?

A

Component Financial Statements must be prepared using same Financial Reporting Framework as the Group Financial Statements; Component Auditor must have performed audit in accordance with GAAS or PCAOB Standards.

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8
Q

What must the Group Engagement Partner do if they assume responsibility for the Component Auditor’s work?

A

Perform additional audit procedures; Be involved in Component Auditors work; Perform Risk Assessment procedures; Assess Risk of Material Misstatement

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9
Q

What standards govern SSARS engagements?

A

Compilations are governed by SSARS (Statements on Standards for Accounting and Review Services)

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10
Q

Which clients can have compilation engagements?

A

Non-SEC (non-public) registrants only.

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11
Q

What is a Compilation?

A

Accountant puts together financial statements with information PROVIDED BY MANAGEMENT. No opinion is expressed and no assurances are given. Independence is not required.

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12
Q

What disclosures are required for Compilation engagements?

A

Disclosures not necessary must state that they are not included

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13
Q

What standards govern Review engagements?

A

SSARS (Statements on Standards for Accounting and Review Services)

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14
Q

What type of assurance is given in a Review engagement?

A

Reviews give limited assurance.

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15
Q

What procedures are required for Review engagements?

A

Analytical procedures are required for reviews. Compare results to documented predictions.

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16
Q

What is a Review engagement?

A

Financial statements are presented with no opinion expressed- and limited assurances are given. Independence is required for a review engagement.

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17
Q

What is a Forecast?

A

A prospective financial statement that uses normal circumstances. General and limited use allowed.

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18
Q

What is a Projection?

A

A prospective financial statement using hypothetical situations. Only limited use by the client is allowed.

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19
Q

What are the requirements for Agreed Upon Procedures?

A

Independence is required; Only limited use by the client is allowed.

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20
Q

What disclosures are required for remote likelihood of losses?

A

No disclosure required.

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21
Q

What disclosure is required for a probable loss contingency?

A

Accrue if estimable. Emphasis-of-Matter paragraph if not estimable.

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22
Q

What disclosure is made if a loss contingency is reasonably possible?

A

Auditor assesses need for Emphasis-of-Matter paragraph based on loss likelihood.

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23
Q

How is a gain contingency reported?

A

Gain contingencies are not reported.

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24
Q

How does an immaterial GAAP issue affect the audit opinion?

A

It doesn’t. Opinion is Unmodified.

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25
Q

How does a very material GAAP issue affect the Audit Report?

A

Modified-Adverse Opinion is issued. Emphasis-of-Matter paragraph is added after Opinion paragraph.

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26
Q

How do GAS standards compare to GAAS?

A

GAS is more strict than GAAS.

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27
Q

What is required under the Single Audit Act?

A

An audit performed under governmental auditing standards (GAS). A report on internal control is required. GAAS and GAS don’t require the I/C report.

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28
Q

What is Audit Sampling?

A

Taking part of a population- subjecting it to audit procedures- projecting results to a population

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29
Q

What are the characteristics of Statistical Sampling?

A

Based on formulas

Helps find an appropriate audit sample

Helps evaluate evidence obtained

Helps evaluate results and quantify Sampling Risk

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30
Q

What are the characteristics of Non-Statistical Sampling?

A

Based on human decision

Equally acceptable as Statistical Sampling

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31
Q

What are the characteristics of Substantive Tests?

A

Variables sampling

Probability proportionate to size sampling

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32
Q

What type of sampling are Control Tests?

A

Attribute Sampling

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33
Q

What is Sampling Risk?

A

Risk that your sample isn’t representative of population

Can happen even if audit is done properly

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34
Q

What is the risk of assessing Control Risk too high?

A

A risk of Control Testing - Auditor works to make Control Risk lower

More substantive tests - Sample overstates Control Risk- Leads to an under-reliance on internal control- over-testing- and overall audit inefficiency

Audit ends up being effective (correct result)- but you do more work

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35
Q

What is the risk of assessing Control Risk too low?

A

A risk of Control Testing - Complement to Confidence Level
Inverse relationship to Sample Size

Higher accepted risk of assessing Control Risk too low = Smaller Sample

Lower accepted risk of assessing Control Risk too low = Larger Sample

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36
Q

What are the risks if the auditor concludes controls are operating effectively based on the sample and Control Risk is set too low?

A

Leads to higher Detection Risk - Fewer substantive tests

Sample understates Control Risk

This error leads to over-reliance on internal control- under-testing- and overall audit ineffectiveness.

Does NOT necessarily mean that the Financial Statements are materially misstated - it does mean that if there is one- you are less likely to find it

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37
Q

What is the risk of Incorrect Acceptance?

A

A risk of Substantive Testing - Auditor accepts a balance as fairly stated- when in fact it is not fairly stated

Hurts audit effectiveness

Wrong conclusion reached

Efficient- but not effective

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38
Q

What is the risk of Incorrect Rejection?

A

A risk of Substantive Testing - Auditor rejects balance as fairly stated when in fact it is fairly stated

Hurts audit efficiency

Wrong recommendations given

Effective- but not efficient

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39
Q

What is Non-Sampling Risk?

A

Risk of human (auditor) missing an error

Also called exception- error or deviation.

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40
Q

How does Sampling Risk compare to Non-Sampling Risk?

A

Sampling Risk deals with the chance that your audit sample is flawed

Non-Sampling risk deals with the chance that your human decisions/conclusions are flawed

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41
Q

What is Attribute Sampling?

A

Looking at Control Procedures - Were invoices approved when paid?

Errors are stated in terms of %- not dollar amounts

For example- 5 invoices out of 100 were not properly paid. Error rate is 5%

Hint: If you see Error Rate on the Exam- they are referring to Attribute Sampling.

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42
Q

How do you determine if Control Procedures are operating properly or not operating properly?

A

Control Procedures are either operating properly or they are not operating properly - based on Error Rate and the tolerance you have for errors

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43
Q

What is the Tolerable Rate?

A

Error rate in population that you are willing to accept/tolerate

Inverse relationship to Sample Size

Higher Tolerable Rate = Smaller Sample
Lower Tolerable Rate = Larger Sample

If you’re willing to accept a higher probability that errors exist- there is less pressure on the sample

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44
Q

What is the Expected Population Error Rate?

A

What Error Rate are you expecting? - Judgment call- based on experience

Direct relationship to Sample Size

More errors = Larger Sample

Less errors = Smaller Sample

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45
Q

What is the basic premise of Attribute Sampling?

A

Attribute in the sample gives information about the entire audit population

Used to estimate Internal Control error rate

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46
Q

For what is the Expected Population Deviation (error) Rate used?

A

Used to determine initial level of Control Risk

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47
Q

What is the Allowable Risk of Over-reliance?

A

Risk of Assessing Control Risk too low

Gives you the Sampling Risk

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48
Q

When is Attribute sampling used?

A

Attribute sampling is only useful when there is documented evidence (an audit trail) to test

Use when the existence of an error needs to be verified or debunked

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49
Q

What is Classic Variable Sampling?

A

Testing for a dollar amount

Value in sample gives information about value in entire population.

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50
Q

What functions are used in conjunction with Classic Variable Sampling?

A

Mean Per Unit = Sample Average x Number in Population

Stratification - Decreases effect of variance in population and reduces sample size

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51
Q

What are the characteristics of Probability Proportionate to Size (PPS) sampling?

A

A form of Variable Sampling

Does NOT use Standard Deviation

Auditor focuses on a dollar amount

Larger or more valuable items get picked more often as part of the sample

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52
Q

What is Projected Misstatement?

A

Misstatement found in sample - have to project it to remainder of population

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53
Q

How does Probability Proportionate to Size (PPS) sampling compare to Classic Variables sampling?

A

PPS:

Easier to use- Results in a stratified (homogenous) sample- Results in a smaller sample size to audit- Easy to design

Classic Variables Sampling:

Easy to expand sample size- Selecting zero and negative balances easy

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54
Q

What factors affect sample size?

A

Tolerable rate for error - Inverse relationship with sample size

Risk of assessing Control Risk too low - Inverse relationship with sample size

Expected population error rate - Direct relationship with sample size

Population size does NOT affect the sample size - as population is larger- sample size doesn’t grow.

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55
Q

What is the formula for Audit Sampling?

A

SER + ASR < TER

SER = Sample Error Rate

ASR = Allowance for Sampling Risk

TER = Tolerable Error Rate

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56
Q

What is Allowance for Sampling Risk?

A

The amount that you add to the Sampling Error Rate to get some cushion for your sample.

As high as you think the population error rate could go based on experience.

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57
Q

What is the Tolerable Error Rate?

A

The amount of error rate that you can accept - If population error rate is less than TER- then accept the Control as effective

If population error rate is more than TER- do more testing to get SER lower or conclude control isn’t effective. Do more substantive testing

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58
Q

What are the steps to develop a sampling plan?

A

Determine Test Objective - for example- have sales shipments been billed?

Define Population and Deviation - take a sample of shipping document- trace forward to see if billed

Determine Sample Size based on tolerable rate for error- risk of assessing Control Risk too low- and expected population error rate.

Select Sampling Technique

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59
Q

After a Sampling Plan is developed- what are the steps in sampling?

A

Perform the Sampling Plan

Evaluate Results

Document Results

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60
Q

What is Systematic Sampling?

A

Every certain # of a population is selected

Population needs to be randomly ordered

Primary advantage is that population doesn’t require pre-numbering

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61
Q

What is Sequential Sampling?

A

Also called Stop or Go sampling

Each audit step determines the next step

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62
Q

What is Discovery Sampling?

A

Audit is testing an area that is so crucial that zero population errors can be tolerated

Any phony employees on payroll?

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63
Q

How does Block Sampling compare to other sampling methods?

A

Easy to implement- but is the worst method of sampling.

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64
Q

What is the primary duty of an auditor?

A

To provide users of financial information with REASONABLE ASSURANCE that the financial statements are not materially misstated.

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65
Q

What is the auditor’s responsibility for detecting theft or fraud?

A

Auditors are not responsible for detecting theft or fraud.

Instead- they are responsible for providing REASONABLE ASSURANCE that the financial statements are not materially misstated.

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66
Q

When should an auditor be hired in relation to the balance sheet date for optimum audit planning and efficiency?

A

The earlier the auditor is hired- the better for audit planning and efficiency.

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67
Q

When can audit procedures be performed at interim dates?

A

If Control Risk for the accounts and/or transactions is low- audit procedures can be performed at interim dates.

The auditor then reviews changes in the balances at year-end.

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68
Q

When can an auditor accept an engagement offered after the year is already closed?

A

The auditor can take the engagement if they are able to overcome the limitations of the engagement.

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69
Q

For what does an auditor use professional skepticism?

A

To plan the scope of the audit

To plan the objectives of the audit

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70
Q

How can analytical procedures be performed in audit planning?

A

The auditor can compare actual versus forecasted numbers.

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71
Q

What must an auditor have in order to discuss issues relating to a predecessor auditor’s work?

A

If issues relating to predecessor auditor’s work on previous Financial Statements come up during the current audit- Auditor must have client’s permission to discuss the issue.

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72
Q

What questions must an auditor ask with respect to procedures carried out by assistants?

A

Were they adequately performed? (Review the working papers)

Are the results consistent with the audit report?

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73
Q

How is audit strategy mapped out?

A

Auditor determines what the reporting objectives are.

Auditor determines the scope of the audit.

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74
Q

Describe the key components of maintaining auditor independence.

A

Auditor must be independent in fact and appearance

Honesty

No direct financial interest

No indirect material financial interest

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75
Q

Describe Due Professional Care

A

Technical abilities mirror those held by peers in the profession
Follow GAAS Standards
Obtain a Reasonable Level of Assurance
Maintain Reasonable Level of Skepticism
Supervise Audit Staff
Review judgment at every level

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76
Q

What should an auditor do prior to accepting an audit engagement?

A

Review the previous financial statements

Speak to third parties

Contact predecessor auditor to evaluate whether engagement should be accepted (must have client permission)

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77
Q

What questions should be asked by an auditor prior to taking an engagement?

A

Note: must have permission of client to contact predecessor auditor (no permission = no engagement)

Why the Auditor Change?
Any Serious Discussions with Audit Committee?
How is Management Integrity? Disagreements?
How was Internal Control?
Understand Industry or Be Willing to Learn
Consider Scope Limitation - Limited evidence available = no engagement

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78
Q

What should be included in an audit engagement agreement?

A

Note: must be written

Objectives of Engagement
Limitations of Engagement
Responsibilities of Management - Provide written assertions
Responsibilities of Auditor - Limited error/fraud responsibility
Expectations of Access to Records
Financial Statements (and Disclosures) are Management’s Responsibility
Compliance with Laws
Internal Control

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79
Q

What is management’s responsibility with respect to the financial statements?

A

Management is responsible for financial statements and adequacy of disclosures.

Presentation & Disclosure
Existence (Tests Overstatements)
Rights & Obligations
Completeness (Tests Understatements)
Valuation & Allocation

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80
Q

What is the purpose of the Audit Committee?

A

Responsible for Hiring Auditor

Oversees Internal Control

Must Agree with Auditor on: Responsibility of the Parties- Audit Fee- Timing of the Audit- Audit Plan

Acts as Liaison Between Auditor and the Board

Auditor Communicates Concerns about: Internal Control Deficiencies- Errors- Fraud- Illegal Activities

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81
Q

How is Audit Risk calculated?

A

Inherent Risk x Control Risk x Detection Risk

Risk that material mistakes- errors- omissions- or fraud will result in an inaccurate audit report

Based on Auditor Judgment

Measured in both Qualitative and Quantitative

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82
Q

Describe Control Risk

A

Risk that internal control will not detect error or fraud

Auditor cannot control this.

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83
Q

Describe Inherent Risk.

A

Which transactions have a higher level of risk?

Auditor cannot control

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84
Q

Describe Detection Risk.

A

Will the auditor fail to detect a material misstatement?

Auditor CAN control

Do testing at year-end
Increase substantive testing
Run more effective tests

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85
Q

What responses should an auditor take based on different levels of acceptable detection risk (DR)? What type of tests should be performed?

A

Less Acceptable DR = Run More Substantive Tests

More Acceptable DR = Run Less Substantive Tests

More Substantive Tests (DR down) = Less Audit Risk; (AR = IR x CR x DR)

Less Substantive Tests (DR up) = More Audit Risk; (AR = IR x CR x DR)

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86
Q

What are quantitative measurements versus non-quantitative measurements with respect to risk?

A

Quantitative Measurements - Inherent- Control- and Detection Risk can all be measured in terms of percentages

Non-Quantitative Measurements - Inherent- Control- and Detection Risk can all be measured in terms of acceptable ranges

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87
Q

Whose responsibility is it to FIND and PREVENT fraud?

A

It is Management’s responsibility.

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88
Q

What is the auditor’s responsibility with respect to fraud and illegal acts?

A

Assess the RISK that such things will lead to material misstatements

Design the audit to provide reasonable assurance against fraud- illegal acts that directly and materially affect the financial statements

Report ALL management fraud to the audit committee (minor fraud by low-level employees not reported to committee)

Perform required inquiries and procedures (management inquiries- analytical procedures- discussions with audit personnel about fraud)

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89
Q

What are the three factors that affect/influence fraud?

A

Fraud is born out of:

Rationalization
Incentive
Opportunity

(RIO)

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90
Q

What is the difference between fraud and errors?

A

Errors are unintentional- fraud is intentional.

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91
Q

What red flags may indicate higher risk in an audit?

A

Management compensation tied to stock
Aggressive financial forecasting
Former auditor disagreed with Management
Records not available for audit

Current audit procedures may need to be reconsidered if red flags exist.

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92
Q

Describe the characteristics of a Fraud Risk Factor.

A

Has been observed in similar situations

Does NOT necessarily mean that there is a material weakness in internal control

Leads to an auditor taking action

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93
Q

What does an examination of internal control accomplish with respect to illegal acts?

A

Internal control analysis can result in the conclusion that IC is weak- but probably won’t identify illegal acts

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94
Q

What is the purpose of adjusting audit procedures in light of fraud risk factors identified during an audit?

A

Strives to make audit engagement procedures less patterned and predictable

Re-evaluates management’s application of accounting procedures

Finds and assigns audit personnel with relevant skills in this area

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95
Q

What should be documented with respect to fraud risk factors in an audit?

A

Any fraud risks identified that could lead to material misstatement

Audit procedures performed to assess risks

Nature of communication made to audit committee and company management

Disclosure to third parties regarding fraud not normally the auditor’s responsibility

Fraud by management should normally be reported to the audit committee- NOT the SEC.

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96
Q

What was the effect of the SOX Act of 2002?

A

Created PCAOB

Designates Officer responsibility for internal control

Must disclose significant internal control weaknesses to auditor and audit committee

Must disclose any level of fraud discovered by employees with internal control responsibilities

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97
Q

What is the Hierarchy of Authoritative Literature?

A
  1. Statements on Auditing Standards (SAS)
  2. Auditing Interpretations- AICPA Guides & SOPs
  3. Industry Articles (no authority)
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98
Q

What quality control activities are undertaken by CPA firms with audit practices?

A

Firm Leadership exhibits quality and leads by example and sets the tone for the organization

Firm should Monitor and document that its policies and procedures are being followed

Firm should have Relevant Ethical Requirements

Acceptance and continuance of client engagements should continue to be evaluated for client integrity- auditor competency- and legality

Firm should have competent and ethical personnel

Firm engagements are performed- supervised- and reviewed in accordance with professional standards and regulations.

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99
Q

Which literature governs Compilation services?

A

SSARS - Statements on Standards for Accounting and Review Services

These govern reporting for non-public entities only

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100
Q

What is the independence requirement for Compilations?

A

Independence NOT required for Compilations

No Internal Control work allowed

No assurance given

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101
Q

What type of assurance is provided by a Compilation?

A

Compilations are not an assurance service. No assurance is provided.

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102
Q

What type of assurance is provided by Review services?

A

Reviews provide NEGATIVE assurance.

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103
Q

What is the independence requirement for a Review?

A

Reviews require independence.

No Internal Control work allowed
Performs analytical procedures
No material indirect financial interest allowed
No immaterial direct financial interest allowed

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104
Q

For compilations and reviews- what knowledge must a service provider have?

A

Must have an understanding of the client industry.

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105
Q

What are attestation services?

A

CPA expresses a conclusion about an assertion - Compliance with laws

NOT considered a Consulting engagement

Independence Required

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106
Q

What is the independence requirement for consulting services?

A

Independence is not required for consulting services.

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107
Q

Describe the limitations on Prospective Financial Statements?

A

Report is restricted to specified users.

Agreed-upon procedures are implemented.

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108
Q

What is the role of the Group Engagement Team?

A

Develop Audit Strategy; Communicate with Component Auditors; Perform work on the Consolidation Process; Evaluate Audit Conclusions; Understand work of Component Auditors;

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109
Q

Who is on the Group Engagement Team?

A

Firm Partners; Group Engagement Partner; Audit Staff

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110
Q

Who establishes the Materiality threshold for the Component Auditor?

A

The Group Engagement Team; The Materiality threshold must be lower than the Group Materiality threshold

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111
Q

What is the Group Engagement Partner responsible for?

A

Group Audit Engagement Direction - Supervision - Performance and the Audit Report

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112
Q

What is the role of a Component Auditor

A

Audit a component of the entity

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113
Q

What should the Group Engagement Team do if a Component Auditor audits a Significant Component due to Financial Materiality?

A

Audit the Financial Information

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114
Q

What should the Group Engagement Team do if a Component Auditor audits a Significant Component due to Risk of Material Misstatement?

A

Perform Audit Procedures

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115
Q

What should the Group Engagement Team do if a Component Auditor audits a Non-Significant Component?

A

Analytical Procedures performed at Group Level

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116
Q

Why does an Auditor do if they suspect legal proceedings could contribute to a Material Misstagement?

A

Contact Client external counsel through a Letter of Inquiry

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117
Q

What is the majority of an auditor’s work in determining an audit opinion?

A

Collection of evidence to support the opinion.

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118
Q

Of what does audit Evidence consist?

A

Evidence consists of client accounting data and supporting documentation from client or from third parties.

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119
Q

What is the relationship between Evidence and Detection Risk?

A

Evidence has an inverse relationship with Detection Risk

The one aspect of Audit Risk an auditor can control through (N)ature (T)iming (E)xtent of audit procedures.

Inherent Risk and Control risk are outside of auditor’s control.

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120
Q

Which aspects of Audit Risk can an auditor control?

A

Detection Risk which is decreased by gathering evidence.

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121
Q

Which aspects of Audit Risk can an auditor NOT control?

A

Inherent Risk and Control Risk are outside of an auditor’s control.

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122
Q

How does a high level of acceptable Detection Risk affect an audit?

A

Less Evidence collected. Opens door for incremental audit risk - Internal Control should be strong.

Business and transactions should be relatively stable and predictable.

(N) Less-competent Evidence collected
(T) Interim testing acceptable
(E) Fewer transactions are verified.

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123
Q

What should occur when a low level of Detection Risk is acceptable?

A

More Evidence collected

(N) More-competent Evidence collected
(T) End of year balance testing
(E) More transactions are verified

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124
Q

What are the primary risks in an audit for a typical for-profit company?

A

Auditors are there to verify that

Assets & Revenues are not overstated
Expenses & Liabilities are not understated

Exception - if the CPA Exam states that it is a tax-driven company flip them around

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125
Q

What is the primary constraint on audit evidence?

A

Cost vs. Benefit is a primary constraint.

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126
Q

What characteristics should audit evidence have?

A

Sufficient (quantity)

Appropriate: Relevant & Reliable (Quality)

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127
Q

How does the quality of audit evidence vary depending on who has provided it?

A

Best evidence: Observation of activity by auditor.

2nd Best: Originates from External Parties and is sent directly to auditor (or failing that items are generated by third party and provided to auditor by the client such as a bank statement)

Weakest: Oral evidence from management.

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128
Q

Which documents are the most persuasive and credible?

A

Third party documents are more persuasive and credible than internally-prepared docs

Auditor Knowledge = Most Persuasive

3rd Party info given to auditor

3rd Party info given to client

Internally-prepared doc

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129
Q

What are Substantive Procedures?

A

Test substance/amounts/values. They help to reduce the risk of material misstatements. They only test accuracy of financial statements and dollar amounts - they don’t test internal controls.

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130
Q

What are the substantive tests that are most often performed?

A
Trace (or Vouch)
Reconcile
Analytical Procedures
Confirmations
Examine evidence that supports management assertions.

(T.R.A.C.E.)

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131
Q

When performing audit procedures what should auditors focus on?

A

Auditors focus first on Balance Sheet Accounts then associated Income Statement items

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132
Q

How is Cash audited?

A

Assurance Level is High.

Acceptable Detection Risk is Low.

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133
Q

How is Accounts Receivable audited?

A

If Acceptable DR is High - Negative Confirmation is used - Customer only responds if balance is materially wrong.

If Acceptable DR is Low - Positive Confirmation is used - Customer asked to confirm by telling auditor the balance.

Corresponding Income Statement Account - Revenue

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134
Q

How is Accounts Payable audited?

A

Review purchase orders/invoices

Confirm with Vendors

Corresponding Income Statement Account - Various Expenses

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135
Q

How is Inventory audited?

A

Examine purchase agreements

Look at Board Minutes

Is Inventory held as collateral?

Corresponding Income Statement Account - COGS

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136
Q

How are beginning balances audited?

A

Should match last year’s ending balance.

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137
Q

What is the general presumption for auditing Ending Balances?

A

If Beginning Balance Additions Subtractions are OK then Ending Balances should also be OK.

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138
Q

How is a Statement of Cash Flows audited?

A

Foot all balances - Check the Math

Trace Cash Flow items to other Financial Statements

Check classifications - Operating Activities Investing Activities Financing Activities

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139
Q

Under the Indirect Method what must be disclosed on a Statement of Cash Flows?

A

Interest Paid

Income Taxes Paid

Non-cash Transactions

Cash and Cash Equivalents Definitions

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140
Q

Under the Direct Method what must be disclosed on a Statement of Cash Flows?

A

Results as if you had used Indirect Method

Non-cash Transactions

Cash and Cash Equivalents Definition

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141
Q

What are Subsequent Events and what do they require?

A

Subsequent events occur after the Balance Sheet Date but before the audit report is issued.

Auditor needs to make inquiries and assess if they affect the audit report.

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142
Q

What should occur if the audit report has already been issued and the auditor becomes aware of a situation that was present as of the Balance Sheet date (a subsequent event)?

A

If audit report has already been issued and auditor becomes aware of a situation that was present as of the BS date client should issue a disclosure to financial statement users and/or revise the financial statement.

Regulatory agencies might need to get involved under some circumstances.

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143
Q

What should an auditor do if they discover they have forgotten to perform a substantive procedure?

A

If auditor discovers that they forgot to perform a substantive procedure auditor should determine if other substantive procedures performed served as a substitute.

Otherwise support for their audit opinion could be jeopardized.

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144
Q

When are Analytical Procedures required?

A

REQUIRED When planning the audit (preliminary)

REQUIRED When reviewing the audit (final)

Analytical procedures may be also performed optionally along with the substantive testing.

Use of Analytical Procedures in the audit must be documented.

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145
Q

How do Analytical Procedures assist the auditor?

A

Helps the Auditor:

Determine if Management Assertions are reasonable

Develop audit plan

Develop some expectations about the financial statement and hopefully bring to light any glaring errors on financial statement

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146
Q

What is the focus of Analytical Procedures?

A

Analytical Procedure focus is on dollar amounts (not internal controls)

Analyzes Financial Data: Do Financial Statements Make Sense?

Comparison of data between years

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147
Q

How is the Current Ratio calculated?

A

Current Ratio = Current Assets / Current Liabilities

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148
Q

How is the Quick Ratio calculated?

A

Quick Ratio = Liquid Assets / Current Liabilities

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149
Q

How is the Asset Turnover calculated?

A

Asset Turnover = Net Sales / Average Assets

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150
Q

How is the Inventory Turnover calculated?

A

Inventory Turnover = COGS / Average Inventory

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151
Q

How is Gross Margin % calculated?

A

Gross Margin % = Gross Margin / Sales

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152
Q

What type of testing are ratios?

A

Ratios are Analytical Procedures

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153
Q

What type of procedure is a Budget vs. Actual comparison?

A

Budget vs. Actual comparisons are Analytical Procedures.

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154
Q

List Common Types of Analytical Procedures

A

Ratio analysis

Budget vs. Actual comparison

Comparison of data between years

Use of non-financial data to predict expected values for financial data

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155
Q

How do management assertions affect the audit?

A

Management assertions help the auditor to plan the audit and select substantive tests.

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156
Q

What assertions do auditors test?

A

Presentation - Cutoff Classification - Is it in the right period and category?
Existence/ Occurrence - Did it happen? Does it exist?
Rights & Obligations - Does the company own them?
Completeness - Was everything recorded?
Valuation - Are they worth the amount at which they are recorded?

(PERCV)

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157
Q

What assertions are tests for transaction classes?

A

Occurrence

Cutoff

Classification

Completeness

Accuracy

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158
Q

For which assertions are disclosures tested?

A

Occurrence

Completeness

Classification

Accuracy

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159
Q

Is testing the validity of direct evidence a basic audit procedure?

A

No it is an extended procedure.

For example you don’t have to take a loan covenant document and go search out that it’s a valid loan covenant. Instead you consider the source - if it’s externally prepared it’s more persuasive.

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160
Q

How are Management Estimates audited?

A

First and foremost you need to understand management’s rationale and methods for developing estimates before you can judge reasonableness.

Next Auditor should formulate their own opinion on what a good estimate should be and compare it.

Finally determine if subsequent events affect the estimate.

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161
Q

Whose property are audit documentation (audit workpapers)? In what form must they be?

A

Audit workpapers are the property of the auditor.

They can be paper or electronic.

They must include a WRITTEN audit program (either paper or electronic).

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162
Q

What is the Current File?

A

Information pertaining to the current year’s audit.

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163
Q

What is the Permanent File?

A

Information used for this audit and future audits which is updated as needed.

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164
Q

How long must audit workpapers be maintained?

A

Must be kept for 5 years after the audit release date or according to regulations whichever is longer.

Must be kept for 7 years under PCAOB Audit

PCAOB audits also require an Engagement Completion Document

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165
Q

What is the primary requirement for audit workpapers besides being written?

A

Any experienced auditor should be able to look at your work and understand what you did.

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166
Q

How should documents added to work papers be treated?

A

If further documents are added to the work papers after the audit report is issued it must be documented as to who added them why they were added and any effects on the audit report.

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167
Q

How should documents removed from workpapers be treated?

A

After the audit report is released the firm has 60 days to subtract from the file.

You can still add to the file if you document it but you cannot delete any information after 60 days.

Note - for SEC auditors the PCAOB only allows deletions up to 45 days after issuance of the audit report.

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168
Q

Which IT personnel roles should always be segregated?

A

Operators

Programmers

Librarians

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169
Q

What are the duties of a systems analyst?

A

Designs or purchases IT system

Responsible for flowcharts

Liaison between Users and Programmers

Note: Think IT Manager

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170
Q

What is the primary duty of a Systems Administrator?

A

A Systems Administrator controls database access.

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171
Q

What are the duties of a Systems Programmer?

A

Writes- Updates- Maintains- & Tests software- systems- and compilers

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172
Q

Which duties should a Systems Programmer NOT have?

A

In order to maximize internal control- a Systems Programmer should NOT have application programming duties/abilities or be an Operator on the system.

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173
Q

What are the duties of a Systems Operator?

A

Schedules and Monitors Jobs

Runs IT Help Desk

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174
Q

What duties should a System Operator NOT have?

A

For internal control purposes- they should not be a Programmer on the system.

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175
Q

If it is not possible to segregate duties in an IT System- what actions should be taken to compensate for internal control purposes?

A

Include Computer Logs.

Control Group should review the logs.

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176
Q

What is the purpose of a Management Information System (MIS)?

A

To assist with decision making.

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177
Q

What is an Accounting Information System (AIS)?

A

A type of Management Information System (MIS) that processes accounting transactions.

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178
Q

What are the characteristics of an Executive Information System (EIS)?

A

Specialized for Company Executive needs

Assists with Strategy Only

No Decision-Making Capabilities

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179
Q

What are the characteristics of an Expert System (ES)?

A

Computer uses reasoning

Structured

No human interpretation needed

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180
Q

What are the characteristics of a Decision Support System (DSS)?

A

Computer provides data

Gives Interactive Support

Human interpretation needed

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181
Q

What are the characteristics of an Ad Hoc computer report?

A

User initiates the report.

The report is created upon demand.

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182
Q

When are Exception reports generated?

A

Exception reports are produced when Edit Tests- Check Digits- or Self-Checking Digits identify a problem

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183
Q

What is a query?

A

A type of Ad Hoc report- initiated by a user.

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184
Q

What is End-User Computing?

A

The User develops and executes their own application.

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185
Q

What is the primary benefit of E-commerce?

A

E-commerce makes business transactions easier.

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186
Q

What are the risks of E-commerce?

A

Compromised data or theft.

Less paper trail for auditors.

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187
Q

What are the benefits of Electronic Data Interchange?

A

Uses globally-accepted standards

Efficient

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188
Q

What is a File Server?

A

A file server stores shared programs and documents.

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189
Q

What is the purpose of a Database?

A

Located on a File Server- a Database allows users to share documents.

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190
Q

What is the purpose of a LAN (Local Area Network)?

A

It connects computers in close proximity.

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191
Q

What is the purpose of a WAN (Wide Area Network)?

A

It connects computers that are far apart.

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192
Q

What are the characteristics of a VAN (Value-Added Network)?

A

Privately-owned Network

Serves as 3rd Party Between 2 Companies

Routes EDI Transactions

Accepts wide range of Protocols

Very Costly

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193
Q

What is the purpose of a Firewall?

A

Prevents unauthorized access to a network.

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194
Q

What are the characteristics of a virus?

A

Takes over a computer

Needs a host program to run

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195
Q

What are the characteristics of a computer worm?

A

Takes over multiple computers

Doesn’t need a host program to run

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196
Q

What is the purpose of Automated Equipment Controls?

A

They prevent and detect hardware errors.

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197
Q

What is RAM?

A

Random Access Memory.

Internal memory in the computer used during immediate processing.

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198
Q

What is a CPU?

A

Computer Processing Unit

It processes commands within a computer.

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199
Q

What is Job Control Language?

A

It schedules and allocates system resources.

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200
Q

What are examples of input devices?

A

Keyboard
Mouse
Scanner
Magnetic Ink Reader
Magnetic Tape Reader
EDI
Point of Sale Scanner

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201
Q

What are examples of Output Devices?

A

Speakers

Monitors

Printers

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202
Q

What are the characteristics of Magnetic Tape storage?

A

Sequential Access - Sorts data in order

Slower data retrieval

Header Label prevents Operator error by loading wrong tape

External Labels prevent accidental destruction by operator

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203
Q

What are the characteristics of Magnetic Disks?

A

Random Access - Finds data in random spots

Faster data retrieval

Uses Boundary Protection for data

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204
Q

What is a Gateway?

A

Connects one network to another

Note: the Internet is connected by Gateways

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205
Q

What are Parity Checks?

A

A control that detects internal data errors.

A bit is added to each character- it checks to see if a bit was lost.

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206
Q

What is an Echo Check?

A

Transmitted data is returned to the sender for verification (it echoes back to the sender)

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207
Q

What is a Change Control?

A

It authorizes program changes and approves program test results.

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208
Q

What is security software?

A

Software that controls access to IT systems.

Note: Don’t confuse this with anti-virus software

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209
Q

What is the purpose of a Digital Signature?

A

It confirms a message has not been altered.

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210
Q

List the types of computers from smallest to largest

A

PDA/Smartphone/Tablet

Microcomputer - PC- Laptop (cost-effective)

Minicomputer - Like a Mainframe- but smaller

Mainframe - Large computer with terminals attached

Supercomputer - Very powerful and very big

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211
Q

What are the units of computer data from smallest to largest?

A

Bit - 1 (on) and 0 (off)
Byte - 8 bits to a byte/character
Field - group of related characters/bytes (i.e. Name- Zip Code- Serial #)
Record - Group of related fields (i.e. Member name- address- phone number)
File - Group of related records (i.e. Membership directory)

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212
Q

What is the duty of a design engineer?

A

Determine language used for a specific computer- on a computer-to-computer basis

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213
Q

What are object programs?

A

Programs written in base computer language- not similar to English.

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214
Q

How can source programs be recognized?

A

They are written in a language close to English.

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215
Q

What is the purpose of a Compiler?

A

Takes Source language (English) and converts to Object (Computer) Language

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216
Q

How does Online Analytical Processing work?

A

It uses a Data Warehouse to support management decision making.

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217
Q

What is Data Mining?

A

Using artificial intelligence and pattern recognition to analyze data stores within a Data Warehouse.

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218
Q

What is the purpose of online transaction processing?

A

To process a company’s routine transactions.

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219
Q

What are the characteristics of batch processing?

A

Data held- updates multiple files all at once

Leaves a better audit trail

Uses Grandfather-Father-Son backup (3 levels of backup kept in 3 locations)

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220
Q

What does an output control check for?

A

Checks to see if output data is valid- distributed and used in an authorized manner.

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221
Q

What does a processing control check?

A

Checks if data processing produced proper output

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222
Q

What is a hash total?

A

An input control number- a meaningless sum of values included in the input.

Example would be summing a list of SSNs to make sure the data is the same once entered as it was prior to input into the system.

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223
Q

What is a validity check?

A

Checks to see if data in existing tables or files belongs in the set

For example- is there a # in an alpha-only field or a letter in a numeric-only field

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224
Q

What is a limit check?

A

Checks to see if numbers surpass a certain limit- i.e. in an age field is the number greater than 110.

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225
Q

What is a check digit?

A

An input control that adds an identification number to a set of
digits - usually at the end

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226
Q

What is a field check?

A

An input check that prevents invalid characters- i.e. checks for alphabetic letters in a SSN field

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227
Q

What is a Hot Site?

A

A disaster recovery system where if the main system goes down- a Hot Site is ready to take over immediately.

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228
Q

What is a Cold Site?

A

If a main system goes down- a Cold Site will take time to get set up and running.

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229
Q

What is the most common database language?

A

SQL - Structured Query Language

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230
Q

What is a Data Definition Language?

A

Defines SQL Database

Controls SQL Tables

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231
Q

What is a Data Manipulation Language?

A

Queries SQL Database tables

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232
Q

What is a Data Control Language?

A

Controls Access to SQL Database

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233
Q

What are the characteristics of a Relational Database?

A

Logical structure

Uses rows and columns similar to spreadsheet

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234
Q

What are the characteristics of a Hierarchical Database?

A

Has various levels

Uses trees to store data

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235
Q

What are the advantages of a database?

A

Data is more accessible

Reduced redundancy

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236
Q

What are the disadvantages of a database?

A

Cost of installation

Skilled personnel required to maintain

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237
Q

What are the components of a database?

A

Desktop client

Application Server

Database Server

Think: Your desktop computer runs applications and saves to a database

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238
Q

If Internal Control is poor and a company’s accounting practices are sloppy - which risk is higher?

A

Control risk increases with poor Internal Controls and sloppy accounting practices.

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239
Q

If Internal Control is poor - what is the effect on the audit?

A

Auditor will need to perform more testing and dig deeper into accounts in order to arrive at an opinion regarding the financial statements.

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240
Q

What does Internal Control provide reasonable assurance for?

A

Internal control provides reasonable assurance that

Material misstatements will be prevented

Reliability/integrity of financial statements will be preserved

Assets are protected against misuse

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241
Q

What is required in an examination of Internal Control under Sarbanes-Oxley?

A

CEO/CFO must disclose Internal Control deficiencies

Management must provide assessment of Internal Control

Management must certify Financial Statements

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242
Q

What is the relationship between Internal Control and Substantive Testing?

A

Inverse Relationship

Stronger Internal Controls - Less Testing Needed

Weaker Internal Controls - More Testing Needed

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243
Q

What are the 3 objectives of Internal Control?

A

Reliability of Financial Reporting

Operational Efficiency/Effectiveness

Compliance with Law and Regulations

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244
Q

What are the 5 components of Internal Control?

A

Control Environment

Risk Assessment

Information and Communication

Monitoring

Control Activities

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245
Q

What is the purpose for a Control Environment assessment?

A

Sets tone for the entire company

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246
Q

What are the components of the Control Environment?

A

Integrity/Ethics of Management
Competence of Management
Organizational Structure
Human Resource Policies
Assignment of Authority/Responsibility
Management’s Style (riskier with a dominant/aggressive individual)
Board/Audit Committee involvement

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247
Q

What does an auditor’s assessment of Detection Risk determine?

A

Detection Risk determines nature- timing- and extent of audit procedures.

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248
Q

What determines the acceptable level of Detection Risk?

A

Risk of material misstatement determines acceptable level of Detection Risk

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249
Q

What items could increase the risk of material misstatement?

A

Rapid growth in the company.

The methods management uses to identify risk- estimate its significance and assess the likelihood of occurrence

Major changes to operations- personnel- systems- IT- products- corporate organization- and foreign operations.

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250
Q

What happens when Control Risk is assessed to be at the maximum level?

A

No Internal Control testing is performed.

All audit procedures are increased in intensity to compensate for increased risk.

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251
Q

What happens when Control Risk is below the maximum level?

A

Auditor tests Internal Controls.

Auditor evaluates Control Risk based on tests

Auditor adjusts substantive tests accordingly

Weaker Internal Control - More substantive tests

Stronger Internal Control - Less substantive tests

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252
Q

Describe some common examples of Control Activities.

A

Performance Reviews

Information Processing

Physical Controls

Segregation of Duties

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253
Q

What should an auditor understand with respect to Information and Communication on an audit?

A

Understand Client’s

Major transaction classes
Transaction initiation
Support records/documents
Transaction processing
Financial Statement internal reporting process
Financial Statement external reporting process

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254
Q

How must an auditor document understanding of Internal Control?

A

Through written documentation such as Internal Control memos- flowcharts- and questionnaires

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255
Q

What questions should be asked to determine the risk of material misstatement?

A

Were all transactions recorded?
Were they timely?
Measured appropriately?
Recorded in correct period?
Presented and disclosed properly?
Did Management communicate their responsibilities?

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256
Q

What is the purpose of testing Internal Controls?

A

Auditor needs reasonable assurance that controls are functioning as designed and effective

Internal Control Testing should be strong as (IRON) so that nothing gets past them

Inquiry - Interview company personnel
Re-performance - Can it be replicated?
Observation - Watch the control be applied
INspection - Dig into the details/documents

If results are as expected- substantive procedures do not need to be adjusted

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257
Q

When can controls tested by an auditor in a prior year be used in the current year’s audit assessment?

A

Controls tested by auditor in a prior year can be used in the current year’s audit assuming they are re-tested every third year

Exception If the control has changed since the last audit

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258
Q

What happens if Internal Controls are deficient?

A

Control Risk increases

Scope of substantive procedures increases

Detection Risk decreases

Material Weakness - Reasonable possibility that a material misstatement in Financial Statements would not be found- more than a remote chance of occurrence

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259
Q

What is a Material Weakness?

A

Reasonable possibility exists that a material misstatement in Financial Statements would not be found- and has more than a remote chance of occurrence.

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260
Q

What does Tracing test?

A

Tests Completeness

Starts with source document and traces forward to the journal entry.

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261
Q

What does Vouching test?

A

Tests Existence.

Starts with a journal entry and searches for a voucher or source document to support the entry.

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262
Q

What activities represent Segregation of Duties?

A

Non-compatible duties performed by separate individuals- such as

Authorization of asset disbursement vs. Recording of Assets vs. Custody of assets

If supporting audit evidence doesn’t exit - use Observation and Inquiry

Accounting should be segregated from Production

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263
Q

With respect to signing checks - how are duties segregated?

A

Employees who prepare vouchers/invoices should not also have the authority to SIGN CHECKS

Tip - Remember this as an underlying theme with Segregation of Duties. The authority to make a payment should not also lie in the hands of those creating invoices/vouchers. Why? People commit fraud by setting up fake companies and basically paying themselves

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264
Q

With respect to custody of assets - how should duties be segregated?

A

Employees who have custody of assets should not also RECORD those assets

Someone in charge of petty cash should not also control the petty cash records

Treasury Department (custodians) should NOT have record keeping duties

They control assets and should not be able to adjust any recording of those assets

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265
Q

What are the limitations on Control Activities?

A

Controls can’t stop collusion or bad judgment

Management can override controls

Cost vs. Benefit relationship of Internal Control

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266
Q

What is required if a Material Weakness is identified?

A

A written report to management is required.

Report declaring that no material weaknesses were found is allowed

Previous weaknesses reported that still exist should be reported again

Should be reported no later than 60 days after audit report release date

If one or more material weaknesses is uncorrected at year-end- an Adverse Opinion on Internal Control must be given

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267
Q

What is the effect of a Significant Deficiency? What is it?

A

A significant deficiency adversely affects a company’s ability to report in the financial statements according to GAAP.

A significant deficiency is a more than a remote likelihood of material misstatement by more than an inconsequential amount

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268
Q

What must occur if a Significant Deficiency is identified?

A

If a Significant Deficiency is identified- a written report to management required

Report declaring that no significant deficiencies exist is not allowed

Previous deficiencies reported that still exist should be reported again

Should be reported no later than 60 days after the audit report release date

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269
Q

What is a Control Deficiency?

A

A control is not operating as intended.

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270
Q

What must an auditor ask if using the work of third parties?

A

Are they competent?

Are they objective?

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271
Q

What must an auditor understand with respect to internal auditors?

A

Auditor needs to understand the role of Internal Auditors within the organization because their work affects the audit plan

Responsibility for judgments about materiality or appropriateness of entries or estimates cannot be shared with third parties like Internal Auditors

Internal Auditors should be asked to do some of the legwork like preparing schedules or running reports

They should not be asked to make any decisions or judgments

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272
Q

What is required in an examination of Internal Control under Sarbanes-Oxley?

A

CEO/CFO must disclose deficiencies

Management must provide assessment of Internal Controls

Management must certify Financial Statements

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273
Q

What is the relationship between Internal Control and Substantive Testing?

A

Has inverse relationship

Stronger Internal Control results in LESS substantive testing

Weaker Internal Control leads to MORE substantive testing

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274
Q

What are the three objectives of Internal Control?

A

Reliability of Financial Reporting

Operational Efficiency/Effectiveness

Compliance with Law and Regulations

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275
Q

What are the five components of Internal Control?

A

Control Activities

Risk Assessment

Information and Communications

Monitoring

Control Environment

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276
Q

What are the components of the Control Environment?

A

Integrity/Ethics of Management
Competence of Management
Organizational Structure
Human Resources Policies
Assignment of Authority/Responsibility
Management’s Style (riskier with a dominant/aggressive individual)
Board/Audit Committee involvement

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277
Q

What happens when Control Risk is below the maximum level?

A

Auditor tests Internal Controls.

Auditor evaluates Control Risk based on tests

Auditor adjusts substantive tests accordingly

Weaker Internal Control - More substantive tests

Stronger Internal Control - Less substantive tests

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278
Q

What should an auditor understand with respect to Information and Communication on an audit?

A

Understand Client’s

Major transaction classes
Transaction initiation
Support records/documents
Transaction processing
Financial Statement internal reporting process
Financial Statement external communication process

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279
Q

How must an auditor document understanding of Internal Control?

A

Auditor must document understanding of Internal Control via Memos - Flowcharts - Questionnaires

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280
Q

What is the purpose of testing Internal Controls?

A

Auditor needs reasonable assurance that controls are functioning as designed and effective

Internal Control Testing should be strong as (IRON) so that nothing gets past them

Inquiry - Interview company personnel
Re-performance - Can it be replicated?
Observation - Watch the control be applied
INspection - Dig into the details/documents

If results are as expected - substantive procedures do not need to be adjusted

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281
Q

Who created the International Auditing Standards?

A

The International Auditing and Assurance Standards Board (IAASB)

Member of the International Federation of Accountants (IFAC)

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282
Q

For whom were IAASB International Auditing Standards created?

A

IAASB standards are for countries that don’t have their own standards and help set the tone for the rest of the members who do have their own standards (AICPA)

IAASB doesn’t override member standards

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283
Q

What financial approach is used under IAASB audit standards?

A

IAASB standards are based on a risk assessment approach

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284
Q

How do IAASB audit standards compare to US audit standards?

A

IAASB - No Internal Control audits

IAASB - No Referencing another Audit Firm

IAASB - Less detailed documentation

IAASB - Required: obtain written fraud assessment

IAASB - Required: location of auditor’s home office

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285
Q

What are International Ethical Standards?

A

Standards set by International Ethics Standards Board for Accountants (IESBA)

Code of Ethics for Professional Accountants - Similar to AICPA Code of Professional Conduct

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286
Q

Which groups are covered under the three sections of the International Ethical Standards?

A

A) Covers all accountants

B) Covers Public accountants

C) Covers accountants in a business environment

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287
Q

What are the requirements for all accountants under the International Ethical Standards?

A

Accountants should have Integrity
Accountants should be Objective
Accountants should have Competence
Accountants should exercise Due Care
Accountants should maintain Confidentiality
Accountants should act Professionally

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288
Q

What questions should public accountants pose to themselves under the International Ethical Standards?

A

What are the threats/safeguards?
Does this new client threaten our ethics?
What are the conflicts of interest?
What are the threats/safeguards for offering a second opinion?
What are the threats/safeguards for receiving commissions or contingent fees?
Is our marketing truthful?
What are the threats/safeguards for receiving client gifts?
What are the threats/safeguards to objectivity?

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289
Q

What is the purpose of a Consulting Engagement?

A

This engagement helps the client be more efficient with personnel and resources in order to accomplish their goals.

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290
Q

What is required by the Statements on Standards for Consulting Services (SSCS)?

A

Competence; Due Professional Care; Planning; Supervision; Obtain Sufficient Data; Serve Client Interest; Agreement: Written or Oral; Communicate w/ Client; Objectivity

NOT REQUIRED: Independence

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291
Q

What is the difference between Express versus Implied duties of an accountant under contract?

A

Express: Contract specifies what accountant will do

Implied: Accountant performs without negligence

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292
Q

Accountant’s liability for negligence - What are the requirements?

A

DUTY - DAMAGES - RESULT

Duty - Accountant must have had duty to perform with due care exercised by an average accountant.

Damages - The client experienced actual damages.

Result/Causation - The damages were as a result of the negligence.

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293
Q

What is an Accountant’s Liability for Detecting Fraud
(Under Normal Circumstances)?

A

It is not the accountant’s job to find fraud and they are not normally liable for not detecting it

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294
Q

When can a client be sued for failing to detect fraud?

A

When a normal audit following GAAS would have detected the fraud.

When an accountant agrees to take on more responsibility than what is required under a normal audit.

When accountant words the audit report to indicate this greater responsibility.

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295
Q

When has an accountant committed fraud?

A

Misrepresentation - Accountant misrepresents MATERIAL fact(s)

Scienter - Accountant commits scienter

Damages - Client has actual damages.

Reasonable Reliance - Client reasonably relied on the misinformation.

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296
Q

What is Scienter?

A

To report something knowing it is false.

Characterized by reckless disregard for truth

Intentionally conceal facts

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297
Q

What is the Accountant’s Liability to Third Parties - Privity Defense?

A

Lack of privity defends against contract breach and negligence.

NOT a defense against fraud.

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298
Q

The definition of Ultramares Decision:

A

Accountants are not liable to third parties unless the third party was an
intended beneficiary of the engagement AND the accountant knew they
would be relying on the financial statements.

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299
Q

What is Common Law Fraud?

A

Regular fraud

Misrepresentation of Material Fact
Scienter
Damages
Reasonable Reliance

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300
Q

What is Constructive Fraud?

A

Gross Negligence - reckless disregard for truth

CPAs usually not liable for simple negligence; but Gross Negligence (aka Constructive Fraud) opens the CPA up to be liable to third parties.

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301
Q

What are the required actions with Discovery of Illegal Activity?

A

Accountant must report discovered illegal activity to Audit Committee or Board of Directors

If material in public company; BOD has 1 DAY to notify SEC.

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302
Q

What is the Accountant-Client Privilege?

A

NO Federal Accountant-Client privilege for non-disclosure of private
conversations to a court unless a particular state recognizes such a privilege.

If your client tells you Yeah; I cheated on my taxes; a court could force an accountant to testify about that conversation.

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303
Q

Accountant’s Workpapers - Confidentiality Requirements

A
  1. Can be subpoenaed
  2. Can be looked at by another CPA doing peer review
  3. Property of the accountant who created them

Note: Source documents supplied by client must be returned to client if they request them back; even if there is a billing dispute.

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304
Q

True or False: Accountants are responsible for knowing the personal finances of tax preparation clients.

A

Accountants have no way of auditing individual’s personal finances and are not required to do so when preparing a return

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305
Q

When a past error is found in a client’s tax return; what should an accountant do?

A

If a past error is found; accountant should inform client of this error.

Contacting the IRS is NOT required.

If client won’t fix it; then the accountant should reconsider whether they want to do business with the client

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306
Q

Name the key responsibilities of an accountant when preparing a tax return.

A

Accountant must prepare the return in good faith and ask for more information if something is missing

When recommending a tax position; the accountant should realistically believe that it would stand up under the scrutiny of a court

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307
Q

What is Capital Budgeting? How is it used?

A

Managerial Accounting technique used to evaluate different investment options

Helps management make decisions

Uses both accounting and non-accounting information

Internal focus

GAAP is not mandatory

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308
Q

What values are used in Capital Budgeting?

A

Capital Budgeting ONLY uses Present Value tables.

Capital Budgeting NEVER uses Fair Value.

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309
Q

When is the Present Value of $1 table used?

A

For ONE payment- ONE time.

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310
Q

When is the Present Value of an Annuity Due used?

A

Multiple payments made over time- where the payments are made at the START of the period.

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311
Q

When is the Present Value of an Ordinary Annuity of $1 (PVOA) used?

A

Multiple payments over time- where payments are made at the END of the period.

Think A for Arrears.

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312
Q

What is the calculation for the Present Value of $1?

A

1 / (( 1+i )^n)

i : interest rate
n : number of periods

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313
Q

What is Net Present Value (NPV)?

A

A preferred method of evaluating profitability.

One of two methods that use the Time Value of Money
: PV of Future Cash Flows - Investment

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314
Q

How is NPV used to calculate future benefit?

A

NPV : PV Future Cash Flows - Investment

If NPV is Negative- Cost is greater than benefits (bad investment)

If NPV is Positive- Cost is less than benefit (good investment)

If NPV : 0- Cost : Benefit (Management is indifferent)

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315
Q

What is the rate of return on an investment called?

A

The Discount Rate.

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316
Q

What does the Discount Rate represent?

A

The rate of return on an investment used.

It represents the minimum rate of return required.

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317
Q

What are the strengths of the Net Present Value system?

A

Uses the Time Value of Money

Uses all cash flows- not just the cash flows to arrive at Payback

Takes risks into consideration

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318
Q

What are the weaknesses of the Net Present Value system?

A

Not as simple as the Accounting Rate of Return.

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319
Q

How do Salvage Value and Depreciation affect Net Present Value?

A

NPV includes Salvage Value because it is a future cash inflow.

NPV does NOT include depreciation because it is non-cash.

Exception - If a CPA Exam question says to include tax considerations- then you have to include depreciation because of income tax savings generated by depreciation.

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320
Q

If multiple potential rates of return are available- which is used to calculate Net Present Value?

A

The minimum rate of return is used.

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321
Q

What is the Internal Rate of Return (IRR)?

A

It calculates a project’s actual rate of return through the project’s expected cash flows.

IRR is the rate of return required for PV of future cash flows to EQUAL the investment.

Investment / After Tax Annual Cash Inflow : PV Factor

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322
Q

Which rate of return is used to re-invest cash flows for Internal Rate of Return?

A

Cash flows are re-invested at the rate of return earned by the original investment.

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323
Q

How does the rate used for Internal Rate of Return (IRR) compare to that used for Net Present Value (NPV)?

A

Rate of return for IRR is the rate earned by the investment.

Rate of return for NPV is the minimum rate.

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324
Q

What are the strengths and weaknesses of the Internal Rate of Return system?

A

Strengths: Uses Time Value of Money- Cash Flow emphasis

Weakness: Uneven cash flows lead to varied IRR

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325
Q

When is NPV on an Investment positive?

A

When the benefits are greater than the costs.

IRR is greater than the Discount Rate

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326
Q

When is NPV on an Investment Negative?

A

When Costs are greater than Benefits

IRR is less than the Discount Rate

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327
Q

When is NPV Zero?

A

When benefits equal the Costs

IRR : Discount Rate

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328
Q

What is the Payback Method? How is it calculated?

A

It measures an investment in terms of how long it takes to recoup the initial investment via Annual Cash Inflow

Investment / Annual Cash Inflow : Payback Method

Compare to a targeted timeframe; if payback is shorter than target- it’s a good investment. If payback is longer than target- it’s a bad investment.

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329
Q

What are the strengths of the Payback Method?

A

Takes risk into consideration

2 year payback is less risky than a 5 year payback

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330
Q

What are the weaknesses of the payback method?

A

Ignores the Time Value of Money

Exception: Discount payback method

Ignores cash flow after the initial investment is paid back

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331
Q

What is the Accounting Rate of Return?

A

An approximate rate of return on assets

ARR : Net Income / Average Investment

Compare to a targeted return rate; if ARR greater than target- good investment. If ARR less than target- bad investment.

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332
Q

What are the strengths of the Accounting Rate of Return (ARR)?

A

Simple to use

People understand easily

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333
Q

What are the weaknesses of the Accounting Rate of Return (ARR)?

A

Can be skewed based on Depreciation method that is used.

Ignores the Time Value of Money.

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334
Q

What is an Expected Return?

A

An approximate rate of return on assets.

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335
Q

What is the primary duty of the board of directors?

A

To monitor management behavior.

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336
Q

What is the responsibility of the Nominating or Corporate Governance Committee of the board of directors?

A

Oversees the board

Responsible for hiring new CEO

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337
Q

What is the responsibility of the audit committee of the board of directors?

A

The audit committee appoints and oversees the external auditor.

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338
Q

What is the duty of the compensation committee of the board of directors?

A

The compensation committee handles the CEO’s compensation package.

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339
Q

What does the NYSE and NASDAQ require of the board of directors?

A

They require the board to be independent.

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340
Q

What is the main goal in an executive compensation package?

A

The package should ensure that the goals of management should match those of the shareholders.

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341
Q

How can an executive compensation package ensure that goals of management align with those of shareholders?

A

Executive compensation should create an incentive for management to govern in a shareholder-friendly way that doesn’t sacrifice the long-term success of the enterprise for short-term gain.

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342
Q

Which influences help mold the direction that management takes?

A

They range from internal (Board of Directors- Audit Committee- Internal Control) to external (Creditors- SEC- IRS)

These influences should not be tainted by undue influence from management or have financial ties to management such as compensation-related duties

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343
Q

What is shirking?

A

When management doesn’t act in the best interest of shareholders.

It can be alleviated by tying compensation to stock performance or company profit.

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344
Q

What requirements are imposed on a public company under Sarbanes-Oxley?

A

Management must submit a report on the effectiveness of Internal Control in the 10K.

Management must disclose significant Internal Control deficiencies.

CEO/CFO must certify that the financial statements comply with securities laws and fairly present the financial condition of the company.

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345
Q

What characteristics are promoted by the COSO framework on Internal Control?

A

Reliable financial reporting

Effective and efficient operations

Compliance

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346
Q

What are the elements of the control environment?

A
Integrity & Ethics
Competence
The Board of Directors & Audit Committee
Management's Operating Style
Organizational Structure
Authority & Roles of Responsibilities
HR Policies
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347
Q

What are control activities?

A

A component of Internal Control that includes actions being taken to promote the control environment.

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348
Q

What are the basic elements of Internal Control?

A
Control Environment
Risk Assessment
Control Activities
Information and Communication
Monitoring
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349
Q

What is the significance of the Information and Communication aspect of Internal Control?

A

Management must have access to relevant and timely information to make good decisions.

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350
Q

How does Monitoring affect Internal Control?

A

Internal Control activities must be constantly monitored and evaluated for effectiveness.

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351
Q

What activities does the COSO framework for enterprise risk management include?

A
Identifies Risk Factors
Promotes Risk Response Decisions
Compares Management Risk vs. Shareholder Goals
Aids in evaluating opportunities
Promotes Quicker Capital movement

Does NOT eliminate all risk

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352
Q

What are possible responses to risk under the COSO framework for enterprise risk management?

A

Avoid or Reduce

Share or Accept

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353
Q

What is Cost Accounting?

A

Cost Accounting is a component of GAAP that records Ending Inventory on the Balance Sheet for
o Direct Materials
o Direct Labor
o Work in Process
o Finished Goods

Cost Accounting also records for the Income Statement

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354
Q

What is the difference between Cost Accounting and Managerial Accounting?

A

Cost Accounting - External Focus- GAAP

Managerial Accounting - Internal Focus- Not GAAP

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355
Q

What are Product Costs (aka Inventory Costs)?

A

Prime Costs

Conversion Costs

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356
Q

What are included in Prime Costs?

A

Direct Material USED - Have become part of the product or had a direct impact on the product

Direct Labor Used - Employees who worked on product and had direct impact

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357
Q

What is Factory Overhead?

A

All factory costs except for DM and DL used in production- including Spoilage (except for abnormal spoilage- which is a period cost and not included in OH).

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358
Q

What is included in Fixed Factory Overhead?

A

FFO : Estimated Costs / Normal Capacity

Uses Normal Activity

Examples of Fixed Factory OH: Depreciation (SL)- Utilities- Taxes

Under/Over-applied Fixed OH always goes to COGS

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359
Q

What is included in Variable Overhead?

A

VO : Estimated Activity / Actual Activity

Uses Actual Activity

Examples of Variable Factory OH: Deprecation (Units of Prod)- Indirect materials (supplies & insignificant items)- Indirect labor (factory foreman- janitors- machine maintenance)

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360
Q

Where is Under/Over-applied Variable OH recorded?

A

If Immaterial - Goes to COGS

If Material - Goes to WIP- Finished Goods- or COGS- based on their Ending Balance

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361
Q

Where is Under/Over-applied Fixed OH recorded?

A

It always goes to COGS

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362
Q

What is indicated by a Debit balance in Actual Factory Overhead? How is it corrected?

A

Under-applied overhead.

If it’s Fixed OH- under-applied goes to COGS.

If it’s Variable OH- under-applied goes to COGS if immaterial- but is allocated to WIP- FG or COGS based on ending balances.

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363
Q

What is indicated by a Credit balance in Applied Factory Overhead? How is it corrected?

A

A credit balance indicates over-applied overhead.

If Fixed overhead- it is corrected from COGS.

If Variable overhead- it is corrected through COGS if immaterial- but if material overage is allocated to WIP- FG or COGS based on ending balances.

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364
Q

Which variables are used to calculate Direct Material balances?

A

Beginning Balance DR Net purchases (plus freight-in)CR Direct Materials Used
: Ending balance (goes to BS)

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365
Q

What variables are used to calculated Work in Process (WIP)?

A

Beginning Balance (End Bal of Previous WIP)DR Direct Materials UsedDR Direct Labor Used (Conversion Cost)CR COGMDR Factory Overhead Applied (Conversion Cost)
: Ending Balance (Goes to BS)

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366
Q

What variables are included in Finished Goods calculations?

A

Beginning BalanceDR COGM
: COGAS (Cost of Goods Avail for Sale)
CR COGS
: Ending Balance (Goes to BS)

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367
Q

How does Freight In affect Cost Accounting calculations?

A

Inventory (Product) Cost

Part of DM Purchases

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368
Q

How does Freight Out affect Cost Accounting?

A

Selling (Period) Cost

Not part of inventory

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369
Q

When is Job-Order Costing used?

A

Used when costs are easily connected to a specific product or product line

Can also be applied to services

Calculation is the same as normal cost accounting - just use your T Accounts
- DM to WIP to FG to COGS
- You’re likely going to be solving for the last job in the queue

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370
Q

What is the Direct Method for allocating service department costs?

A

No services allocated between service departments- even if they serve each other. Only allocate to product(s)

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371
Q

What is the Step Method for allocating service department costs?

A

Services can be allocated to both other service departments and the product(s)

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372
Q

Under process costing- how are the units shipped calculated?

A

Beginning Inventory+ Units Started- Ending Inventory
: No. Units Shipped

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373
Q

Which two inventory methods are used under Process Costing?

A

FIFO

Weighted Average

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374
Q

What is another name for Process Costing?

A

Equivalent Units of Production

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375
Q

How will Equivalent Finished Units under FIFO compare to EFU under the Weighted Average method?

A

EFU FIFO will always be LESS than EFU Weighted Avg (unless Beginning Inventory is Zero)

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376
Q

How are Direct Materials calculated under the Weighted Average Method?

A

Beginning Inventory + Current Costs / EFU WA

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377
Q

How are Conversion Costs calculated under Weighted Average Method?

A

Beginning Inventory + Current Costs / EFU WA

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378
Q

How are Equivalent Finished Units calculated for Direct Materials?

A

Units Shipped + EI x % Complete DM
: EFU (Weighted Average Method)

  • Beginning Inventory x % Complete
    : EFU (FIFO)
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379
Q

How are Equivalent Finished Units calculated for Conversion Costs?

A

Units Shipped+ EI x % Complete CC
: EFU (Weighted Average)

  • Beginning Inventory x % Complete
    : EFU (FIFO)
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380
Q

How are Direct Materials calculated under the FIFO method?

A

Current Costs / EFU FIFO

Note: FIFO method uses Current Period costs only and ignores Beginning Inventory

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381
Q

How are Conversion Costs calculated under the FIFO method?

A

Current Costs / EFU FIFO

FIFO method uses Current Period costs only and ignores Beginning Inventory

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382
Q

How is WIP calculated?

A

Beginning balance (DM- DL- OH)+ Current Costs (DM- DL- OH)- COGM (Goes to Finished Goods)+ DM EFU x Cost per DM EFU+ CC EFU x Cost per CC EFU
: Ending WIP

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383
Q

How do period costs and product costs relate to net sales- gross margin and operating income?

A

Net Sales - Product Costs
: Gross Margin
- Period Costs
: Operating Income

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384
Q

What is the focus of Activity Based Costing (ABC)?

A

Focuses on eliminating non-value-added activities for poor quality and inventory and things customers don’t want or don’t care about

Inventory is expensive to store and storing something is not a value-added expenditure

Uses Cost Pools - Different departments can have different OH rates

Uses Several OH rates based on Activity - Cost Pool / Cost Driver

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385
Q

How do Cost Pools and Allocations compare under ABC versus traditional costing system?

A

Cost Pools and Allocations increase compared to a traditional costing system

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386
Q

What is Backflush Costing?

A

Connected to Just-in-Time Production- which is part of Activity-Based Costing and Total Quality Management (TQM)

  • Works backward to flush out COGS
  • Mostly GAAP
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387
Q

What are the characteristics of By-Products?

A

Usually immaterial and common costs aren’t allocated to them
Low Market Value
Can be valued at NRV
Can be treated as a contra expense and netted against COGS - Can be treated as a contra sale and netted against Sales
Recognition rules are very flexible with valuing and classifying by-products

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388
Q

What are Cost Functions?

A

Measure how costs change relative to activity levels

High-Low Method

Change in Cost (High-Low pts) / Change in Activity (High-Low pts)

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389
Q

How does a price increase affect supply?

A

When the prices of an item increases supply increases- because more sellers are willing to sell.

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390
Q

What is a supply curve shift?

A

When supply changes due to something other than price.

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391
Q

What are the characteristics of a positive supply curve shift (shift right)?

A

Supply increases at each price point

Higher Equilibrium GDP

Number of sellers increases - market can get flooded

Examples: Government subsidies or technology improvements that decrease costs for suppliers

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392
Q

What are the characteristics of a negative supply curve shift (shift left)?

A

Supply decreases at each price point

Lower Equilibrium GDP

Cost of producing item increases

Examples: Shortage of gold- so less gold watches are made; wars or crises in rice-producing countries means there is less rice on the market

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393
Q

How does price affect the demand for an item?

A

When the prices of an item increases- demand for it decreases.

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394
Q

What is a Demand Curve Shift?

A

When demand changes due to something other than price.

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395
Q

What is a Positive Demand Curve Shift (Shift Right)?

A

When demand increases at each price point

Price of substitutes go up - price of beef rises- so people buy more chicken

Future price increase is expected - War in Middle East- people go out and buy gas

Market expands - i.e. people get new free health care plan- demand at clinic rises

Expansion - more spending increases equilibrium GDP

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396
Q

What is a Negative Demand Curve Shift (Shift Left)?

A

Demand decreases at each price point.

Price of complement goes up - price of beef goes up- less demand for ketchup

Boycott - Company commits social blunder- consumers boycott

Consumer income rises - Demand for inferior goods drops as people have more money to spend

Consumer tastes change

Contraction - less spending decreases equilibrium GDP

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397
Q

What is the Marginal Propensity to Consume?

A

How much you spend when your income increases

Calculate: Change in Spending / Change in Income

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398
Q

What is the Marginal Propensity to Save?

A

How much you save when income increases

Calculate: Change in Savings / Change in Income

Also equals 1 - Marginal Propensity to Consume

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399
Q

How is the multiplier effect calculated?

A

(1 / 1-MPC) x Change in Spending

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400
Q

How does increased spending by consumers and the government affect the demand curve?

A

As spending by consumers or the government increases- the demand curve increases (shifts right).

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401
Q

How does spending change due to the multiplier effect?

A

The increase in demand ends up being larger than the amount of additional income spent in the economy due to the multiplier effect.

One consumer spends money- which:
*Increases the income of a business
*Increases the income of a vendor
*Increases income of employees
*Increases tax revenue

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402
Q

How is Price Elasticity of Demand calculated?

A

% Change in Quantity Demand / % Change in Price

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403
Q

Under elastic demand- how does price affect revenues?

A

Price increases- Revenue decreases

Price decreases- Revenue increases

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404
Q

What conditions would indicate Elastic Demand?

A

Many substitutes (luxury items)
Considered elastic if elasticity is greater than 1
10% drop in demand / 8% increase in price : 1.25 (Elastic)

Price increases- Revenue decreases
Price decreases- Revenue increases

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405
Q

How does revenue react to price under Inelastic Demand?

A

Price increases- Revenue increases

Price decreases- Revenue decreases

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406
Q

What conditions would indicate Inelastic Demand?

A

Few substitutes (groceries- gasoline)
Considered inelastic if coefficient of elasticity is less than 1
5% drop in demand / 10% increase in price : .5 (inelastic)

Price increases- Revenue increases
Price decreases- Revenue decreases

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407
Q

What is Unitary Demand?

A

Total revenue will remain the same if price is increased

Considered unitary if coefficient of elasticity : 1

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408
Q

How is Income Elasticity of Demand calculated?

A

% Change Quantity Demanded / % Change in Income

Normal goods greater than 1 (demand increases more than income)

Inferior goods less than 1 (demand increases less than income)

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409
Q

What conditions occur under periods of inflation?

A

Interest rates increase
Reduced demand for loans
Reduced demand for houses- autos- etc.
Value of bonds and fixed income securities decrease
Inferior good demand to increase
Foreign goods more affordable than domestic
Demand for domestic goods decrease

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410
Q

What happens under Demand-Pull inflation?

A

Overall spending increases

Demand increases (shifts right)

Market equilibrium price increases

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411
Q

What happens under Cost-Push inflation?

A

Overall production costs increase
Supply decreases (shifts left)
Market equilibrium price increases

Note: Demand-Pull and Cost-Push Inflation BOTH result in market equilibrium price to increase

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412
Q

What is the Equilibrium Price?

A

The price where Quantity Supplied : Quantity Demanded

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413
Q

What is Optimal Production?

A

When Marginal Revenue : Marginal Cost

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414
Q

What is the result of a Price Floor?

A

Causes a surplus if above equilibrium price.

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415
Q

What is GDP (Gross Domestic Product)?

A

The annual value of all goods and services produced domestically at current prices by consumers- businesses- the government- and foreign companies with domestic interests

Included: Foreign company has US Factory

Not included: US company has foreign factory

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416
Q

What is included under the income approach for calculating GDP?

A

Sole Proprietor and Corp Income
Passive Income
Taxes
Employee Salaries
Foreign Income Adjustments
Depreciation

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417
Q

What is included under the Expenditure Approach for calculating GDP?

A

Individual Consumption

Private Investment

Government Purchases

Net Exports

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418
Q

What is Nominal GDP?

A

Measures goods/services in current prices.

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419
Q

For what is a GDP Deflator used?

A

Used to convert GDP to Real GDP

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420
Q

What is Real GDP?

A

Nominal GDP / GDP Deflator x 100

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421
Q

What is Gross National Product (GNP)?

A

Like GDP; Swaps foreign production. US Firms overseas are included- Foreign firms domestically are not included

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422
Q

What is the Consumer Price Index (CPI)? How is it applied?

A

Price of goods relative to an earlier period of time- which is the benchmark. Year 1 : 1.0

((CPI Current - CPI Last) / CPI Last) * 100

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423
Q

How is disposable income calculated?

A

Personal Income - Personal Taxes

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424
Q

How is Return to Scale calculated?

A

% Increase in output / % Increase in input

Greater than 1 : Increasing returns to scale

Less than 1 : Decreasing returns to scale

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425
Q

When is the economy in Recession?

A

When GDP growth is negative for two consecutive quarters.

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426
Q

What is a Depression?

A

A prolonged- severe recession with high unemployment rates

No requisite period of time for the economy to officially be in a depression

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427
Q

What are the stages of the Economic Cycle?

A

Peak (highest)
Recession (decreasing)
Trough (lowest)
Recover (increasing)
Expansion (higher again)

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428
Q

What are leading indicators?

A

Conditions that occur before a recession or before a recovery

Example: Stock Market or New Housing Starts

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429
Q

What are lagging indicators?

A

Conditions that occur after a recession or after a recovery

Examples: Prime Interest Rates- Unemployment

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430
Q

What are coincident indicators?

A

Conditions that occur during a recession or during a recovery

Example: Manufacturing output

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431
Q

Which people are included in the calculation of unemployment?

A

Only people looking for jobs

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432
Q

What is Cyclical Unemployment?

A

GDP doesn’t grow fast enough to employ all people who are looking for work

Example: People are unemployed in 2010 because there aren’t enough jobs available due to the economy

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433
Q

What is Frictional Unemployment?

A

People are changing jobs or entering the work force. This is a normal aspect of full employment.

Example: A recent college graduate is looking for a job

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434
Q

What is Structural Unemployment?

A

A worker’s job skills do not match those necessary to get a job so they need education or training

Example: A construction worker wants to work in an office- so they quit their job and get computer training

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435
Q

How does inflation relate to unemployment?

A

High Unemployment : Low Inflation (Vice Versa)

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436
Q

What is the Discount Rate?

A

The rate a bank pays to borrow from the Fed.

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437
Q

What is the Prime Rate?

A

The rate a bank charges their best customers on short-term borrowings.

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438
Q

What is the Real Interest Rate?

A

Inflation-adjusted interest rate

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439
Q

What is the Nominal Rate?

A

Rate that uses current prices

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440
Q

What is the Risk-Free Rate?

A

Rate for a loan with 100% certainty of payback.

Usually results in a lower rate.

US Treasuries are an example.

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441
Q

What is included in the M1 money supply?

A

Currency- Coins- and Deposits

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442
Q

What is included in the M2 money supply?

A

Highly liquid assets other than currency- coins or deposits

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443
Q

What is Deficit Spending?

A

Increased spending levels without increased tax revenue.

Lower taxes without decrease in spending

Gamble that the multiplier effect will take over and boost economy

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444
Q

How can the Fed control the money supply?

A

By buying and selling the government’s securities.

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445
Q

How does the Fed control economy-wide interest rates?

A

By adjusting the discount rate charged to banks

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446
Q

What is a Tariff?

A

A tax on imported goods

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447
Q

What is a quota?

A

A limit on the number of goods that can be imported

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448
Q

How do international trade restrictions affect domestic producers?

A

They are good for domestic producers.

Demand curve shifts right

Fewer substitutes

They can charge higher prices

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449
Q

How to international trade restrictions affect foreign producers?

A

They are bad for foreign producers

Demand curve shifts left

Fewer buyers

They must charge lower prices

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450
Q

How do international trade restrictions affect foreign consumers?

A

They are good for foreign consumers

Supply curve shifts right

Goods purchased at lower prices in the foreign markets

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451
Q

How do international trade restrictions affect domestic consumers?

A

They are bad for domestic consumers

Supply curve shifts left

Fewer goods bought due to higher prices

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452
Q

What is Accounting Cost?

A

Explicit (Actual) cost of operating a business

Implicit costs are opportunity costs

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453
Q

What is Accounting Profit?

A

Revenue - Accounting Cost

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454
Q

What is Economic Cost?

A

Explicit + Implicit Cost

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455
Q

What is Economic Profit?

A

Revenue - Economic Cost

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456
Q

What is the primary focus of working capital management?

A

Managing inventory & receivables (current assets & liabilities)

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457
Q

How is Net Working Capital calculated?

A

NWC : Current Assets - Current Liabilities

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458
Q

What are the characteristics of effective Working Capital Management?

A

Shorten the cash conversion cycle

Don’t negatively impact operations

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459
Q

What is the Inventory Conversion Period?

A

Average time needed to convert materials into finished goods and sell them

Average Inventory : (BI + E) / 2

Inventory Conversion Period : Average Inventory / Sales Per Day

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460
Q

What is the Receivables Collection Period?

A

Average time needed to collect A/R

RCP : Average Receivables / Credit Sales Per Day

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461
Q

What is the Payables Deferral Period?

A

Average time between materials and labor purchase and their A/P payment

Average Payables : (BP + EP) / 2

Payables Deferral Period : Average Payables / (COGS/365)

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462
Q

What is the Cash Conversion Cycle?

A

Amount of time it takes to receive a cash inflow (Customers) after making a cash outflow (Vendors)

Inventory Conversion Period
+ Receivables Collection Period
- Payables Deferral Period
: Cash Conversion Cycle

(Inventory Really (-Pays) Cash)

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463
Q

What traits should Cash and Short-Term Investments have?

A

Liquid

Safe

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464
Q

For what are Letters of Credit used?

A

Used for importing goods.

Issued by importer’s bank.

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465
Q

What is the advantage of using Trade Credit?

A

No interest cost if paid timely.

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466
Q

What is a Lockbox System? What are the advantages?

A

Customer Payments are sent to a bank-managed PO box.

Employees don’t have access to cash.
Deposits are more timely.
Interest income from deposits should pay for the Lockbox fees (if they don’t- lockbox is not beneficial)

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467
Q

What is float?

A

Time it takes to mail a payment and have it clear your bank account

Maximize float on cash payments

Minimize float on cash receipts

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468
Q

What are Zero Balance Accounts?

A

Regional bank sends enough cash to cover daily checks

Advantages:
Checks take longer to clear -more float
Low amounts of cash tied up for compensating (minimum) balances

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469
Q

What is the difference between Treasury Bills- Notes and Bonds?

A

Treasury Bills: Short term (less than one year) Think: $1 Bill

Treasury Notes: Medium term (less than 10 years- more than 1)

Treasury Bonds: Long term (greater than 10 years) Think: government is in long-term bondage to you; they owe you money

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470
Q

What is commercial paper?

A

Similar to T-Bill- but issued by corporations instead of Government

Greater than 9 Months Maturity

Unsecured

Issued by large firms

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471
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of Commercial Paper?

A

Advantages: Financing at less than Prime. No compensating balances required.

Disadvantages: Unpredictability of markets. Credit crisis emerges and large insurance/investment companies aren’t lending.

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472
Q

What is Economic Order Quantity?

A

The order quantity that minimizes inventory costs.

EOQ : Square Root of (2DO/C)

D : Unit Demand (Annual)
O : Order Cost
C : Cost of Inventory

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473
Q

What is Carrying Cost?

A

The cost of keeping inventory.

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474
Q

What is Order Cost?

A

Cost of executing an order and starting product production.

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475
Q

What is inventory reorder point?

A

How low inventory should get before it should be re-ordered.

IOP : Average Daily Demand x Average Lead Time

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476
Q

What is a Just In Time (JIT) system?

A

Orders inventory so that you get it just in time for when it’s needed

JIT is valuable when Order Cost is low and Cost of Carrying Inventory is high

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477
Q

What is Factoring of receivables?

A

Receivables are sold to a financing company where they pay less than the value of the receivables due to a discount related to risk of non-collection

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478
Q

What is a Trade Discount?

A

Buyer saves if paid early

Example: 1/10 Net 30

1% Discount if paid within 10 days

If not- bill is still due in 30 days

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479
Q

What is the cost of forgoing a discount?

A

(Discount % x 365) / ((100% - Discount) x (Pay Period - Discount Period))

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480
Q

What is the Prime Rate?

A

A benchmark used for lending only to the best customers

Most customers will be charged Prime + 3%- for example

If the lending institution and the customer are not in the same country- the LIBOR rate is often used

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481
Q

What is the Nominal (Face- Coupon- Stated) Rate?

A

Interest rate stated on the face of a bond.

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482
Q

How is Current Yield calculated?

A

CY : Interest Payment / Bond Price

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483
Q

What is the Effective (YTM- Market) Rate?

A

PV of Principle + Interest : Bond Price

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484
Q

What is a Zero Coupon Bond?

A

No interest payments made

Bond sold at a discount

Interest reflected when Bond matures

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485
Q

What are the characteristics of a Junk Bond?

A

High interest rate

High default risk

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486
Q

What are debenture bonds?

A

Bonds unsecured by collateral

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487
Q

What are subordinated debentures?

A

Debenture Bonds that will be repaid if any assets are left after liquidation of a company

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488
Q

What are Redeemable Bonds?

A

Provision in Bond contract allows demand of Bond payment under certain circumstances

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489
Q

What is a Callable Bond?

A

Borrower can pay off debt early

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490
Q

What is a Convertible Bond?

A

Lender can demand payment via company stock instead of money

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491
Q

What is a Sinking Fund?

A

Borrower deposits regular sums into an account that will eventually pay off the debt

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492
Q

What is the disadvantage of Common Stock in comparison to bonds?

A

Common Stock is more expensive to issue than debt.

Why? Investors demand a greater ROI than debtors (bondholders)

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493
Q

What is the advantage of Preferred Stock?

A

Hold dividend priority over common stock

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494
Q

What is Weighted Average Cost of Capital?

A

A company uses this to determine the true cost of their capital

Example:
Debt costs 5%; 40% of Cap.
Equity costs 12%; 60% of Cap.
(5% x 40%) + (12% x 60%)
WACC : 9.2%
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495
Q

What is CAPM?

A

A stock’s expected performance is based on its beta (risk) compared to that of the stock market.

More risk : more expected return.

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496
Q

How is Cost of Debt calculated?

A

(Interest Expense - Tax Benefit) / Carrying Value of Debt

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497
Q

What is a Static Budget?

A

Budget targeted for a specific segment of a company.

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498
Q

What is a Maser Budget?

A

Budget targeted for the company as a whole

Includes budgets for Operations and Cash Flows

Includes set of budgeted Financial Statements

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499
Q

How do Fixed Costs affect budgeting?

A

Costs independent of the level activity within the relevant range

Property Tax is the same whether you produce 100-000 units or zero units

However - Fixed Costs per unit vary given the amount of activity

If you produce fewer units- fixed costs per unit will be greater than if you produce more units - i.e. less units to spread the cost over

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500
Q

How do Variable Costs affect budgeting?

A

The more Direct Materials or Direct Labor used- the more Variable Costs per unit

However - Variable Costs per unit don’t change with the level of activity like Fixed Costs per unit

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501
Q

How are Material Variances calculated?

A

SAM:

Standard Material Costs
- Actual Material Costs
= Material Variance

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502
Q

How are Labor Variances calculated?

A

SAL

Standard Labor Costs
- Actual Labor Costs
= Labor Variance

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503
Q

How are Overhead Variances calculated?

A

OAT

Overhead Applied
- Actual Overhead Cost
= Total Overhead Variance

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504
Q

How does Absorption Costing compare to Variable Costing?

A

Absorption Costing - External Use- Cost of Sales- Gross Profit- SG&A

Variable Costing - Internal Use- Variable Costs- Contribution Margin- Fixed Costs

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505
Q

How is Contribution Margin calculated?

A

Sales Price (per unit)
- Variable Cost (per unit)
= Contribution Margin (per unit)

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506
Q

How is Break-even Point (per unit) calculated?

A

Total Fixed Costs / Contribution Margin (per unit)
= Break-even Point Per Unit

Assumption: Total Costs & Total Revenues are LINEAR

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507
Q

What is the focus in a Cost Center?

A

Management is concerned only with costs

508
Q

What is the focus in a Profit Center?

A

Management is concerned with both costs and profits

509
Q

What is the focus in an Investment Center?

A

Management is concerned with costs- profits- and assets

510
Q

What is the Delphi technique?

A

Forecasting technique where Data is collected and analyzed

Requires judgement/consensus

511
Q

What is Regression Analysis?

A

A forecasting technique where Sales is the dependent variable.

Simple Regression - One independent variable

Multiple Regression - Multiple independent variables

512
Q

What are Econometric Models?

A

Forecast sales using Economic Data

513
Q

What are Naive Forecasting Models?

A

Very Simplistic

- Eyeball past trends and make an estimate

514
Q

How does a Moving Average compare to Exponential Smoothing?

A

Both project estimates using average trends from recent periods

Difference: Exponential Smoothing weighs recent data more heavily

515
Q

What are the characteristics of Short-term Cost Analysis?

A

Uses Relevant Costs Only

Ignore Sunk Costs

Opportunity Cost is a Must

516
Q

What four perspectives are included in Balanced Scorecard?

A

Financial / Customer / Internal Business Processes / Learning and Growth

517
Q

Why was Balanced Scorecard created?

A

To measure Performance.

518
Q

What are Strategy Maps?

A

Diagrams of Strategic Cause and Effect Relationships.

519
Q

What is a Strategic Initiative?

A

A plan to achieve goals.

520
Q

What measures are used under Value-Based Management?

A
Return on Investment
Residual Income
Spread
Economic Value Added
Free Cash Flow
521
Q

How is Return on Investment (ROI) calculated?

A

ROI : Return / Investment

Example: You Invest $100 to buy a machine that generates $60 in Operating Income

$60 / $100 : 60% ROI

522
Q

How is Residual Income calculated?

A

Operating Income - (Required Rate of Return x Invested Capital) : Residual Income

523
Q

What is another name for Required Rate of Return (RROR)?

A

RROR is also called ‘Cost of Capital’

524
Q

What is Weighted Average Cost of Capital (WACC)? How is it calculated?

A

Cost of Capital is the weighted average of the interest rates you pay for your Capital.

Includes Debt and the Rate of Return your Equity Shareholders expect

Example: 45% of your Capital is supported by debt and has an interest rate of 9%. 55% of your Capital is supported by equity and shareholders expect a ROR of 12%

Your Cost of Capital is: (.45 x .09) + (.55 x .12) : 10.65%

525
Q

How is Spread calculated?

A

Spread : ROI - Cost of Capital

526
Q

What is the primary point of Economic Value Added? How is it calculated?

A

Investments should exceed costs- with an emphasis on stockholder value.

Economic Value Added : Operating Income After Tax - (Net Assets x WACC)

527
Q

How is Free Cash Flow calculated?

A
Operating Income After Tax
\+ Depreciation & Amortization
- Capital Expenditures
- Change in Net Working Capital
\: Free Cash Flow
528
Q

What is measured by Six Sigma?

A

It measures a product versus its quality goal.

529
Q

What is the Asset Turnover Ratio?

A

Sales / Average Assets

530
Q

What does the Current Ratio tell us? How is it calculated?

A

Can the company pay their short-term liabilities?

Current Ratio : Current Assets / Current Liabilities

531
Q

What does the Debt to Equity Ratio tell us? How is it calculated?

A

How is the company financing its capital?

Debt to Equity Ratio : Total Debt / Total Equity

532
Q

What does the Debt to Total Assets ratio tell us? How is it calculated?

A

What proportions of the company’s assets are encumbered with debt?

Debt to Total Assets : Total Liabilities / Total Assets

533
Q

What does Gross Margin % tell us? How is it calculated?

A

How profitable is the product after COGS?

Gross Margin : Gross Profit / Net Sales

534
Q

What does Operating Profit Margin tell us? How is it calculated?

A

How profitable is the product after all expenses (except interest and taxes)?

Operating Profit Margin : Operating Profit / Net Sales

535
Q

How is Times Interest Earned calculated and what does it mean?

A

Can the company make their interest payments?

Times Interest Earned : Earnings Before Tax & Interest / Interest Expense

536
Q

What does Return on Assets tell us? How is it calculated?

A

What % return are the assets generating?

Return on Assets : Net Income (net of interest & taxes) / Average Total Assets

537
Q

How is Market/Book ratio calculated?

A

Market Value of Common Stock / Book Value of Common Stock

538
Q

What is Inventory Turnover and how is it calculated?

A

How quickly does inventory get sold?

Inventory Turnover : COGS / Average Inventory

539
Q

What is the Quick Ratio and how is it calculated?

A

It measures short-term liquidity- and only includes assets that are quickly available (i.e. not inventory)

Quick Ratio : (Current Assets - Inventory) / Current Liabilities

540
Q

What is Average Collection Period- and how is it calculated?

A

How many days does it take the company to collect payment on A/R?

Average Collection Period : Average AR / Average Sales Per Day

541
Q

What is an Internal Failure?

A

Products have quality defects- but are caught BEFORE they leave the warehouse.

542
Q

What is an External Failure?

A

Product reaches the customer- but they are not satisfied with the quality of the product.

This includes recalls.

543
Q

What is Appraisal Cost?

A

Quality control- testing & inspection costs.

544
Q

Define Market Risk

A

The risk that a sluggish economy will affect the value of a debt instrument

545
Q

Define Sector Risk

A

The risk that an event in the investment’s business sector will harm the investment

For example- the banking sector is sluggish- so even stocks of healthy banks suffer

546
Q

Define Credit/Default Risk

A

The risk that a debtor will be unable to make loan payments or pay back the principal

547
Q

Define Interest Rate Risk

A

The risk that a change in interest rates will adversely affect the value of the note

Example: Bond is for 10% but prevailing market rate is now 12%. If bondholder wants to sell it- they will have to sell it at a discount.

548
Q

What does Standard Deviation measure?

A

It measures the volatility of an investment.

549
Q

What is Systematic Risk?

A

Risk that impacts the entire market and can’t be avoided or reduced through diversification

Example: Wars

550
Q

What is Unsystematic Risk?

A

Relates to a particular industry or company

Example: You own stocks in ethanol plants and an untimely freeze kills all of the corn in the Midwest

551
Q

What does Beta measure?

A

Beta measures how volatile the investment is relative to the rest of the market.

In other words- how quickly (and in what amount) does the value of the stock change when the market sways?

552
Q

What is Variance?

A

It compares volatility of an investment to the market average.

Factors include both Systematic and Unsystematic Risk.

553
Q

What is a Derivative?

A

An asset whose value is DERIVED from the value of another asset.

Derivatives are measured at Fair Value.

554
Q

How is an Option used?

A

Gives the buyer the option to buy or sell a financial derivative at a certain price

Traders use them to speculate where they think the price will be at a certain point and make a profit

Hedgers use them to offset risk

555
Q

What is a Future?

A

A Forward Contract with a future value.

They are sold and traded on the futures market.

556
Q

What is an Interest Rate Swap?

A

Forward Contract to swap payment agreements

They are highly liquid and often valued using the Zero-Coupon method.

Example: Steve pays Sally a fixed payment with a fixed interest rate. Sally pays Steve a variable payment tied to a benchmark such as LIBOR

557
Q

What is Legal Risk?

A

Risk that a law or regulation will void the derivative

558
Q

What is a Fair Value Hedge?

A

Hedge that protects against the value of an asset or liability changing.

Changes in value are reported in earnings.

559
Q

What is a Cash Flow Hedge?

A

A hedge that protects against a set of future cash flows changing.

Changes in value are reported in OCI.

560
Q

What is a Foreign Currency Hedge?

A

A hedge that protects against the value of a foreign currency changing.

For example- a foreign currency hedge might be used to protect against the following: If you have receivables denominated in a foreign currency and that currency dips in value - your receivables are worth less than before.

561
Q

How are changes in accounting principle applied?

A

Retrospective Application:
Prior Periods adjusted
Retained Earnings adjusted
Completed Contract to % Completion
Ex: LIFO to FIFO

562
Q

Would a change from Completed Contract to Percentage of Completion be a change in accounting principle- or a change of estimate?

How would it be applied?

A

A change of principle.

Applied retrospectively.

563
Q

Would a change from LIFO to FIFO be a change in accounting principle or a change of estimate?

How would this change be applied?

A

A change in accounting principle.

Applied retrospectively.

564
Q

How is a change in accounting estimate applied?

A

A change in accounting estimate is applied prospectively (going forward).

No backwards adjustment is made.

565
Q

Would a change from straight line depreciation to double declining balance be a change in accounting principle or a change in estimate?

How would this change be applied?

A

Change in depreciation method would be a change in accounting estimate.

It is applied prospectively.

566
Q

How is a correction of an accounting error made?

A

Cumulative effect of error gets adjusted to the beginning balances of assets and liabilities in the earliest period presented in the comparative statements.

The correction of the error must be included in the footnotes.

567
Q

What are the requirements for a prior period adjustment?

A

Effect is Material

Is identifiable in Prior Period

Couldn’t be estimated in Prior Periods

568
Q

How is a change from a non-GAAP accounting method to a GAAP method recorded?

A

It is treated as a correction of an accounting error.

Cumulative effect of error gets adjusted to the beginning balances of assets and liabilities in the earliest period presented in the comparative statements

Correction of the error must be included in the footnotes

569
Q

How does an inventory error effect the financial statements?

A

Effect on Ending Inventory : Effect on Net Income

If one is overstated- both overstated. If one is understated- both understated.

Misstating inventory corrects itself after TWO periods.

570
Q

How is a change in entity recorded?

A

Applied retrospectively.

All prior periods presented for comparative purposes must reflect the change

Footnote disclosures must be made

Changing to Consolidated Statements

571
Q

What is a serial bond?

A

Any bond that matures in installments

572
Q

What is a term bond?

A

Any bond that matures on a single date

573
Q

What is a debenture bond?

A

A bond not secured by any collateral

574
Q

What is a sinking fund bond?

A

Cash is held in a sinking fund for repayment of bond at maturity

5 years of requirements and maturity details should be disclosed

575
Q

What is the formula to calculate proceeds of a bond sale?

A

Present Value of the principal payment at maturity+ Present Value of Interest Payments made
: Market Value of Bond Proceeds

576
Q

How is the present value of a bond calculated?

A

Step 1: PV of $1 @ Yield Rate (not Stated Rate)
x Bond Face Value

PLUS

Step 2: PV of an Ordinary Annuity of $1 for Term @Yield
x (Stated Rate x Face)

577
Q

Which costs are included in bond issuance costs? How are they recorded?

A

Include Engraving; Printing; Legal; Underwriter; Registration

Debited to a deferred charge account and amortized over life of Bond using S/L

Bond Proceeds - Bond Issuance Costs : Net Bond Proceeds

Time of amortization begins when issued

578
Q

How are bonds reported when classified as trading securities?

A

Reported at FMV with unreleased gains and losses being included in earnings

579
Q

How are bonds amortized under the interest method?

A

Both discount and premium amortization amounts increase each year

580
Q

Describe the book value method when converting from bonds to stocks.

A

No gain or loss recognized

APIC is the plug for the difference between the Bond’s Book Value and the Par Value of the Common Stock

581
Q

What is the stated rate for a bond?

A

Rate on the face of the bond

582
Q

What is the market rate on a bond?

A

Rate that bonds are currently selling for

583
Q

What happens when the bond’s market rate is greater than the stated rate?

A

Bond will need to sell at a discount in order for buyers to be interested. The difference in market rate vs. the stated is made up by the buyer purchasing the bond for less than par value

584
Q

What happens when a bond’s market rate is less than the stated rate?

A

Bond will need to sell at a premium in order for buyers to be interested. The difference in market rate vs. the stated is made up by the buyer purchasing the bond for more than par value

585
Q

How does accrued interest on a bond affect the purchase price?

A

The total cash that seller receives will be MORE than they normally would (set aside any considerations for premium or discount; they are irrelevant for this point).

Basically; the purchaser of the bonds must give the bond issuer the amount of accrued interest up front.

586
Q

When does interest expense start accruing on a bond?

A

When the bonds are issued

587
Q

How is an interest payment on a bond calculated?

A

Cash for payment : Stated rate x Face amount

588
Q

What amount of interest is expensed on a bond interest payment?

A

Interest expense : effective yield x carrying value

Any difference between expense and cash payment is applied as amortization against premium/discount

589
Q

What are convertible bonds? Which recording method is used?

A

Bonds that can be converted to stock

Book value method used if no gain or loss

Market value method used if there is a gain or loss

590
Q

How is the retirement of bonds recorded?

A

Gain or Loss is Ordinary

Extraordinary if both unusual and infrequent

591
Q

When is a gain recognized in a debt restructuring?

A

If terms are modified; and future payments are now less than the carrying amount of the debt; then a Gain is recognized

592
Q

What is the gain recognized under a settlement of debt?

A

Gain recognized:

Difference between cash paid and carrying amount of debt

Difference between non-cash asset given and re-valued at FMV and debt carrying amount

593
Q

For a creditor; how is a loan impairment recorded?

A

If future cash flows discounted at loan’s Effective Interest Rate are less than Carrying Value:

Effective Rate calculated using original rate; not modified rate

594
Q

When is the fair value method used for recording interest in a separate company?

A

20% Ownership or Less

Accounted for as a purchase

If amount paid is less than fair value; results in a gain in current period

595
Q

When is the equity method used when purchasing another company’s stock? How is it recorded?

A

Ownership 21% to 50%

Gives significant influence

Purchase Price - Par Value : Goodwill

Dividends received from the investee reduce the investment account and are not income

596
Q

When are companies required to file consolidated financials? How is it recorded?

A

Ownership of other company is greater than 50%

Investment account is eliminated

Only parent company prepares consolidated statements; not subsidiary.

Acquired assets/liabilities are recorded at Fair Value on acquisition date.

Eliminating entries for inter-company sales of inventory & PPE; also inter-company investments

597
Q

When is consolidation not required?

A

Ownership less than 50%

OR

Majority owner does not control - i.e. bankruptcy or foreign bureaucracy

598
Q

What occurs under a step acquisition?

A

Acquirer held previous shares accounted for under Fair Value Method or Equity Method; and are now re-valued to Fair Value

Results in a Gain or Loss in current period

599
Q

What is the difference between an acquisition and a merger?

A

Acquired companies continue to exist as a legal entity - their books are just consolidated with the parent company in the parent’s financial statements

Merged companies cease to exist and only the parent remains

600
Q

How are acquisition costs recorded in a merger?

A

Expensed in period incurred - i.e. NOT capitalized:
Accounting; Legal; Valuation; Consulting; Professional

Netted against stock proceeds:
Stock registration and issuance costs

601
Q

What is a current asset?

A

Cash plus other assets that are expected to be sold or converted to cash during the current operating cycle

Includes: Demand deposits, cash equivalents, accounts receivable, inventory, pre-paids, and short-term investments

602
Q

What is a current liability?

A

A liability expected to be paid within 12 months or less

603
Q

How is the Quick Ratio calculated?

A

(Cash + A/R + Trading Securities) / Current Liabilities

604
Q

How is the Current Ratio calculated?

A

Currents Assets / Current Liabilities

605
Q

How is Working Capital calculated?

A

Currents Assets - Current Liabilities

606
Q

How is A/R Turnover calculated?

A

Credit Sales / Average A/R

607
Q

How is Inventory Turnover calculated?

A

COGS / Average Inventory

608
Q

How is Day Sales in Inventory calculated?

A

365 / Inventory Turnover

609
Q

How is Days to Collect A/R calculated?

A

Average A/R / Average Sales per Day

610
Q

How are gain contingencies recorded?

A

They are NOT accrued due to Conservatism

611
Q

When are loss contingencies recorded?

A

If Probable - they are accrued (if estimable) and disclosed

If Reasonably Possible - they are disclosed

If Remote - don’t accrue or disclose

612
Q

What is a temporary difference related to deferred taxes?

A

GAAP says to recognize a revenue/expense in one period and tax laws say to recognize it in another

Example: Dividends from a subsidiary accounted for using the Equity Method - tax income but not book income

613
Q

What is a deferred tax asset?

A

Deduction will reduce future income taxes expense.

614
Q

What is a deferred tax liability?

A

Income will be taxable in a future period and will increase future tax expense

615
Q

Which period’s tax rate is used to calculate a deferred tax asset or liability?

A

The FUTURE enacted tax rate not the current one.

It is never discounted to present value.

616
Q

What valuation allowance is used with respect to a deferred tax asset?

A

If it isprobable that not all of a Deferred Tax Asset (debit) will be realized then the Deferred Tax Asset account must be written down (credit) to reflect this

617
Q

What effect do permanent differences have on deferred income taxes?

A

They have no tax impact.

When calculating the total differences between book and tax income subtract the permanent differences from the total before applying a future enacted tax rate

618
Q

What is deferred income tax expense?

A

The sum of Net Changes in Deferred Tax Assets and Deferred Tax Liabilities

GAAP Method for calculating is theAsset and Liability Approach

Note: IFRS uses the Liability approach only

619
Q

How are deferred tax assets classified as current or non-current on the balance sheet?

A

Current Deferred Tax Assets and Liabilities will impact income tax expense within 12 months. All current amounts are netted and reported as a single amount on the Balance Sheet

Non-Current Deferred Tax Assets and Liabilities will impact income tax expense 12 months or more fromt he Balance Sheet Date. All non-current amounts are netted and reported as a single amount on the Balance Sheet

620
Q

How are derivatives recorded?

A

At cost when acquired re-valued to fair value each period on Balance Sheet.

621
Q

How are unrealized gains/losses on trading securities recorded?

A

Recorded on income statement

622
Q

How are gains and losses on Available for Sale (AFS) securities recorded?

A

They are included in Other Comprehensive Income.

623
Q

What is a Fair Value Hedge? How is it recorded?

A

Fair Value Hedge offsets exposure to changes in the value of a recognized asset/liability or of an unrecognized commitment

Initially recorded on Balance Sheet at Fair Value

Gains/Losses recorded on Income Statement

624
Q

What is a Cash Flow Hedge? How is it recorded?

A

Cash flow hedges protect from exposure to fluctuations in cash flows.

Initially recorded on Balance Sheet at Fair Value

Gains/Losses going to OCI

Example: A cereal company enters into a futures contract on grain purchases to offset the risk that grain will go up in price.

625
Q

Where are gains and losses on foreign currency hedges recorded?

A

In Other Comprehensive Income (OCI)

626
Q

What disclosures are required for derivative transactions?

A

Objectives and Strategies

Context to help investor understand the instrument

Risk Management Policies

Complete List of Hedged Instruments

627
Q

How do transactions denominated in in a currency other than a company’s functional currency affect the income statement?

A

Fluctuations in that currency cause a gain or loss that must be recognized on the income statement as Income from Continuing Operations

628
Q

For the balance sheet which date’s translation rate is used to report assets and liabilities?

A

The current translation rate as of the balance sheet date is used to report assets and liabilities.

629
Q

Which date’s currency translation rate is used for the reporting of revenue and expense transactions in a foreign currency?

A

Use the weighted average exchange rate for the current year.

630
Q

If the functional currency is the reporting currency which exchange rate is used on the foreign currency financial statements?

A

Foreign Currency Financial Statements are remeasured into the Reporting Currency (Dollar) using the weighted-average exchange rate

631
Q

Where are re-measurement gains and losses due to foreign currency translation reported?

A

On the income statement as Other Income.

632
Q

What is the primary objective of accounting?

A

To measure income

633
Q

What is the most authoritative set of accounting pronouncements?

A

The FASB Codification

All pronouncements fall under the Codification umbrella

634
Q

What are the 2 Levels of Authority within the FASB codification?

A

Authoritative and Non-Authoritative

635
Q

How does managerial accounting differ from financial accounting?

A

Managerial Accounting has a timeliness focus

Managerial Accounting is not required to follow GAAP

636
Q

Which financial reports are required to be filed with the SEC?

A

Form 10K - Annual and Audited

Form 10Q - Quarterly and Reviewed

637
Q

What is the focus of financial reports for individual companies?

A

Focus is on the needs of users to help them make decisions and assessments about the company

Does not make assessments of the economy

638
Q

What are the Primary Constraints of Financial Reporting?

A

Cost vs. Benefit

Materiality

639
Q

What are the Secondary Constraints of Financial Reporting?

A

Consistency - Year vs. Year

Comparability - Company vs. Company

640
Q

What are the Qualitative Characteristics of Financial Reporting?

A

Relevance & Faithful Representation

Relevance - Makes a difference to the user
Includes:
Predictive Value - Future Trends
Confirming Value - Past Predictions
Materiality - Could affect User Decisions

Faithful Representation
Includes:
Completeness - Nothing omitted that would impact the decision-making of a user
Neutrality - Information is presented is without bias
Free from Error - No material errors or omissions

641
Q

What are the Enhancing Qualitative Characteristics of Financial Reporting?

A

Comparability Verifiability Timeliness and Understandability

Comparability - Allows users to compare different items among various periods
Verifiability - Different people would reach a similar conclusion on the information presented
Timeliness - Information is made available early enough to impact the decision making of users
Understandability - Information is easy to understand

642
Q

How does Conservatism affect the recording of accounting transactions?

A

When an estimate is necessary due to uncertainty conservatism chooses the best option that won’t overstate the financial position of the company

643
Q

What is an accrual?

A

Earned (Revenue) or Incurred (Expense) but no Cash Receipt/Outlay yet

644
Q

What is a deferral?

A

Cash Receipt/Outlay but not Earned (Revenue) or Incurred (Expense)

645
Q

What is recognition in accounting?

A

When an item is recorded and included in the financial statements

646
Q

Describe fair value with respect to an asset

A

The price you would receive if you sold the asset

Assumes asset is at its highest and best value

Assumes asset is sold at its most advantageous market to get the best price possible

647
Q

What market assumptions are made in a fair value assessment?

A

Buyer and Seller are not Related

Buyer and Seller are Knowledgeable

Buyer and Seller are able to transact - i.e. This isn’t a hypothetical transaction for Fair Value measurement purposes. The buyer actually does have the $10M to purchase the asset you’re trying to value at $10M

Buyer and Seller are both motivated to buy/sell

648
Q

What items are included in a Level 1 input in the fair value hierarchy?

A

Price quotes or market prices

For example NYSE or NASDAQ

649
Q

What items are included in a Level 2 valuation input?

A

Interest rates

Prime rate

650
Q

What items are included in Level 3 inputs of the fair value hierarchy?

A

Unobservable inputs such as assumptions or forecasts

Lowest priority for valuation

651
Q

What are acceptable valuation techniques for fair value?

A

Market approach - uses market transactions and prices to value the asset

Income approach - uses present value discounts earnings

Cost approach - uses replacement cost to value the asset

652
Q

What are current assets?

A

Cash

Inventory or Assets expected to be converted or consumed during a business’ operating cycle

Deferred Gross Profit on Installment Sales (Contra Asset)

Receivables expected to be collected in 12 months or less

653
Q

What are current liabilities?

A

Liabilities that will use current assets during the present operating cycle

654
Q

What is an accrued liability?

A

Expense that has been incurred but not paid

Example: rents payable

655
Q

What is a deferred revenue?

A

A type of current liability

Payments that have been received but cannot be recorded as revenue yet

Example: Tenant pre-pays rent - Landlord still must perform to earn it and is a liability until this happens

656
Q

When are revenues recognized?

A

When they have been earned; i.e. company has performed

657
Q

What is a gain?

A

Increase in equity from an activity or event that is not central to the main activities of the business

Can be operating or non-operating

658
Q

What is a loss?

A

Decrease in equity from an activity or event that is not central to the main activities of the business

Can be operating or non-operating

659
Q

What is an operating cycle?

A

Average time it takes to turn materials or services into Cash

660
Q

What is the present value of future cash flows?

A

Valuation method - the current value of a future amount of money using a specific interest rate

661
Q

What is historical cost?

A

How much an asset cost - (net of depreciation and amortization)

662
Q

What is replacement cost?

A

How much it would cost to reacquire an asset today (Entrance Cost)

663
Q

What is a market cost?

A

The sale price of an asset (Exit Cost)

664
Q

What is Net Realizable Value?

A

Sale Price of an Asset - Selling/Disposal Fee

665
Q

When is royalty income recognized? How is it recognized?

A

Recognized when earned

If the royalty % is applied against net sales then subtract the estimated return amount from the gross sales first and then apply the royalty rate

666
Q

When is revenue recognized in an installment sale?

A

Revenue recognized upon receipt of cash

Only used when cash collection is uncertain

667
Q

What is deferred gross profit?

A

Gross Profit that can’t be recognized until cash is received

D.GP : Gross Profit % x Accounts Receivable

Pay attention to the year if GP% varies

668
Q

What is the cost recovery method?

A

No revenue recognized until all costs are recovered from purchase of the asset

Most conservative method of revenue recognition when collection of sale price is uncertain

669
Q

What is subscription revenue? How is it recorded?

A

Payment has been received but performance is not complete.

As company performs revenue is recognized.

Recorded as a Deferred Revenue (Liability) on Balance Sheet

670
Q

How are franchise revenues recorded?

A

Franchisor - Startup franchise fee revenue deferred until substantial performance

Franchisee - Costs are deferred until corresponding revenue is recognized

671
Q

How do you calculate sales revenue starting from cash basis income?

A

Mnemonic: SPEAR-BAR

Sales (i.e. Customer Payments)
+ Ending Accounts Receivable
- Beginning Accounts Receivable
: Sales Revenue on an Accrual Basis

672
Q

How do you calculate COGS starting from Cash Basis?

A

Mnemonic: CRAP-I

Cash Remitted (i.e. paid)
+Increase in Accounts Payable
-Increase in Inventory
:COGS on an Accrual Basis

673
Q

How are discontinued operations reported? When are they used?

A

Reported Net of Tax after Continuing Operations but before Extraordinary Items

Company decides to cease operating a segment of its business

Includes Income (or loss) from the period plus the gain (or loss) from disposal

674
Q

What qualifies as an extraordinary item? How is it recorded?

A

Both unusual AND infrequent

Reported Net of Tax after Discontinued Operations

Note: Usual or Infrequent Items are reported as part of Continuing Operations

675
Q

What is constant dollar accounting?

A

Adjusts assets to reflect a consistent level of purchasing power due to inflation

Uses the Consumer Price Index (CPI)

676
Q

When are expenses recognized?

A

When they are incurred. Accrue if not yet paid.

677
Q

What are accrued expenses?

A

Those incurred but not paid.

Product costs - Expenses should be matched with associated revenues as they are recognized (sales commission on a used car sale)

Period costs - Expenses amortized and recognized with the passage of time

678
Q

When should impaired assets be written down to fair value and expensed?

A

Immediately.

679
Q

What major items should be classified under General & Administrative (G&A) expenses?

A

Office staff salaries

Office/building rent

Office supplies

Note: Sales staff salaries and portions of the building assigned to Sales should be allocated to Selling Expense not G&A

680
Q

What are business start-up costs?

A

One-time costs for opening a new business

Expensed as they are incurred

681
Q

When is interest not expensed?

A

Interest on projects (software) for internal use is not expensed but is instead capitalized

682
Q

What are the major components of Comprehensive Income?

A

Net Income + Other Comprehensive Income (OCI):

Revenues/Expenses

Gains/Losses

Cumulative accounting adjustments

Reclassifications adjustments

Non-owner changes in equity

683
Q

What items are considered cumulative accounting adjustments?

A

Foreign Currency Translation Adjustments

Unrealized gains on AFS Securities

Minimum Pension Liability adjustment for defined benefit plans

684
Q

What is the purpose of a reclassification adjustment?

A

Avoids double counting items that were included in both Net Income and OCI

Example: AFS Securities previously included in OCI are now sold at a loss and reported on the Income Statement

685
Q

Where is Comprehensive Income reported?

A

Reported in a Single or Combined Income Statement

686
Q

What disclosures on accounting policies are required in financial statements?

A

Accounting Principles used

Basis of Consolidation

Inventory Pricing Methods

Depreciation Method

Amortization of Intangibles

687
Q

What are some major risks and uncertainties that must be disclosed?

A

Nature of Operations

Use of Estimates and listing of Significant Estimates

Concentration vulnerability

688
Q

Which Personal Financial Statements are required?

A

Statement of Financial Condition & Statement of Changes in Net Worth

689
Q

How are assets and liabilities valued in a Personal Financial Statement?

A

Estimated current value

690
Q

How are estimated taxes that would be paid if all assets were converted into cash and all liabilities paid presented on a Personal Financial Statement?

A

Presented on Statement of Financial Condition between Liabilities and Net Worth

691
Q

What is the general presentation on a statement of financial condition?

A

Assets
- Liabilities
- Estimated taxes on assets sold
: Net Worth

692
Q

How is life insurance presented on a Personal Financial Statement?

A

Only shown if there is cash surrender value

It is shown net of loans against the policy

693
Q

How are business interests shown on a Personal Financial Statement?

A

Business Interests that constitute a large percentage of total assets should be separated from other investments

694
Q

What is the discreet view in an Interim Financial Statement?

A

Interim period is a separate accounting period - not GAAP

Same accounting principles used for annual reporting should be used.

695
Q

What is the integral view in an Interim Financial Statement?

A

Interim period is a part of the annual period - GAAP

Gross profit method may be used to estimate COGS and inventory

Temporary declines in inventory aren’t recognized

696
Q

How are discontinued operations & extraordinary items reported in Interim Financial Statements?

A

Aren’t prorated

Fully recognized in Interim Period as incurred

If it occurs in Q3 - it’s recognized in Q3

697
Q

How are cumulative gains and losses reported in Interim Financials?

A

Reported as if they occurred in the first quarter

698
Q

How is inventory valuation handled in Interim Financials?

A

If inventory experiences a decline in value during an interim period - the loss is recognized in the interim period

If the loss is expected to be only temporary - no loss is recognized

699
Q

What is one of the primary problems with interim reporting?

A

The matching principle gets messed up - Expenses incurred in one period may benefit future periods

700
Q

For whom is Segment Reporting required?

A

Publicly traded companies

701
Q

What factors cause a segment to be significant and therefore to be reported separately?

A

Revenue of segment is 10% or more of total

Profit is 10% or more of total

Segment assets are 10% or more of total

75% Test - All segment revenues must equal 75% of total external revenues

702
Q

What is the disclosure requirement regarding sales of 10% or more for one customer?

A

If 10% or more of enterprise revenue comes from one customer - the segment making the sales must be disclosed

703
Q

How are Research and Development costs recorded?

A

They are expensed in the period incurred and are not capitalized.

704
Q

Which expenditures are included in the cost of a building?

A

All expenditures to get the building into working condition are ready for use

705
Q

Which expenditures are included in the cost of land?

A

All expenditures to get the land ready for its intended use:

Title & County Fees

Clearing of Land - Dirt work etc.

Demolition and removal of old buildings (minus any scrap or salvage)

Note: capitalized land costs are not depreciated

706
Q

In an exchange of non-monetary assets how much gain is recognized if no additional cash is exchanged when there is no significant difference in resulting cash flows?

A

If the cash flows from the assets exchanged are not significantly different no gain or loss is recognized on a non-monetary exchange as it lacks commercial substance.

The new asset is recorded at the book value of the asset given up.

The only gain that can be recognized is any boot (cash) received.

707
Q

In an exchange of non-monetary assets what gain is recognized if resulting cash flows are significantly different?

A

If resulting cash flows are significantly different then the transaction has commercial substance and a gain/loss is recorded on the exchange.

The new asset is recorded at the FAIR VALUE of the assets given up unless the asset acquired has a fair value that is easier to determine.

708
Q

How is donated property recorded by the donee?

A

Recorded at Fair Value + costs associated with getting the property into working condition for its designed purpose

Exam Tip - Think of a charity holding afair and then donating the property which is then recorded atfair value

709
Q

How is donation of property recorded by the donor?

A

Recorded at Fair Value of asset given up.

Gain or Loss is recorded.

710
Q

How is double-declining balance (DDB) depreciation calculated?

A

1 / (Useful Life x 2 x Book Value)

Ignore salvage value.

711
Q

How is Sum of Year’s Digits (SYD) depreciation calculated?

A

(Cost - Salvage Value) x (Remaining Useful Life / SYD) : Depreciation expense

For example the depreciation factor for the third year of a 10-year asset would be:

: 8 / (10+9+8+7+6+5+4+3+2+1) : 8/55 : 14.5%

Remaining useful life : 8 SYD : 55

712
Q

How is straight line depreciation calculated?

A

(Cost - Salvage Value) / Useful life : depreciation expense

713
Q

When is an asset considered to be impaired? How is impairment loss calculated?

A

When the un-discounted future cash flows are less than the carrying value of the asset.

Carrying Value - Fair Value : Impairment Loss

Note: impaired assets that recover their value can’t be written back up once written down

714
Q

How are legal fees to defend a patent amortized?

A

If the patent is SUCCESSFULLY defended the legal fees are amortized over the patent’s economic life.

If unsuccessful they are expensed immediately.

715
Q

What are the two steps for testing goodwill impairment?

A

Compare the CV to the FV. If FV is greater than CV no impairment exists you’re done.

If impairment appears to exist the assets and liabilities should be compared to the total value of the reporting unit. The difference is Goodwill. Compare this amount to the CV of the Goodwill and write it down accordingly.

716
Q

How are costs for developing software recorded?

A

Expenses prior to technological feasibility are expensed as R&D.

After technological feasibility but prior to production costs are capitalized.

Expenses incurred during production are charged to inventory.

Expenses incurred training on internal use software are expensed.

717
Q

What expenditures are included in the cost of equipment?

A

All expenditures to get the asset into working condition and ready for use:

Purchase price + liabilities assumed
Shipping
Taxes
Insurance
Installation
Testing
Legal fees
Construction loan interest

Any alterations to existing facilities or equipment necessary for the new purchase and installation that extend the life or increase the efficiency of these assets are capitalized.

718
Q

What are the three major types of funds in governmental accounting?

A

Governmental, Proprietary, Fiduciary

719
Q

Which two accounting bases are used in governmental accounting?

A

Accrual basis - current economic resources focus (revenues recognized when earned)

Modified accrual basis - current financial resources focus (revenues recognized when available and measurable)

720
Q

What is a budget appropriation?

A

The highest amount allowed for a particular expenditure under a budget.

721
Q

What is an encumbrance?

A

Records purchase and reserves it for the encumbrance.

722
Q

What is the opening budgetary entry?

A

Dr Estimated Revenues Control
Cr Appropriations Control
Dr/Cr Budgetary Fund Balance (plug)

723
Q

What is the closing budgetary entry?

A

Dr Appropriations Control
Dr/Cr Budgetary Fund Balance (plug)
Cr Estimated Revenues Control

724
Q

What are the types of governmental funds?

A
General Fund
Special Revenue Fund
Permanent Fund
Capital Projects Fund
Debt Service Fund
725
Q

What is a General Fund?

A

The operating fund of the governmental unit

Records Significant Revenues: Taxes; Tickets; Fines; Licenses

Records Significant Expenditures: Police; Education; Fire Dept

726
Q

What is a Special Revenue Fund?

A

Restricted for a specific purpose such as street repair.

727
Q

What is a Permanent Fund?

A

Legally restricted fund; where only earnings can be used to fund programs.

Principal remains intact.

728
Q

What is a Capital Projects Fund?

A

Used to acquire and build facilities.

729
Q

What is a Debt Service Fund?

A

Handles repayment of long-term debt and related interest.

730
Q

Which fund statements are issued in Governmental Accounting?

A

Balance Sheet

Statement of Revenues; Expenditures; and Changes in Fund Balance

731
Q

When is Revenue recorded in Governmental Accounting?

A

When it is BOTH available and measurable; regardless of when it is spent.

732
Q

What is Derived Tax Revenue?

A

Money collected from people doing things:

Sales tax (buying cars) or income tax (people working)

733
Q

What is Imposed Tax Revenue?

A

Tax assessed just because things exist

Example: property tax on a car (even if it’s never driven); real estate tax

Recorded as a revenue when BUDGETED.

Estimated uncollectible property tax revenues don’t offset revenues; so don’t net them.

734
Q

What are the types of Proprietary Funds?

A

Internal Service Funds - to serve the needs of other governmental units (i.e. motor pool)

Enterprise Funds - provide goods or services to external users (i.e. post office)

735
Q

What are the Fund Balance Types?

A
Restricted - Restricted by Contributor 
 Committed - Restricted by Government
 Assigned - Intended for a purpose
 Unassigned - Available to be spent
 Non-spendable - Not in a spendable state
736
Q

What are the types of Fiduciary Funds?

A

Agency Fund - government acts as an agent or custodian

Pension Trust Fund - Government is a trustee for a pension plan

Investment Trust Fund - Government is a trustee over a series of investments

Private Purpose Trust - Trust that benefits various individuals and entities

737
Q

How are Assets & Liabilities presented on the Statement of Net Position?

A

Assets (Current & Non-Current)
Deferred Outflows of Resources
Liabilities (Current & Non-Current)
Deferred Inflows of Resources

738
Q

How are Capital Assets shown on a governmental Statement of Net Assets?

A

They are shown net of debt

Asset Cost - Accumulated Depreciation - Asset Liabilities : Net Assets

739
Q

How is infrastructure reported on a governmental Statement of Net Assets?

A

Modified approach:

Reported at cost; no accumulated depreciation

740
Q

How is a Statement of Net Assets divided?

A

Into Governmental Activities and Business Activities

741
Q

How are activities presented in a Statement of Activities?

A

They are divided by function

If the activities of a component are distinguishable from the rest of the governmental entity; then discreet presentation is required

If the activities of the component cannot be identified and separated from the rest of the governmental activities; then blended presentation is warranted.

Component units are reported in the Entity-Wide Financial Statements and not the Fund Financial Statements.

742
Q

What is the primary objective of governmental accounting?

A

To provide information that is useful and benefits a wide range of users including:

Costs of services provided

Sufficiency of revenues to cover costs

Financial position of entity

743
Q

What Financial Statements are required for Defined Benefit Pension plans?

A

Statement of Fiduciary Net Position and Statement of Changes in Fiduciary Net Position

744
Q

What are the components of the Statement of Fiduciary Net Position for Defined Benefit Pension Plans?

A

Assets; Deferred Outfows; Liabilities; Deferred Outflows; Fiduciary Net Position

745
Q

What are the components of the Statement of Changes in Fiduciary Net Position for Defined Benefit Pension plans?

A

Additions (Contributions and Net Investment Income) - Deductions (Benefits Payments and Admin Expense) : Net Change in Fiduciary Net Position

746
Q

What should be included in the Financial Statement notes for Defined Benefit Pension Plans?

A

Types of Benefits; Plan Member Classes; Board Information; Investment Policies and FV Determination

747
Q

Which organization’s standards are the most authoritative in the hierarchy of international accounting?

A

The International Accounting Standards Board (IASB)

748
Q

Where is the first place management should look for guidance on international recognition and accounting policies?

A

The International Financial Reporting Standards (IFRS) issued by the IASB

749
Q

Which framework helps to develop standards for international accounting?

A

The IASB Framework

  • The framework is NOT a standard itself
  • The framework does not supersede any standard’s authority
750
Q

What is the objective of the IFRS framework?

A

To provide users with information on international accounting.

751
Q

Which assumptions are followed within the IRFS framework?

A

Entity is a Going Concern

Entity uses the accrual basis of accounting.

752
Q

What are the Qualitative Characteristics of accounting information within IFRS?

A

Relevance & Faithful Representation

Relevance - Makes a difference to the user
Includes:
Predictive Value - Future Trends
Confirming Value - Past Predictions

Faithful Representation
Includes:
Completeness - Nothing omitted that would impact the decision-making of a user
Neutrality - Information is presented is without bias
Free from Error - No material errors or omissions

753
Q

What are the Enhancing Characteristics of IFRS?

A

Comparability - Allows users to compare different items among various periods
Verifiability - Different people would reach a similar conclusion on the information presented
Timeliness - Information is made available early enough to impact the decision making of users
Understandability - Information is easy to understand

754
Q

How does comparability differ under GAAP versus IFRS?

A

Comparative information from prior year is required under IFRS.

GAAP requires that if multiple years are presented they are consistently prepared however it doesn’t require prior year comparative statements.

755
Q

What is the Pervasive Constraint within IFRS?

A

Cost vs. Benefit

756
Q

Which items are considered reporting elements under IFRS?

A
Asset
Liability
Equity
Income
Expense
757
Q

What are the criteria for recognition on IFRS financial statements?

A

Probable future economic benefit

Can be measured reliably

If the value or outcome cannot be measured reliably IFRS requires the use of the Cost Recovery Method.

758
Q

When transitioning to IFRS what type of financial statement must be produced for the first reporting period?

A

A full comparative statement using IFRS.

759
Q

If IFRS was implemented in June 2012 for use in the December 31 2012 financial statements what is the Date of Transition?

A

January 1 2011 because a full year of comparative statements is required from the previous year

760
Q

For Property Plant and Equipment which election is the most efficient method for converting assets to IFRS?

A

The Fair Value election

761
Q

Where on the financial statements are adjustments for adopting to IFRS made?

A

In the entity’s retained earnings or equity

762
Q

How is going concern different under IFRS than from GAAP?

A

Going Concern is an assumption under IFRS

763
Q

How are extraordinary items treated under IFRS?

A

IFRS doesn’t allow extraordinary items.

764
Q

How is the completed contract method used under IFRS?

A

Completed contract method is not allowed under IFRS.

765
Q

How is LIFO treated under IFRS?

A

IFRS does not allow LIFO.

766
Q

Which financial statements are required under IFRS?

A

Statement of Comprehensive Income

Statement of Changes in Equity

767
Q

How is the term income used in IFRS?

A

Income is used instead of revenue and encompasses BOTH revenue and gains.

768
Q

How is the term profit used in IFRS?

A

In IFRS the term profit is used instead of Net Income.

769
Q

How does IFRS treat gains?

A

They are treated the same as revenue and are not separated on the financial statements.

770
Q

How does IFRS treat losses?

A

In IFRS losses are treated the same as expenses but they ARE separated on the financial statements.

771
Q

How does refinancing of current liabilities to long-term liabilities under IFRS differ from GAAP?

A

Under IFRS current liabilities can only be refinanced into a non-current liability if the refinance agreement is EXECUTED prior to the balance sheet date.

GAAP requires only intent to refinance not actual execution.

772
Q

How do contingent liabilities differ between GAAP and IFRS?

A

Under GAAP there are three classifications of contingent liabilities - Probable Reasonably Possible and Remote.

Under IFRS contingencies are uncertain future events and are classified as a provision if probable and measurable even if uncertain in timing or amount.

773
Q

How are bonds recorded under IFRS?

A

Bonds may be recorded on the Statement of Financial Position using one of two methods

Fair Value through profit or loss

  • Liability revalued at the end of each period
  • Gain or Loss recognized in period

Amortized Cost
*Using Effective Interest Method

774
Q

How are deferred taxes treated under IFRS?

A

They use the liability method - all deferred tax liabilities must be reported but only probable deferred tax assets can be reported.

They are non-current on the statement of financial position.

775
Q

When can deferred tax assets and liabilities be netted under IFRS?

A

ONLY if they are related to the same country/taxing authority

For example China Deferred Tax Assets can’t offset Japan Deferred Tax Liabilities

776
Q

Which tax rates are used for calculating deferred tax assets/liabilities under IFRS?

A

The enacted rate or substantially enacted tax rate.

GAAP is the enacted tax rate only

777
Q

Which items are recorded on the Income Statement in IFRS?

A
Income
Finance Costs
Tax Expense
Discontinued Ops
Profit/Loss
Non-controlling interest in Profit/Loss
Net profit/loss attributable from equity
778
Q

How are property plant and equipment (PP&E) recorded and valued under IFRS?

A

Recorded at cost

Valued using either:

Cost model - asset carried at cost less accumulated depreciation and impairment loss

Revaluation model - asset adjusted to fair value less accumulated depreciation

779
Q

What are the requirements for using the revaluation model for PP&E under IFRS?

A

Asset must be able to be reliably measured

Must be applied to whole class of assets not just one asset

No guidance on how often assets should be revalued under IFRS

780
Q

How is investment property reported under IFRS?

A

Initially recorded at cost

Revalued using either Fair Value model or Cost model

781
Q

How is profit or loss recorded in the current period for investment property under the Fair Value model of IFRS?

A

Recorded on the Income Statement

Investment P/L : IS

PP&E P/L : OCI

782
Q

Under IFRS how is investment property reported under the Cost Model?

A

Carried at Cost minus Accumulated Depreciation

Fair Value must still be disclosed in the notes to the financial statements

783
Q

How are leases reported under IFRS?

A

Operating Leases can be recorded as Investment Property if measured at Fair Value

All other investment property must use Fair Value Model if one asset uses it

784
Q

How are intangible assets valued under IFRS?

A

Using either the Cost Model (cost less Accumulated Depreciation and Impairment Loss)

or

the Revaluation Model (Fair Value less Accumulated Depreciation)

785
Q

How is internally generated goodwill reported under IFRS?

A

It is not recognized.

786
Q

How is amortization of intangibles handled under IFRS?

A

If asset has a finite life it is amortized over useful life.

If asset has indefinite life it is not amortized but is tested for impairment at the reporting date.

787
Q

When must a lease be recorded as a Finance Lease under IFRS?

A

If the substantial risks of ownership have passed to the Lessee then the Lease must be accounted for as a Finance Lease

788
Q

How are defined benefit plans recorded under IFRS?

A

Project-unit-credit method calculates the PV of the defined benefit obligation

789
Q

How are interest expense and/or finance costs classified on an IFRS statement of cash flows?

A

They can be classified as either Operating or Financing

Once a classification is chosen all future costs must be classified there

790
Q

How are significant non-cash transactions recorded on an IFRS statement of cash flows?

A

They must be included in the notes to the financial statements.

791
Q

Which costs are inventoriable?

A

Purchases - Net of Discounts, Freight, Warehouse expenditures

792
Q

When does ownership of goods transfer when shipped FOB Shipping Point?

A

FOB Shipping Point puts the inventory into the hands of the buyer from the loading dock

793
Q

When does ownership transfer when goods are sent FOB Destination?

A

FOB Destination keeps the items in the seller’s inventory until it reaches the buyer

794
Q

Which costs are non-inventoriable?

A

Sales Commissions

Interest on liabilities to vendors

Shipping expense to customers

795
Q

When are discounts recorded under the gross method?

A

Under the gross method, discounts are recorded only when used.

796
Q

Under the net method, when are discounts recorded?

A

Under the net method, discounts are recorded whether used or not.

Unused discounts are allocated to financing expense.

797
Q

How is gross margin calculated?

A

Gross Margin : Sales - COGS (BI + P - EI)

798
Q

Describe the periodic inventory system.

A

Inventory is counted at certain times throughout the period

Weighted-average cost flow method is used.

799
Q

Describe the perpetual inventory system.

A

Inventory count continually updated

Uses a moving-average cost flow method

800
Q

In periods of rising prices, under which cost flow system would ending inventory be the same under both periodic and perpetual inventory methods?

A

Under the FIFO system, periodic and perpetual inventory methods will both have the same ending inventory.

801
Q

How is inventory turnover calculated?

A

COGS / Average Inventory

802
Q

How is Average Day’s Sales in inventory calculated?

A

365 / Inventory Turnover

803
Q

Under a consignment system, who holds the consigned goods in inventory?

A

The CONSIGNOR holds the consigned items in their inventory count. The cost includes the shipping to the consignee.

804
Q

Under a consignment system, does the consignee hold consignment inventory in their own inventory?

A

No. Consignment goods are maintained in the inventory of the consignor, not the consignee.

805
Q

What effect does overstatement or understatement of inventory have on ending retained earnings?

A

Misstatement of beginning inventory does NOT have an effect on ending retained earnings.

Misstatement of ENDING inventory does have an effect on retained earnings.

806
Q

How does misstatement of ending inventory effect Ending Retained Earnings?

A

EI Over : COGS Under : ERE Over

EI Under : COGS Over : ERE Under

807
Q

Which costs are included in COGS first under the FIFO (first in first out) system?

A

The first (oldest) inventory you have in stock is the first inventory you record for COGS purposes. If your oldest inventory on the shelf cost you $1 when you bought it, COGS is $1

This is just for inventory pricing. It has nothing to do with physically selling the oldest item on the shelf - It is purely for accounting purposes

808
Q

Which costs are included in COGS under the LIFO (last in first out) system?

A

The last (newest) inventory you have in stock is the first inventory you record for COGS purposes. If your newest inventory on the shelf cost you $1.50 when you bought it, COGS is $1.50

809
Q

How is Weighted Average Cost Per Unit calculated under a weighted average inventory system?

A

COGAS / Total Units : Weighted Average Cost Per Unit

810
Q

How does FIFO’s COGS relate to LIFO’s in a time of changing prices?

A

FIFO’s relationship to COGS will be opposite LIFO’s relationship to COGS in periods of falling/rising prices.

811
Q

How do FIFO and LIFO change in a period of rising prices?

A

FIFO has the Lowest COGS

FIFO is a cat that sees a mouse starts Low and is Rising

If COGS is Low, that means EI is High

812
Q

How do FIFO and LIFO change in a period of falling prices?

A

FIFO has the Highest COGS

Remember: FIFO, that silly cat, got High from Catnip and is Falling off the couch

If COGS is High, that means EI is Low

813
Q

Under a Lower of Cost or Market, how are the benchmarks calculated?

A

Market Ceiling : Net Realizable Value : Selling Price - Selling Costs

Market : Replacement Cost

Market Floor : Net Realizable Value - Normal Profit

814
Q

How are Available-For-Sale securities recorded on the Balance Sheet?

A

At Fair value as either Current or Non-current assets.

815
Q

How are Available-For-Sale security Unrealized G/L treated?

A

Included in OCI (Other Comprehensive Income)

816
Q

How are Unrealized G/L for Available-For-Sale securities that are reclassified to Held-to-Maturity or Trading Securities treated?

A

HTM - Stockholder’s Equity
/ Trading Securities - Current Period.

817
Q

How are Held-to-Maturity securities recorded on the Balance Sheet?

A

Amortized cost as Current or Non-current assets.

If reclassified as AFS - Unrealized G/L go to Stockholder’s Equity

If reclassified as Trading Securities - Unrealized G/L recognized in Current Period

818
Q

How are Held-to-Maturity securities Unrealized G/L treated?

A

Trick question - Unrealized gains or losses are not applicable because they are HTM

819
Q

How are Trading Securities recorded on the Balance Sheet?

A

At Fair Value as a Current Asset

Unrealized gains/losses are recorded on the Income Statement

If they are reclassified as held-to-maturity or available-for-sale- there is no effect upon transfer.

820
Q

How are Trading Securities Unrealized G/L treated?

A

Recorded on the Income Statement

If they are reclassified as HTM or AFS - there is no effect upon transfer.

821
Q

How is a Capital Lease recorded?

A

Capitalize at cost: Asset & Liability Recorded at Present Value of Future Lease Payments

822
Q

What footnote disclosures are required for a Capital Lease?

A

Future minimum rental commitments

By year - for 5 years

All remaining years as a group

823
Q

What are the requirements for a Capital Lease for a lessor?

A

Same as for lessee (Title- BPO or Substance)- PLUS:

Collectability of lease payments is predictable

No uncertainties about the lessor reimbursing the lessee for costs incurred

824
Q

What are the characteristics of an Operating Lease for a lessee?

A

Risk of ownership does NOT pass

No asset or liability is recorded on the financial statements

Leasehold improvements - capitalized and depreciated over the lesser of lease life or leasehold improvement’s life.

825
Q

What are the characteristics of an Operating Lease for a LESSOR?

A

Rent revenue recorded

Leased property remains an asset and depreciated by lessor

If payments fluctuate over the term of the lease- rent revenue recognized on a straight line basis

826
Q

What are the characteristics of a Direct Financing Lease?

A

Interest Revenue (or expense for lessor) decreases with passage of time

Principal amount increases with each payment

Carrying amount of Lease decreases

827
Q

How is a sale-leaseback recorded?

A

Any profit on the sale is deferred and amortized

Exception: If PV of lease payments is 10% or less of the asset’s FMV- the gain is recognized

If PV of lease payments is greater than 10% of FMV and the lease is operating- all of the gain is recognized except the amount of the PV of the lease payments

828
Q

What are the characteristics of lease payments under an annuity due situation?

A

Payments begin at the start of the lease period

Think: Rent/Mortgage payments are Due at the first of the month

829
Q

What are the characteristics of lease payments under an ordinary annuity situation?

A

Payments begin after the end of the first year

Think: An annuity that pays you at the end of each year

830
Q

What are the characteristics of a Capital Lease for a lessee?

A

Risk of ownership passes to lessee by:
Title,
Bargain Purchase Option (BPO),
Substance - Lease is more than 75% of asset’s useful life or PV of minimum lease payments are more than 90% of fair value

831
Q

Which financial statements are required for not - for - profit organizations?

A

Statement of Financial Position

Statement of Activities

Statement of Cash Flows

Statement of Functional Expense (Volunteer Health Organizations Only)

832
Q

What are the major classifications found on a Statement of Financial Position?

A

Similar to Balance Sheet:

Assets
Liabilities
Net Assets
Unrestricted Assets
Permanently Restricted Assets
Temporarily Restricted Assets

833
Q

What are the major classifications in a Statement of Activities?

A

Similar to an Income Statement - organization - wide:

Revenues
Expenses - ONLY deducted from Unrestricted Revenues
Gains and Losses
Changes in Net Asset classes
Unrestricted
Permanently Restricted
Temporarily Restricted

834
Q

What are the characteristics of a Statement of Cash Flows for not - for - profits? What are the major classifications?

A

Both direct and indirect methods are OK

Operating Activities - Unrestricted Revenues and Unrestricted Expenses

Investing Activities

Financing Activities - Endowments and restricted contributions

835
Q

Which organizations are required to present a Statement of Functional Expenses?

A

Volunteer Health Organizations

836
Q

Which statements are required for non - governmental hospitals?

A

Balance Sheet
Statement of Operations
Statement of Changes in Net Assets
Statement of Cash Flows
Financial Statement Notes

837
Q

Which basis of accounting is used for revenues and net assets?

A

Accrual basis of accounting is used

Only external parties can restrict the use of assets (permanent or temporary)

Assets earmarked internally by management are still classified as unrestricted

838
Q

What are the characteristics of unrestricted assets or revenue?

A

No restrictions or conditions placed on entity in order to use the resources

Note: assets earmarked internally by management are still unrestricted

839
Q

When are revenues on contributions recognized?

A

Revenues on contributions are recognized in the year received - not the year the contribution is spent and are recorded at Fair Value on the date received

840
Q

When are services rendered considered contributions?

A

If the organization would have otherwise paid for them

or

They increase the value of a non - monetary asset

841
Q

Is hospital charity care revenue?

A

NO.

It is disclosed in the notes to the financial statements only.

842
Q

How are unconditional pledges to contribute recorded?

A

Classified as revenue in the current year only - multi - year future contributions fall under Temporarily Restricted.

843
Q

Which revenues are expenses deducted from?

A

Expenses ONLY deducted from Unrestricted Revenues - not Temporary or Permanently Restricted Revenues/Assets

844
Q

What are the characteristics of temporarily restricted assets/revenue?

A

Use is restricted to a future time - which could then convert to unrestricted - Class: Temp. Restricted Revenue

Unrestricted contributions promised (including multi - year contributions) - but not yet received are actually restricted by time and are therefore classified as Temporarily Restricted Assets - Multi - year contributions are recorded at the present value of the future contributions

845
Q

What are the characteristics of an endowment?

A

Use of investment is restricted - but income from investment could be either restricted or unrestricted

Must be under control of receiving entity (Quasi Endowment) in order to be recorded in unrestricted net assets

Otherwise - a memo entry is recorded

846
Q

When is the donation of an art collection recognized as a contribution or asset?

A

Not recognized as assets or contribution revenue if they are held of display or education’ or their sale results in the purchase of similar items

847
Q

When both Temporarily Restricted Assets and Unrestricted Assets are available for use - which assets are used first?

A

Temporarily restricted assets are used before Unrestricted assets.

848
Q

How is a refundable advance recorded by a not for profit?

A

Classified as a Liability

Promise to contribute assets pending on certain conditions being met

Becomes unconditional once the possibility that it won’t happen is remote

849
Q

How are investments recorded and valued in not - for - profit accounting?

A

Fair Value is mostly used

Exception - Equity method used when significant influence exists

850
Q

How are scholarships recorded?

A

As a reduction of revenue - netted against college’s tuition

851
Q

How is depreciation expense recorded by a not - for - profit?

A

Depreciation expense is allocated proportionately to various functions

852
Q

How are capital contributions with a mortgage attached recorded in a partnership for financial statement purposes?

A

Calculating the capital balance when property contributed has a mortgage results in the FV of the Asset being netted against the Liability

853
Q

If no goodwill is recorded upon admission of a new partner - which method is used for recording the new partner’s interest?

A

The bonus method:

Old Partnership Equity+ New Partner Contribution
: New Partnership Equity
x New Partner %
: New Partner Equity AmountNew Partner Contribution - New Partner Equity Amount
: Bonus to Prior Partners using same allocation as P/L

854
Q

If goodwill is recorded upon admission of a new partner - how is the partner’s interest recorded?

A

Using the goodwill method:

New Contribution / New Equity % : Partnership Value

Implied Value of Partnership - Capital Accounts of all partners
: Goodwill to Old Partners

Under the Goodwill Method - the new Partner is paying an amount for a certain percentage stake in the partnership. For instance if they pay $1000 for a 25% stake - then it is assumed that the Partnership is worth $4 -000 ($1 -000/25%)

855
Q

At what value should assets contributed to a partnership be recorded? What value for liabilities assumed by the partnership?

A

Fair Value for assets contributed.

Present value of remaining cash flows for liabilities assumed.

856
Q

What items are included in operating activities on the Statement of Cash Flows?

A

Cash received from Customers- Interest & Dividends- Trading Securities

Cash paid to Vendors- Suppliers- Interest- Taxes- Trading Securities

857
Q

What items are included in investing activities on a Statement of Cash Flows?

A

Cash received: Sale of PP&E- Sale of Investments- Loan Principle

Cash paid: Loans- Acquisitions- AFS or HTM Securities- Taxes- Trading Securities

858
Q

What items are included in Financing Activities in a Statement of Cash Flows?

A

Cash received: Issuance of Stock- Issuance of Debt

Cash paid: Dividends

859
Q

What is the direct method for a Statement of Cash Flows?

A

Starts with Income from Continuing Operations

Adjusts for changes in accounts like A/R- A/P- Inventory and non-cash revenues- expenses- gains- losses

If used- the Indirect Method must also be shown

860
Q

What is the Indirect Method for a Statement of Cash Flows?

A

Starts with Net Income

Adjusts for changes in accounts like A/R- A/P- Inventory and non-cash revenues- expenses- gains- losses

861
Q

When common stock and preferred stock are issued in a lump sump purchase- how is APIC allocated?

A

APIC for each is allocated by its respective % of the total FMV of the shares x the proceeds.

862
Q

When is APIC recorded on a stock subscription?

A

APIC increases on date subscription is recorded - not on the date paid for or issued

863
Q

To what extent is retained earnings restricted if legally restricted due to Treasury Stock?

A

It will be restricted to the extent of the balance in the Treasury Stock account.

864
Q

When are dividends in arrear recorded for cumulative preferred stock?

A

They are not accrued until declared.

865
Q

When are dividends in arrears included as a disclosure and not an accrual in the financial statements?

A

If a year passes and no Cumulative Preferred Stock is declared- then the dividends in arrears are included as a disclosure - not an accrual in the Financial Statements.

866
Q

What is the gain or loss when a non-monetary asset is distributed to a shareholder?

A

The gain or loss is the difference between the FMV of the asset distributed at the date of distribution and its carry amount on the company’s books

867
Q

What is the effect on retained earnings when a non-monetary asset is distributed to a shareholder?

A

The effect on Retained Earnings is the Carrying Amount of the asset

RE will be debited when the dividend is declared for the FMV of the asset- which is more (or less) than the carrying amount

Gain/Loss recorded when the asset is distributed will offset the original effect of the debt to RE and will be a wash

The net effect of the entry is that RE will decrease by the CV of the asset

868
Q

When is Retained Earnings debited for FMV of Stock for a stock dividend?

A

When Stock Dividend is less than 25% of Common Stock outstanding

869
Q

When is Retained Earnings debited for Par Value for a stock dividend?

A

When Stock Dividend is greater than 25% of common stock outstanding

870
Q

What is the effect of a stock dividend or a stock split on total shareholder equity?

A

Stock dividends and stock splits both have no effect on Total Shareholder Equity

871
Q

What is the affect on APIC from a stock split?

A

Stock splits only affect par value - APIC remains the same.

872
Q

When is compensation expense recorded at the time of grant for a stock option?

A

Compensation expense is recorded at the time of grant if options are exercisable immediately

They are based on past service.

Expense recognized : FV Stock Option x # of Shares

873
Q

What interest rate is used to discount stock options?

A

The risk-free interest rate

874
Q

What date is used as the measurement date for share-based payments classified as liabilities?

A

The settlement date.

875
Q

How are compensation costs for share-based payments classified as liabilities measured?

A

Compensation costs for share-based payments classified as liabilities are measured by the change in the fair value of the instrument for each reporting period

876
Q

What is the net increase to shareholder equity in a reorganization where a company pays cash and issues stock to satisfy unsecured creditors?

A

Net increase to SHE : Gain on settlement of debt + Credit to SHE from stock issuance

877
Q

What is the primary purpose of a quasi-reorganization?

A

To eliminate a deficit balance in RE by restating its assets to Fair Value

It does not directly protect a company from its creditors

878
Q

How is return on Common Stockholder’s Equity calculated?

A

(Net Income - P/S Dividends) / Average Common Stockholders Equity

Note: Average CSE : Common Stock + RE

879
Q

How is book value per share of common stock calculated?

A

Total Common Stock
- Total Preferred Stock
- P/S Dividends in Arrears
- P/S Liquidation Premium
:Total Book Value

Book Value per Share : Total Book Value / Shares outstanding

880
Q

How is the dividend per share payout ratio calculated?

A

Dividends per share / earnings per share

881
Q

How is basic Earnings Per Share (EPS) calculated?

A

(Net Income - Preferred Dividends) / Average C/S Outstanding

Note - If cumulative- subtract the P/S dividend regardless of whether or not they’re declared.

882
Q

For EPS purposes- which date is used for calculation purposes when a stock split or stock dividend has occurred?

A

For EPS purposes- treat C/S stock splits or stock dividends as if they occurred at the beginning of the year- regardless of when actually issued during the year

883
Q

For which areas is EPS required to be shown?

A

EPS is only required to be shown for Income from Continuing Operations and Net Income.

All others (discontinued operations- extraordinary items) can be shown on the Financial Statements or in the notes

884
Q

When do stock options increase share outstanding?

A

Only if they are dilutive.

Their exercise price is LESS than the market value

If not- you ignore them in the calculation

885
Q

How is EPS calculated when convertible bonds are taken into consideration?

A

[Net Income + Bond Interest (Net of Tax)] / (Average Common Stock Shares + Convertible Equivalents)

Bond interest is added back because if converted- there would be no bond interest expense

Contingent Issue Agreements are included in Diluted EPS if contingency is met

886
Q

What is Agency Law?

A

Agency Law deals with someone’s ability to bind you to a contract with a third party

887
Q

What is required for Agency to exist?

A

Both parties must consent to the relationship and intend for an Agency relationship to exist

Agent owes Principal fiduciary duty

Principal doesn’t owe Agent fiduciary duty

A contract is NOT required and an Agency agreement is not based on Contract Law; Exception - If duties cannot be performed within a year; a signed writing is required

888
Q

What is Actual Authority in an agency?

A

Actual Authority is what is expressly granted or is implied by the duties you expect the Agent to perform and is necessary to carry them out

889
Q

What is Implied Authority in an agency?

A

When authority is expressly granted; it is implied that the agent has the authority to carry out the duties

Does not include authority to sell or alter a business

890
Q

What is Apparent (Ostensible) Authority in an agency?

A

Apparent Authority is based on the third party’s perspective - they believe that the Agent has the
authority to enter into a contract based on:

  • Prior dealings with agent
  • Agent’s title leads the third party to believe they can enter into a contract
  • The Principal hires the Agent to carry out duties that normally carry with them the rights to enter into contracts
891
Q

How is an Agency terminated?

A
  • Both Agent and Principal agree to terminate
  • Principal fires Agent
  • Agent fires Principal
  • Agent breaches their contract by doing something like violating their obligation to act as a fiduciary to Principal
892
Q

How do you terminate Apparent Authority?

A
  • Let the public know
  • Let the people or entities that the Agent previously interacted with know
  • In cases of death; or Principal is otherwise not competent to contract; ALL authority is revoked
893
Q

What is an Agency Coupled with an Interest?

A

Agent acquires an ownership interest in the Agency

Can only be terminated early (before the interest expiration date) by the Agent

Unless the Agency has a specific time limit spelled out in a contract; the Agent’s authority is irrevocable
by the Principal

894
Q

When is an employee an Agent; and when does this make the employer liable?

A

Employees are agents while acting within the scope of their duties.

For employees who injure third parties while acting within the scope of their duties; both Employee and Employer are liable

895
Q

When are Agents liable for torts (civil wrongs) they commit?

A

Agents are liable for torts (civil wrongs) committed whether they had authority or not

896
Q

Are Agents who act outside of their authority liable?

A

Agents who act outside of their authority will be liable for the act

Exception - Principal ratifies the contract which relieves Agent of liability

In order to ratify; Principal must know all of the facts and must ratify before third party cancels agreement

If Principal keeps the benefits of the contract; ratification is implied

Contract must be 100% ratified or there is no contract

897
Q

What is an Agent’s liability when acting for an undisclosed principle?

A
  • Agent liable to third party even if acting within authority
  • Third party can sue both Principal and Agent if Principal becomes disclosed
  • Agent can then sue Principal
898
Q

What are the requirements for a Power of Attorney (POA)?

A

Must be in writing

Must be signed by person granting the POA

Ends upon death of Principal

General POA - Agent authorized to handle all affairs

Special POA - Agent authorized to handle only specific affairs

899
Q

What are the basic actions that occur in a bankruptcy?

A

Bankruptcy gives creditors protection from their creditors and stops them from either permanently (Chapter 7) or temporarily (Chapter 11 or 13) collecting a debt. The filing halts collection activity; grants automatic stay (with certain exceptions), and stops creditors from suing debtor.

900
Q

For what debts does bankruptcy NOT stop collections?

A
Student Loans
Income taxes from previous 3 years
Alimony & Child Support
Debts/judgements resulting from drunk driving
Pension obligations
Debts relating to SOX violations
Debts arising from illegal activities
Debts not listed in the bankruptcy filing
901
Q

How does bankruptcy of a corporation affect the owner’s ability to file bankruptcy?

A

It doesn’t; because the corporation is a separate legal entity.

Under bankruptcy; corporations are dissolved

Under bankruptcy; individuals are discharged

902
Q

What key action will cause a bankruptcy discharge to be denied?

A

If a debtor fails to keep good records or falsifies documents; a discharge will be denied

903
Q

What are the basic characteristics of a Chapter 7 bankruptcy (liquidation)?

A

Discharges all non-exempt debt

Can only be filed every 8 years from previous Chapter 7 filing

Voluntary or involuntary filing

Certain businesses are disallowed from Chapter 7 bankruptcies - Railroads; Banks; Insurance companies; Savings & loans (think: 7th inning RBIs)

904
Q

What are the requirements for a voluntary bankruptcy filing under Chapter 7?

A

Must pass means test

Your income must be below the median income for your state (Note - median; i.e. middle; not mean; i.e. average)

Credit card companies made it harder for people to declare Chapter 7 when they lobbied Congress in 2005

905
Q

What are the requirements for an involuntary bankruptcy filing under Chapter 7?

A

In some cases; your creditors can force you into Chapter 7 or Chapter 11 BK

Creditors must be able to prove that they are not being paid on time (i.e. debtor is insolvent) or that within the past 120 days the debtor assigned a custodian of the secured property

If 12+ unsecured creditors - at least 3 must file; claims must be in excess of $15325

If less than 12 unsecured creditors - only 1 must file; claim(s) must be in excess of $15325

Upon filing; a judge will declare an order for relief unless the debtor protests

906
Q

What entities are disallowed from involuntary Chapter 7 bankruptcy filings?

A

Charities

Farms

907
Q

How can a debtor reclaim possession of their property from the interim bankruptcy under Chapter 7?

A

If the debtor pays the court-assigned bond to keep a property in an involuntary BK; they can
reclaim possession of their property from the interim BK trustee

908
Q

What are the basic characteristics of a Chapter 11 bankruptcy (business repayment) filing?

A

Allows a business a reprieve from creditors
Creates a payment plan for the debt
Business remains in operation
At least 2/3 of each debt class of creditors must consent to reorganization
Ch. 11 Involuntary petitions are allowed

909
Q

What are the basic characteristics of a Chapter 13 bankruptcy (personal repayment) filing?

A

Similar to Chapter 11; but for individuals

Gives individuals a reprieve from creditors

Creates a payment plan for the debt

Ch. 13 Involuntary petitions are not allowed

910
Q

What are the duties and abilities of a bankruptcy trustee?

A

Represents the bankruptcy estate

Can sue or be sued

Oversees bankruptcy and watches for preferential creditor payments

Oversees priority transfer of assets to creditors

911
Q

How and when is a bankruptcy trustee appointed?

A

Optional - Creditors decide

Can be elected by creditors or can be appointed by the court

912
Q

What actions can a bankruptcy trustee take with respect to preferential creditor payments in a bankruptcy?

A

Trustee can void payments on antecedent (past) debts that occur within 90 days of a BK filing

A Trustee cannot void a payment made to a creditor that is an even swap (contemporaneous exchange) and for new value

A voidable preference must be on an old debt where the debtor is basically picking and choosing which creditors they send money to (AKA a voidable preference)

913
Q

When can preferential transfers be voided by a bankruptcy (BK) trustee?

A

Made within One Year of BK to insider - Corporate officers/directors; Partners; Relatives

Made within 3 Months of BK non-insider

Creditor receives larger payment than BK liquidation would have granted

914
Q

What is the treatment of a secured creditor in a bankruptcy?

A

Superior to claims of other types of creditors

Can take either collateral or cash proceeds from the sale of an asset

If collateral doesn’t satisfy amount owed; Secured Creditors become a general creditor for the difference.

915
Q

What is the order of priority given to unsecured creditors in a bankruptcy?

A
  1. BK Trustee and Attorney fees get paid before all other unsecured credit cards
  2. Salaries required to continue business once BK proceedings begin
  3. Any claims filed resulting from business operations that occur after involuntary BK is filed
  4. Wages owed to employees
  5. Retirement contributions within last 6 months
  6. Consumer deposits for undelivered goods
  7. Child Support & Alimony
  8. Taxes
  9. Other general unsecured claims
916
Q

What are key aspects of a bankruptcy involving a landlord or leases under Chapter 7?

A

The bankruptcy trustee can act in the best interest of the creditors and assign the leases under contract to the creditors

The trustee has 60 days to assume leases on equipment after bankruptcy is granted or the leases will be rejected

917
Q

What is the bankruptcy estate?

A

The pool of assets available to creditors until liquidation

918
Q

What assets are exempt from creditors in a bankruptcy estate?

A

Social security

Disability payments

Unemployment; Child Support; Alimony; Wages; Pensions; Annuities to the extent that they provide reasonable support for debtor and dependents

919
Q

How long after a Chapter 7 bankruptcy filing can creditors claim inheritance or insurance payments for repayment?

A

Inheritance/Insurance payments received within 180 days of filing for a Chapter 7 bankruptcy become part of the BK Estate

920
Q

What is a garnishment with respect to a bankruptcy?

A

Court allows a creditor to garnish or take a portion of the debtor’s paycheck

921
Q

What is a mechanics lien?

A

Lien on real property to secure payment for a repair/improvement done to the house

A contractor builds an addition to your house and you won’t pay. They can’t repo your house; so they get a Mechanics Lien that sticks until you sell your house and they get paid

922
Q

What is an artisan’s lien?

A

Applies to personal property like a car

If the dealership does $500 in repairs to your car; you don’t get the car back until you pay

923
Q

What is a surety (co-signing)?

A

A third party agrees to be liable for a loan

Example: A parent co-signs on their child’s car loan

924
Q

How is a surety liable in a transaction?

A

A surety is primarily liable

Surety can be released from liability if the creditor behaves in a way that increases the risk that they
initially agreed to

Surety can be released from liability if the debtor changes the loan agreement in a way that materially
increases the surety’s risk

925
Q

What is a cosurety; and how are they liable in a transaction?

A

Two sureties are guaranteeing the same debt

Proportionately liable - If one cosurety is released from their obligation; then the remaining cosureties
have their proportionate share reduced by the released party’s percentage

If one surety pays more than their proportionate share of the risk; then the other sureties must compensate them for the difference; which is called Right of Contribution

926
Q

What is a guarantor?

A

Similar to surety; but a guarantor is secondarily liable

927
Q

What are the basic rights of a debtor under the Fair Debt Collection Practices Act?

A

Basically - your creditors have the right to collect from you; but not abuse you or embarrass you

The can’t contact you once you’re represented by an attorney

They can call other people to find out where you are; but they cannot identify themselves as collectors

They must stop calling you at work if you send them a certified letter that says my employer doesn’t allow me to take calls at work.

They must call you only at reasonable hours of the day - according to your time zone; not theirs

928
Q

What are the key elements of a valid Partnership?

A

Must have two or more partners. Must intend to engage in business for profit. Life of partnership is of limited duration in most cases. Agency/fiduciary relationship is created. Partnership interest is always considered personal property.

929
Q

Can corporations and other partnerships become partners in a partnership?

A

Yes; corporations and other partnerships can become partners of a partnership

930
Q

Name the Basics of Partnership Formation - Form of agreement and intent

A

Agreement can be very informal - either ORAL; IMPLIED or WRITTEN

Intent is to make a profit

931
Q

When must a partnership agreement be in writing?

A

Must be WRITTEN if partnership activity falls within Statute of Frauds:

A. Can’t be completed in 1 year

B. Even if partners reside in different states; not necessary unless within Statute of Frauds

C. Neither dollar amount of transactions nor purchasing of real estate has bearing on whether partnership agreement must be in writing

932
Q

How are profits shared in a partnership?

A

Profit sharing is equal by default

A. Unless partnership agreement says otherwise

B. Unless specified; sharing of losses follows same pattern as sharing of profits

933
Q

What is the Liability of General Partners in a partnership?

A

Joint Liability - Partners are collectively liable for debts/torts

Several Liability - Partners are individually liable for debts/torts

934
Q

Which assets may creditors of a partnership go after; and in which order?

A

Creditors must go after partnership assets first before suing partners individually

935
Q

What are the rights of a General Partner in a partnership?

A

General Partners have joint control over the management of the partnership and its affairs

Unanimous vote needed to change the structure of the partnership

Each partner has full right to inspect partnership accounting and business

Partner has the authority to assign their interest to another partner

936
Q

What does and does NOT happen when a General Partner assigns their partnership interest to someone else?

A
  1. Other party gets that partner’s share of the profits and/or capital contribution.
  2. Does NOT give assignee authority to vote on partnership business
  3. Assignee does NOT have right to inspect partnership books
  4. Assignor still maintains liability
  5. Partner does NOT have the right to assign their interest in partnership property or allow partner’s creditors to attach a lien.
937
Q

What is the actual authority of a partner in a partnership?

A

Has authority to bind the partners to a contract.

938
Q

What is the APPARENT authority of a partner in a partnership?

A

A third party reasonably believes partner has authority to bind partnership to contract

Cannot use apparent authority to add a new partner

Cannot use apparent authority to sell or bind partnership assets

939
Q

With respect to liability on subsequent debts; what happens when a partner withdraws from a partnership?

A

Partner not liable assuming notice given.

Notice must be given to nullify apparent authority

People who had knowledge of their role must be personally notified

Public must be notified

940
Q

With respect to PRECEDING debts; what is the liability of a partner in a partnership?

A

Old partners: Jointly and severally liable unless creditors grant novation

New partners: Only capital account at risk on preceding debts. For subsequent debts; they are joint and severally liable.

941
Q

What happens upon the death of a partner in a partnership?

A

Partner’s estate gets share of partnership profits and capital account

Estate does NOT get any partnership assets

Remainder of partners own partnership assets

Heirs of decedent are not added as partners unless remaining partners unanimously agree

942
Q

What happens during the winding up of a partnership and in what order?

A
  1. Creditors get paid; Partners can also be creditors
  2. Distributions in arrears get paid
  3. Partners get return of Capital accounts
  4. Any remaining distributions

Note: NO documents need to be filed with state to dissolve general partnership.

943
Q

What are the requirements to form a Limited Partnership?

A

Governed by state L.P. laws

Must file L.P. certificate with Sec. of State

Only General Partners must be listed

Future additions or subtractions of G.P. require certificate to be updated with state

944
Q

How are profits and losses split in a Limited Partnership?

A

Unlike G.P.; L.P. profits/losses are split according to capital contributions by default

945
Q

True or False: In a Limited Partnership; a General Partner can also be a Limited Partner at
the same time.

A

True.

A Limited Partner; however; cannot also be a General Partner and maintain limited liability.

946
Q

Do limited partners have a fiduciary responsibility to a Limited Partnership?

A

No. Limited Partners are do not have a fiduciary responsibility to Limited Partnership

947
Q

What authority does a limited partner have under a Limited Partnership?

A
  1. Right to inspect records of the business.
  2. Can still vote on partnership business without losing limited liability
  3. Can consult and advise partnership without losing limited liability (assuming they don’t actually make the decisions)
948
Q

What limitations does a limited partner have in a Limited Partnership?

A
  1. They have no authority as an agent to bind the partnership
  2. They can’t participate in management decisions and maintain limited liability.
949
Q

What is the liability of a limited partner in a Limited Partnership?

A

Limited partners are liable to the extent of their capital contributions only

Exception - A Limited Partner (who cannot participate in management decisions) becomes involved with management decisions

Becomes liable to third parties IF they knew of their involvement

950
Q

When does the dissolution of a Limited Partnership occur?

A

Automatically happens

  1. Once final General Partner leaves
  2. Time specified in certificate lapses
  3. Event specified in certificate happens
  4. Unanimous consent by partners
  5. Illegal activity
951
Q

What is required to form a Limited Liability Partnership (LLP)?

A
  1. Majority vote required to form LLP
  2. Articles of LLP filed with Secretary of State
  3. Governed by laws of that State
  4. Limited Liability Partnership must be in name
  5. No General Partners - each LLP partner has limited liability - Exception: Negligence of partner or those under partner’s supervision
952
Q

What are the key aspects of a Limited Liability Company (LLC)?

A

Members can participate in management and retain limited liability

Members don’t own any interest in LLC property

Members can assign interest; but not transfer it

Members divide profits equally unless otherwise stated

953
Q

What are the key aspects of Joint Ventures (JV)?

A

Similar to a General Partnership; except generally; a JV is for a single business activity
Example: two companies promote a concert

Ability to bind other JV partners is limited

JV partners still have a fiduciary responsibility to JV

No state filings or paperwork necessary

954
Q

What are the key aspects of a corporation?

A

Shareholders have limited liability to the extent of their capital contribution

C Corporations have a perpetual life and continue even after shareholder death

Corporations are a separate legal entity from their owners and can own property; sue; be sued

Corporations must file Articles of Incorporation in state of governance

955
Q

What are some of the advantages of a corporation?

A

Ability to raise capital

Limited liability - unless actions occur that pierce the veil

Ease of ownership transfer

956
Q

What actions can pierce the veil of a corporation?

A

Commingling of assets

Fraud

Under-capitalization

957
Q

How is a corporation governed?

A

Board adopts Corporate Bylaws to govern company business

958
Q

What items are required in a corporations Articles of Incorporation?

A

Name; purpose; powers of Corporation

Name of registered agent & incorporators

Stock share classes authorized; par values

Name of corporate officers NOT required

959
Q

What is the biggest disadvantage of a corporation?

A

Double taxation

960
Q

How are corporations formed by promoters?

A

Promoter issues prospectus; arranges capital; and is a fiduciary of the corporation.

A promoter may profit from work performed if the corporation is aware of it.

961
Q

When is a corporation liable for pre-incorporation actions taken by a Promoter?

A

Promoter personally liable unless third party agrees to a novation and releases Promoter
from liability; UNLESS the corporation adopts.

962
Q

In how many states must a corporation incorporate?

A

Corporations are only incorporated in one state

Become adomestic corp. in that state

Become aforeign corp. in any other state they do business in

963
Q

Describe Common Stock dividends and their rights/liabilities in relation to shareholders/corporations.

A

Dividends are NOT a shareholder right

Once declared; dividends become a liability to corporation

964
Q

What are key aspects related to the holding of Preferred Stock?

A

No voting rights

Get first rights to dividends and liquidation

Cumulative Preferred Stock dividends that go undeclared accumulate and Corporation must pay it before issuing dividends to Common Stockholders

Participating Preferred Stock gives shareholder right to dividends in addition to what they get as Preferred Stockholders

965
Q

What aspects are related to all classes of corporate stock?

A

Valid consideration must be given for shares

Cash; property; or services performed

No promises to pay or perform services

966
Q

What are the key aspects of Treasury Stock?

A

No Gain/Loss recognized on Treasury stock

Have no voting rights

Can be re-purchased below par

Cannot produce dividends

967
Q

What is a stock subscription and what is required for it to be valid?

A

An offer to buy shares of stock

Must be accepted by corporation to be valid

Offer cannot be revoked for 6 months

Subscriber becomes liable once accepted

968
Q

When is a corporation liable for torts by employees?

A

If committed within the normal scope of the employee’s job

Even if they were disobeying orders

Per respondeat superior

969
Q

What are the key aspects of a corporate officer?

A

Appointed by the Board of Directors

Act as Agents

Owe a fiduciary duty to the corporation

Can have legal fees paid by corporation for defense in lawsuit brought on them from carrying out their normal duties (exception- suit brought against officers by shareholders)

970
Q

What are the key aspects of a corporation’s board of directors (BOD)?

A

Elected by shareholders

Owe fiduciary duty to corporation

Must act in good faith to avoid being liable for bad judgment

Good faith is NOT a defense for negligence

971
Q

What is Ultra Vires?

A

Corporation management acting beyond what the Articles of Incorporation allow

Shareholders can sue for Ultra Vires

972
Q

When is inspecting Board minutes the right of a shareholder?

A

Shareholders can inspect Board minutes and records only if request is in good faith

973
Q

Who must approve mergers and consolidations?

A

Boards must approve

Shareholders must approve by Majority

Disapproving shareholders can get an appraisal and get their stock back at current market price

Merger does NOT need creditor approval

974
Q

What characterizes a Professional Corporation?

A

Shares owned only by licensed professionals (CPAs; attorneys; etc.)

Limited Liability for debts

Personal Liability for negligence

975
Q

Who can and cannot own an S-Corporation?

A

CAN be owned by Estates; Trusts; and Individuals

CANNOT be owned by a C-Corporation

976
Q

What is the primary advantage of an S-Corporation?

A

Avoidance of Double Taxation

977
Q

What are the disadvantages of an S-Corporation?

A

No more than 100 shareholders allowed

One class of stock allowed

Shareholders must be US Citizens/Residents

978
Q

What is a promissory note?

A

A promise to pay a specific amount. There are two parties involved - maker and a payee. It can reference other transactions without harming the instruments negotiability. Example: Bank Certificate of Deposit (CD)

979
Q

What is a draft?

A

A commercial paper involving three parties- a drawer; a payee and a drawee

A drawer orders a sum to be paid to a payee by the drawee

May be payable on demand or in the future

980
Q

What is a check?

A

A check is a type of draft that is payable ON DEMAND; payable to order of drawer or bearer

Drawer - person writing the check

Payee - person being paid

Drawee - the bank

981
Q

What is the difference between a post-dated check and a negotiable time draft?

A

A check is payable on demand; even if post-dated.

A negotiable time draft is not payable until the date designated for payment.

982
Q

What is a trade acceptance?

A

Seller extends credit to Buyer

Buyer agrees to pay Seller - Buyer has primary liability

Seller is both Drawer and Payee - Seller has Secondary Liability

983
Q

What is the purpose of the negotiation of commercial paper?

A

Transfers ownership to another party

984
Q

What is required to maintain the negotiability of a commercial paper?

A

Must be in writing

Signed by drawer/maker

Be without conditions for payment (other than limitations on payment sources)

Amount of money must be stated

Payable to order or bearer

985
Q

What characteristics will cancel the negotiability of a commercial paper?

A

An additional promise is stated in addition to the promise to pay (like the option to purchase Real Estate)

The promise to pay occurs after some action by another party or an event; it cancels negotiability

Cannot allow for an alternative such as payment or some other action by the maker

Note: a stated amount of payment plus a stated % of interest is OK

986
Q

What is required to negotiate Order Paper?

A

Must have delivery and endorsement

If paper is exchanged for value; transferor must give an UNQUALIFIED endorsement

987
Q

What are the major types of endorsements on commercial paper?

A

Blank - Doesnt name a new payee; transforms into a bearer paper

Special - Names a new payee; transforms into an order paper

Restrictive - Adds restrictions; doesnt stop further negotiation

Qualified - Payment not guaranteed; without recourse added to endorsement

988
Q

If endorsed; within what amount of time must a check be presented for payment in order to hold the ENDORSER liable?

A

Within 7 days

989
Q

On a commercial paper; which value will supersede - words or numerical dollar amount?

A

Written amount supersedes the numerical dollar amount.

For example; if the words say One hundred dollars and the numerical amount states $1000.00; the value of the paper will be $100.00.

990
Q

Define primary liability with respect to a contract.

A

First in line to pay on the note/draft

Maker of a Promissory Note has primary liability and must pay according to terms of the note

With a Check; no party has Primary Liability

Exception: Drawee (your bank) is primarily liable to pay if they certify - i.e. promise to
pay

991
Q

Define secondary liability with respect to contract liability

A

Drawers are Secondarily Liable if Drawee fails to pay a Draft

Endorsers (the payee) are secondarily liable

Holder in due course can hold Endorser liable

Exception: Endorsed Without Recourse

992
Q

Define contract liability.

A

Guarantees payment of a liability

993
Q

When does warranty liability occur?

A

Occurs when you negotiate commercial paper

By signing; you warrant to all future parties

By not signing; you warrant to current party only

994
Q

What five warranties occur with every commercial paper transfer?

A

Warranty of Title

No defense will stand against it

No material alteration

No knowledge of bankruptcy proceedings

All signatures are legitimate

995
Q

What are the requirements for a holder to be a holder in due course?

A

Holding a negotiable instrument

Taking instrument in Good Faith - Even if you buy a stolen note and you dont know that its stolen; youre still an HDC

Having no knowledge of defenses again instrument; i.e. problems with the instrument

Giving a present value for the instrument (a future value doesnt count)

996
Q

What are the personal defenses against a holder in due course (HDC) which will LOSE?

A

An HDC takes an instrument free of Personal Defenses (LOSE vs. HDC)

Lack of consideration/value given
Breach of contract/warranty
Duplicate payments
Fraud (in the inducement only)
Voidable contracts

997
Q

What are the REAL defenses against a holder in due course (HDC); which will WIN?

A

A holder in due course takes an instrument subject to Real Defenses (WIN vs. HDC)

Material alterations to the instrument
Forgery
Bankruptcy
Maker not competent to Contract
Fraud in the execution

998
Q

What must a contract contain?

A

Offer, Acceptance, Consideration, Proper form (oral or written), Legal subject matter, 2 Competent parties

999
Q

What forms may acceptance of a contract take?

A

Can be written or oral

Must be in the form/method required by offeror

Must be mirror image - i.e. no changes in terms

1000
Q

Who can accept an offer?

A

Must be accepted by intended party (offeree)

Acceptance can only be made by a party who knows an offer has been made and has all of the facts - AKA a meeting of the minds

They must intend to accept

1001
Q

What happens if an offeree accepts a contract but puts added stipulations?

A

It is not acceptance; but instead becomes a counter-offer and the original offeror is now the offeree

1002
Q

When is an offeror bound by a contract?

A

When they RECEIVE the acceptance.

If the offeree rejects; then accepts - whatever gets to the offeror first is what is binding.

1003
Q

What will void an offer?

A

If offeror dies or becomes insane before acceptance; offer is void.

Contract is binding if acceptance occurs before death/insanity.

1004
Q

What actions or circumstances will revoke a contract?

A

Offeror revokes and offeree receives revocation

Offeree finds out prior to acceptance that offeror has sold the item

In the case of an Option; offeror cannot revoke until the time of the option has elapsed

Initial rejection by offeree doesn’t void the option.

1005
Q

What is an Option?

A

Some amount of consideration (like money) is put forth by offeror to keep the offer open for a
stated period of time

1006
Q

What is a Requirements Contract? How are they limited?

A

These are contracts where someone becomes the exclusive provider of something in exchange for
consideration

Companies can’t get locked in to one and then have market conditions force them to sell something at
what has become an unreasonable price

1007
Q

What is promissory estoppel?

A

Promises to donate are legally enforceable

Basically; you can’t tell a charity; Hey; if you buy this
$100;000 piece of land; I’ll pay for the building that
will go on it; and then renege on your promise

1008
Q

What can make a contract VOID?

A

Fraud in the execution

Formed under extreme duress - extreme

Illegal

1009
Q

What can make a contract VOIDABLE?

A

Fraud in the inducement

Party not competent to contract

Formed under SIMPLE duress

Undue influence

1010
Q

What is the result of a clerical error in a contract?

A

The contract is unenforceable.

Example: Person signs a contract to pay $500.00 to have
their lawn re-seeded but due to clerical error; it actually reads $5000.00

1011
Q

Contracts under the Statute of Frauds must be in what form to be valid?

A

They must be in writing.

1012
Q

What makes a contract subject to the Statute of Frauds?

A

o Cannot be completed within one year
o Involves the purchase of real estate
o $500+ Sale of Goods
o Co-signing and guaranteeing the debt of another

1013
Q

What is the parol evidence rule?

A

Prevents one party to a written contract from coming in after the fact and claiming that a certain
conversation took place that conflicts with what is agreed upon in the written contract

It also prevents using an oral argument to read into the meaning of what is written on paper

If it’s on paper; it trumps what was agreed-upon orally prior to the written contract

Note: does not negate oral agreements made AFTER the contract or disallow oral words from clarifying ambiguous contract language.

1014
Q

What are the requirements for the assignment of a contract?

A

Contracts are assignable to a third party beneficiary; but must be done so in good faith

Obligations may be assignable- Assignor is still liable

Assignor may be released from liability if other party grants a novation

1015
Q

When can contracts be discharged by law?

A

Party under contract is bankrupt

Party under contract dies or is incapacitated

Party cannot physically complete the contract (i.e. They are in prison so can’t finish building your house)

1016
Q

What is considered the biggest change to financial regulation since the Great Depression of the 1930s?

A

The Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform Act of 2010

1017
Q

What is the goal of the Volcker Rule?

A

Banking Institutions maintain healthy capitalization ratios

1018
Q

How does the Volcker Rule limit banking institutions?

A

Limits banking institutions from owning more than 3% of a hedge fund’s total ownership interest

Limits banking institutions from owning interests in hedge funds that exceed 3% of their Tier 1 Capital (Common Stock + Retained Earnings + non-redeemable; non-cumulative Preferred Stock)

1019
Q

What does the Volcker Rule require banking institutions to disclose?

A

Relationships with hedge funds must be fully disclosed to regulators

1020
Q

Describe the Federal Unemployment Tax Act

A

An employer-paid tax. Must file return and pay even if only one employee works there. Deductible to company - Not deductible by the employee. Allows employers to credit the FUTA liability by the amount of State Unemployment Tax (SUTA) they pay.

1021
Q

What are the major aspects of FICA and Social Security taxes?

A

Paid by Employer AND Employee - Employer withholds from employee’s paycheck and must pay tax matching employee’s withholding

If employer under-withholds; they are required to make up the difference

Self-employed individuals must pay both the employer and the employee share; which is Self Employment Tax

People drawing Social Security may have their benefits reduced if they go back to work and earn an income

1022
Q

When is an employee covered by Workman’s Compensation?

A

Employees injured on the job get protection; even if they messed up and caused the injury themselves

Exception: If the employee intentionally harmed themselves; there is no Workman’s Compensation

1023
Q

What age group is protected under Age Discrimination Laws?

A

They protect people ages 40 and above at companies where at least 20 people are employed

1024
Q

What are the tenets of the Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHA)?

A

Employers should promote a safe workplace and environment for their employees to work in

Injury records must be kept
Penalties can be both
o Civil - $1;000 fine per day
o Criminal - Could include imprisonment

Employer can require a search warrant for OSHA to investigate their facilities

1025
Q

What types of discrimination are prohibited for employers based on civil rights laws?

A

Sex

Race

Religion

National Origin

1026
Q

What are the powers granted under the Environmental Protection Act?

A

EPA has the power to assess civil penalties for violating environmental laws like the Clean Air Act
The EPA can sue violators
Citizens can sue violators
States can sue violators
Citizens can even sue the EPA to force enforcement
For hazardous waste sites: owners; operators; transporters; and lenders associated with the site can
be held liable

1027
Q

What are the key points of the 1933 Securities Act?

A

Governs Initial Public Offerings (not subsequent sales). Covers registration statements and accompanying information filed with SEC. Information must include audited financial statements & a prospectus. Note: Even if a company is exempt from registering under the 1934 Act; they still must adhere to the anti-fraud provisions of the Act

1028
Q

What entities are exempt from filing registration statements under the 1933 Securities Act?

A

Banks; Commercial Paper; Farmers; Co-ops; Charities; Governments

Also exempt: Securities sold in ONE state; where investors are residents; 80% of business done in one state; and resales can’t occur within 9 months to interstate parties.

1029
Q

What are the key points of the 1933 Securities Act; Regulation A?

A

Issuer can issue $50M of securities per year and be exempt if they file a notice with the SEC

Non-issuers (AKA a private individual) can sell $1.5M per year and be exempt

1030
Q

Under the 1933 Securities Act; Regulation D; what are Rules 504; 505 and 506?

A

Rule 504- Max Amount per year: $1M; Max Investors: Unlimited

Rule 505 - Max Amount per year: $5M; Max Investors: 35 Unaccredited or Unlimited Accredited

Rule 506 - Max Amount per year: Unlimited; Same as 505; but Unaccredited investors must be sophisticated

1031
Q

What are the registration form options under the 1933 Securities Act?

A

S-1 - Long Form or

S-2 and S-3 - Less Detailed and preferred by issuers

1032
Q

Name the securities registered under the Securities Act of 1933.

A
Stocks
Stock Options
Stock Warrants
Limited Partnership Interests - General Partnerships not allowed
Bonds
1033
Q

Who can sue under the Securities Act of 1933?

A

Purchasers of securities only

1034
Q

Name the Requirements for Accountant to be liable under the Securities Act of 1933.

A

Damages & Material Misstatements Only

o Reliance on financial statements are not a requirement unless purchased more than a year after the security is registered

Proving negligence is not a requirement

1035
Q

Name the Defenses of an Accountant under the Securities Act of 1933.

A

Accountant used Due Diligence

Accountant followed GAAP

Damages weren’t caused by accountant’s work

Plaintiff knew of the material misstatements

1036
Q

What does the Securities Act of 1934 govern?

A

The trading/selling of securities after the IPO

1037
Q

What reports must be filed under the Securities Act of 1934?

A

Form 10-K Annual Report - Must be audited

Form 10-Q Quarterly Report - Must be reviewed; but not audited

Form 8-K - A notice of a material event; Must be filed within 4 days of event

1038
Q

Who can sue under the Securities Act of 1934?

A

Purchases and Sellers of Securities

1039
Q

Name the Requirements for an Accountant to be liable for fraud under the Securities Act of 1934.

A

Damages

Material Misstatements

Reliance on financial statements

Scienter or reckless disregard for the truth

1040
Q

What procedures must an Accountant have in place under the Securities Act of 1934?

A

Accountant must have procedures in place to:
Determine if Going Concern is an issue
Determine if any material related party transactions occurred

Determine if material illegal acts occurred

1041
Q

Insider trading rules under the Securities Act of 1934 apply to which individuals?

A

Officers; Directors and 10% Owners

1042
Q

What are the Proxy Solicitation Requirements under the Securities Act of 1934?

A

Proxy must give shareholders audited balance sheets from 2 most recent years

o Requirement holds true even if one class of stock

1043
Q

What is the revenue limit for an Emerging Growth Company IPO?

A

$1 Billion

1044
Q

For an Emerging Growth Company IPO, how many years of audited financial statements are required?

A

2 years

1045
Q

How did Reg D, Rule 506 change under the JOBS Act?

A

General Solicitation and Advertising now allowed

1046
Q

Under the JOBS Act, what is the capital ceiling under Regulation A?

A

Reg. A Capital ceiling raised from $5M to $50M

1047
Q

Under the JOBS Act Title V - Private Company Flexibility and Growth, what is the shareholder limit if there are less than 500 non-accredited shareholders?

A

2,000

1048
Q

What does Real Property include?

A

Land, Buildings fixed to the land, and Property under/above the land.

1049
Q

What are the characteristics of a deed?

A
Must be in writing
Signed
Description of Property
Delivered
Recorded
1050
Q

What are the characteristics of a Mortgage?

A

Must be in writing
Signed
Description of property
Delivered

1051
Q

What are the characteristics of a lease?

A

No writing required if < 1 year

Warranty of habitability is implied

Death does not terminate a lease

Sale of property does not terminate a lease

1052
Q

What is personal property?

A

Tangible property; such as cars; equipment; etc.

Intangible property such as patents; trademarks; copyrights; etc.

1053
Q

What are the three requirements for a gift?

A

Intent for it to be a gift

Delivery of the gift

Acceptance of the gift

1054
Q

What are the rights of found property?

A

Lost property - Finder’s rights to property are less than Owner’s

Abandoned property - Finder’s rights to property are greater than Owner’s

1055
Q

What is tenancy in common?

A

Undivided interest in a portion of the property

Upon death; property goes to decedent’s heirs

1056
Q

What is joint tenancy?

A

Undivided interest in entire property

Upon death; property goes to other joint tenants

1057
Q

What sales are covered under the Uniform Commercial Code (UCC)?

A

Only sales of goods are covered under the UCC.

1058
Q

What elements are needed for a sale covered under the Uniform Commercial Code (UCC)?

A

Offer - You offer to sell something at a price

Acceptance - the other party accepts

Consideration - Something of value has been exchanged for the goods

Note: The UCC only covers sales of goods.

1059
Q

What are the elements of a Firm Offer?

A

You offer to sell something at a price and keep that offer open for a set period of time

3 months max

Only merchants can make firm offers

Must be in writing and signed

1060
Q

Under what situations are sales of goods covered by the Statute of Frauds? What are the exceptions?

A

If value of goods sold is > $500; sales contract must be in writing

Exceptions: Merchants can enter into oral contracts for > $500 items.

Oral contracts are binding for special or uniquely-made items (i.e. custom cabinets or custom furniture that could not be sold if buyer reneged)

1061
Q

When does title and risk of loss transfer on a sale of goods?

A

If terms are:

FOB shipping point: Title transfers at point of shipment (i.e. when loaded on truck)

FOB destination: Title and risk transfers once item is delivered

1062
Q

What is a Warranty of Title?

A

The seller has the right to sell the good and no one else can stake claim to that good

1063
Q

What is Warranty of Merchantability?

A

This good will do its intended purpose

Can be disclaimed

1064
Q

What is Warranty of Fitness?

A

This good is the right choice for you based on the seller’s expert opinion

Can be disclaimed

1065
Q

What is strict liability with respect to buyer protection?

A

Manufacturers of goods cannot disclaim that their products will be safe

Can be liable if negligent

1066
Q

What are non-conforming goods with respect to buyer protection?

A

Buyer can reject some or all of the shipment if the seller didn’t perform as agreed and ship what was expected

Must give notice

Must give seller a chance to remedy the situation

1067
Q

What is the statute of limitations with respect to buyer protection?

A

Buyer must sue to recover damages within 4 years.

1068
Q

When does a security interest attach; or become legally enforceable?

A

Secured interest must be supported by consideration given. Debtor must actually own the rights to the collateral or have possession. Secured interest much be recorded

1069
Q

What are the characteristics of perfection of interest in a secured transaction?

A

Gets higher priority over others claiming rights to collateral after the perfection takes place

Attachment must take place BEFORE perfection

1070
Q

How does perfection occur in a secured transaction?

A

By filing a financing statement

By possessing the collateral

1071
Q

When does automatic perfection occur in a secured transaction?

A

Store sells a consumer good on credit - Store retains security interest

A bank finances the purchase of a consumer good - Bank retains security interest

1072
Q

What are the priority rules for payment in a secured transaction?

A

If two parties are perfected; then the first one to file wins

If neither party is perfected; then the first one to attach wins

1073
Q

What are the advantages of a creditor holding a lien in a secured transaction?

A

Creditor holds priority over claims to collateral vs. unperfected security interests

Beats perfected security interests filed after lien attachment

Exceptions: Purchase money security interest; which has a 10 day grace period to be filed

Buyers purchasing in the ordinary course of business are immune from security interests held by merchants

1074
Q

How is shareholder basis calculated for a new interest in a Corporation?

A

Adjusted basis of property transferred + Gain recognized (if less than 80% ownership) - Boot received = Shareholder basis. If shareholders have 80% control after a property transfer, no taxable event occurs. If liabilities exceed basis on contributed property to a Corporation, a gain is recognized.

1075
Q

How is shareholder basis calculated for a TRANSFEROR of an interest in a Corporation?

A

Transferor’s basis
+ Gain recognized by shareholder
= Basis

OR

FMV of Corporate Interest
- Adjusted basis of property
= Gain

1076
Q

What basis do shareholders and Corporations use for property?

A

They both use ADJUSTED BASIS, NOT FMV of property.

1077
Q

Describe how loss is taken on Section 1244 small business Corporation stock?

A

A loss on worthless stock is an ordinary loss.

1078
Q

What are the requirements for taking an ordinary loss on Section 1244 small business Corporation stock?

A

Taxpayer must be original stock owner, and either an individual or partnership

$50k (single) or $100k (MFJ) limit - remainder is a capital loss

Must have been issued in exchange for money or property (not exchanged for services)

Shareholder equity must not be in excess of $1 million

Both common and preferred stock is allowed

1079
Q

What are the basic rules for filing a form 1120?

A

Return is due regardless of income level

Return is due 3/15 if on a calendar year basis, or 2 1/2 months after end of fiscal year

An automatic six-month extension is available

1080
Q

When are Corporate federal tax estimated payments required, and how are they calculated?

A

Required if more than $500 in tax liability expected, or

100% current year liability

100% previous year liability

Note: If Corporation had more than $1 Million in revenue the previous year, the first estimated payment must be based on the previous year and the remainder based on the current year.

1081
Q

Describe the AMT calculation for C-Corporations

A
Taxable Income
\+Tax Preference Items
\+/- Adjustments
= Pre-ACE
\+/- ACE Adjustments
= AMTI
- 40,000 Exemption
= Tax Base
x 20%
= Tentative Minimum Tax
- Regular Tax Liability
= AMT
1082
Q

What are the pre-ACE adjustments for C-Corporation tax AMT calculations?

A

Real Estate purchased between 1986 and 1999 using Straight Line Depreciation must depreciate over a useful life of 40 years

Personal Property - use 150% MACRS, not 200%

Construction must use % completion method

1083
Q

What are the ACE adjustments in the C-Corporation AMT tax calculation?

A

Municipal Bond Interest
Life Insurance Proceeds
70% Dividends Received Deduction
Organizational Expenditures must be capitalized, not amortized

Note: AMT paid gets carried forward indefinitely, but never carried back

1084
Q

When are C-Corporations exempt from AMT?

A

In year one

In year two, if year one gross receipts were less than $5 Million

In year three, if the average gross receipts for years 1 and 2 were less than $7.5 Million

In year four and beyond, if the average from the previous 3 years is less than $7.5 Million

1085
Q

How are gains and losses handled with respect to a Corporation’s transactions involving its own stock?

A

Corporations have no gain/(loss) from transactions involving their own stock, including Treasury Stock.

If Corporation gets property in exchange for stock, there is no gain/(loss) on the transaction.

1086
Q

How are Corporate organization costs handled?

A

Amortization of costs begin the month the Corporation commences business activity

If the Corporation doesn’t amortize organization costs in year one, they can never be amortized

Costs associated with offerings are neither deductible nor amortized

1087
Q

How are a C-Corporation’s deductible charitable contributions calculated?

A

Sales -COGS= Gross Profit
Gross Profit + Rent, Royalties, Gross Dividends, Capital Gains
=Total Income
Total Income - Deductions (No charitable contributions, Dividends
Received Deductions (DRD), or NOL Carrybacks allowed)
- NOL Carryforwards
=Taxable Income before charitable contributions, DRD, NOL Carrybacks
x 10%
=Deductible Charitable Contributions

1088
Q

How are excess charitable contributions treated in a C-Corporations?

A

Excess charitable contributions get carried forward 5 consecutive years (No Carryback)

1089
Q

When can a board of directors authorize charitable contributions for a tax year?

A

The Board of Directors can authorized charitable contributions up to 3/15 and have them count in the previous tax year

1090
Q

How is the dividends received deduction (DRD) calculated, and what are the limitations?

A

80% Interest = 100% DRD

20-79% = 80% DRD

less than 20% = 70% DRD

Only allowed if no consolidated return is filed. Qualified dividends from domestic Corporations only.

1091
Q

What is the Dividends Received Deduction (DRD) calculation when there is a loss from operations?

A

Only take DRD % x Taxable Income

Note: If DRD brings a loss situation, then you can take the full DRD

If Taxable Income remains after DRD, only a partial DRD (T.I.. x DRD %) is allowed

1092
Q

How are Corporate losses on a sale to a Corporation where a taxpayer owns a 50% or more interest handled in a C-Corporation?

A

A loss on a sale to a Corporation where taxpayer owns a 50% or more interest is disallowed

1093
Q

How are capital losses handled in a C-Corporation?

A

Capital Losses are deductible only to the extent of Capital Gains

1094
Q

How are net short term capital gains taxed in a C-Corporation?

A

Net Short Term Capital Gains are taxed at ordinary income rates

1095
Q

How are Corporate losses carried back/forward?

A

Corporations can carry back losses 3 years and carry forward losses 5 years as a Short Term Capital Loss

1096
Q

How are bad debt losses handled in a Corporation?

A

Bad debt losses are classified as ordinary

1097
Q

What is the casualty loss floor for a C-Corporation?

A

No floor on Corporate casualty loss like there is with an individual taxpayer

If destroyed, the loss is the property’s basis (minus proceeds)

Calculation: Adjusted basis - Proceeds from Insurance = Loss

If partially destroyed, take the lesser of FMV or adjusted basis reduction (minus proceeds)

1098
Q

How are net operating losses handled in a C-Corporation?

A

If loss includes NOL Carryforward, reduce the loss (add back the amount) to get the loss without the Carryforward

Then, carry back the NOL 2 years starting with the earliest year and reduce the taxable income there and then move to the most recent year

Any leftover NOL = This year’s NOL

1099
Q

How is investment interest expense handled in a C-Corporation?

A

Unlike individual taxation, investment interest expense is not limited to investment income.

Investment interest on tax-free investments are NOT deductible.

1100
Q

What is the purpose of Schedule M-1 on a Corporate tax return? Which items are included?

A

Schedule M-1 reconciles book to tax income before Net Operating Loss/Dividend Received Deduction

Includes permanent differences (such as tax-exempt interest and non-deductible expenses) and temporary differences (accelerated depreciated tax depreciation, straight-line, etc.)

1101
Q

What is the purpose of Schedule M-2 on a Corporate tax return? How is it calculated?

A

Reconciles beginning to ending retained earnings

Beginning Unappropriated Retained Earnings
+ Net Income
+ Other Increases
- Dividends paid
- Other decreases
= Ending Unappropriated Retained Earnings

1102
Q

What is the purpose of Schedule M-3 on a Corporate tax return?

A

Like M1, but for Corporations with $10M+ in assets

1103
Q

How are affiliated (80%) Corporation tax returns handled?

A

Consolidation election is binding going forward

Dividends between them are eliminated, Advantage- Gains are deferred, Disadvantage- losses are deferred.

One AMT exemption

One accumulated earnings tax allowed

Note: In order to consolidate, the parent must have 80% voting power and own 80% of the stock value

1104
Q

How are Corporate distributions to shareholders handled?

A

Distribution is a dividend to the extent of current accumulated earnings and profits (ordinary income)

Then, remainder (if any) is a return of basis. Then, add’l remainder (if any) is a Capital Gain

Distribution amount = FMV of Property + Cash - Liability Assumed

Shareholder basis = FMV of Property + Cash received (basis not reduced by the attached liability)

1105
Q

What is the order of treatment in a Corporation’s distribution to a shareholder?

A
  1. Distribution is a dividend to the extent of current and accumulated earnings and profits
  2. Shareholder basis is then exhausted
  3. Remainder, if any, is a Capital Gain
1106
Q

What is the basic calculation for accumulated earnings and profits in a Corporation?

A

Beginning Accumulated Earnings and Profits
+ Net Income
+ Gain on Distribution (if not already in book income)
- Distribution (but cannot create a deficit)
- NOL of prior years
= Ending Accumulated Earnings and Profits

1107
Q

What is the treatment of a gain in a complete Corporate liquidation?

A

If Capital Property, then Capital Gain

If Non-Capital Property, then Ordinary Income

Gain characterization is the same for both the Corporation and the shareholder

1108
Q

What is the treatment of a loss in a complete Corporate liquidation?

A

Corporation: Depends on if property is capital in nature, otherwise ordinary loss

Individual: capital loss only

1109
Q

What is the treatment of the liquidation of a subsidiary?

A

No G/L to parent company

1110
Q

What is a consent dividend? How is it treated?

A

Consented by the Board of Directors but not yet paid

Treat as if distributed by the end of the year

1111
Q

Describe the requirements for a personal holding company.

A

No banks or financial institutions can be PHCs

5 or fewer individuals own more than 50% of the stock

60% of the PHC’s income must be from passive means

PHC tax is self-assessing - 20% tax rate on undistributed PHC Income

1112
Q

How is Corporate accumulated earnings tax (AET) different from PHC taxation?

A

Not Self-Assessing like a PHC

1113
Q

How is the accumulated earnings credit calculated for a Corporation?

A

Take greater of $250,000 ($150,000 for Service Corps) or the legitimate balance based on future needs (i.e. purchasing a building)

1114
Q

What are the requirements for holding S-Corporation status?

A

Only individuals, estates and trusts can be shareholders

Domestic only, no international S-corps or foreign shareholders

Up to 100 shareholders allowed, and only one class of stock allowed

Calendar tax year only

1115
Q

How is an S-Corporation election made?

A

Election for S Corp status must be made by 3/15 and counts as being an S Corp since the beginning of the year

To make election, 100% of the shareholders must consent

1116
Q

How is an S-Corporation terminated?

A

To terminate election, 50% of the shareholders must consent

No S Corp election allowed for 5 years after termination

S Corp termination effective immediately following an act that terminates status

1117
Q

What items are not included in calculating an S-Corporation’s ordinary income?

A

These items are included on Schedule K, not in ordinary income:

Foreign Taxes paid deduction
No Investment Interest expense
Section 179 Deduction 
1231 Gain or Loss
Charitable Contributions
Portfolio Income (dividends or interest)
1118
Q

How is S-Corporation shareholder basis calculated?

A

Beginning Basis
+Share of Income Items (including non-taxable income!)
-Distributions (cash or property)
-Non-deductible expenses
-Ordinary Losses (but don’t take income below zero)
= Ending basis

1119
Q

What is the formula for an S-Corp Built-in Gains Tax?

A

FMV of Assets @ S-Corp Election Date - Adjust. Basis of Assets = Built-in Gain x 35% Corporate Rate

1120
Q

How is Gift taxation different from Estate taxation?

A

Property transferred while taxpayer is living

1121
Q

What is the annual exclusion amount for a taxpayer’s Gift taxation? What is required to get the exclusion?

A

$14,000 per year per spouse to each individual

In order to get the exclusion, the recipient must immediately acquire a present interest in the property and get unrestricted access to the property and all of its benefits

1122
Q

If a Gift is an annuity, what value is used for the Gift?

A

If the Gift is an annuity, use Present Value to determine the gross Gift

1123
Q

What is the basic Gift tax calculation?

A

Gross Gifts
- 1/2 of Gifts (treated as given by spouse)
- Total # of donees x $14,000 exclusion
= Taxable Gift

1124
Q

How is a Gift taxed if a recipient gains a future ownership in the Gifted property?

A

Recipient must gain ownership and all rights to property to get the annual exclusion. If recipient merely gains a future ownership, then the present value of the Gift is 100% taxable to donor and cannot exclude from Gift tax calc

1125
Q

What are the deductions for Gift tax, besides the annual exclusion?

A

Tuition and medical expenses paid directly to the provider organization (note: NOT books or dorm fees)

Political contributions

Charitable Gifts

Unlimited Gifts to spouse

1126
Q

What is the basis of Gifted property for the recipient?

A

If a loss on sale, basis is FMV on the date of the Gift

If a gain on sale, basis is same as donor’s basis

No G/L if donor basis is less than sales price, and sales price is less than FMV @ Gift date

1127
Q

How/when are Gift tax returns filed?

A

Calendar-year basis only

Due April 15

1128
Q

What are the basic characteristics of complex Trust?

A

Income distributions are optional
Accumulation of income ok
Charitable contributions ok
Contributions using tax-exempt income are not deductible
Allowed personal exemption of $100

Key Point: Distribution of Trust corpus (principal) ok

1129
Q

What are the basic characteristics of a Simple Trust?

A

Income distributions mandatory

Accumulation of income disallowed

No charitable contributions

Distribution of Trust corpus DISALLOWED

Allowed personal exemption of $300

1130
Q

How are Net Operating Losses handled in a Trust?

A

Trusts can have a Net Operating Loss

Any unused NOL flows through to the beneficiaries

1131
Q

How are expenses and fees related to tax-exempt income handled in a Trust?

A

Expenses and fees from tax-exempt income are not deductible for either a Complex or Simple Trust

1132
Q

When is property transferred in an Estate?

A

After the death of the donor

1133
Q

What amount of a decedent’s Estate is exempt from Estate Tax?

A

The First $5,250,000 is exempt with a 40% tax on amount above that

1134
Q

How are a decedent’s medical expenses handled with respect to an Estate?

A

Medical expenses paid after death, but incurred within 1 year of death go on decedents personal tax return

1135
Q

How is an Estate’s NOL handled?

A

Estates can have a Net Operating Loss

Any unused NOL flows through to the beneficiaries

1136
Q

What does a gross Estate consist of?

A

Cash and Property FMV at death, or alternate valuation.

1137
Q

What is joint tenancy with respect to an Estate? How is it calculated?

A

When two non-spouses jointly own property

FMV at death X % Ownership = Amount in Estate

1138
Q

What is tenancy by entirety?

A

1/2 of marital assets go to deceased spouses Estate

1139
Q

What is tenancy in common in an Estate?

A

A, B, and C own property

If A dies, FMV of As share goes to heirs

1140
Q

How is Estate tax handled with respect to a beneficiary?

A

Property received through inheritance not income to recipient

Property value is FMV at date of death or 6 months later

If property is sold prior to 6 month date and the alternative date is used, FMV at date of sale is used to value property

Basis in property automatically assumes LT holding period

1141
Q

What is distributable net income (DNI)?

A

DNI = Taxable Income Expenses (from income production)

Trust beneficiaries only pay tax if earnings are distributed

Estate beneficiaries pay tax on DNI, regardless if distributed

1142
Q

When must a tax exempt organization file a 990-T for Unrelated Business Income?

A

If a tax exempt organization has more than $1,000 of UBI, it must file a Form 990-T

1143
Q

What are the requirements for a 501(c)3 organization?

A

Organized and Operated exclusively for exempt purposes

No earnings can benefit an individual or private shareholder

Cant attempt to influence legislation as a major part of its activities

Cant campaign politically

1144
Q

Under what accounting basis are individual tax returns prepared?

A

Cash Basis. Note: This basis is NOT allowed for Corporations, Partnerships with a C-Corp partner, or for inventories.

1145
Q

What are the deductions to arrive at Adjusted Gross Income (AGI) for individuals?

A

*MSA/HSA contributions
*Investment penalties for early withdrawal
*Self-employed medical insurance premiums
*Self-Employment Tax (approx. 50%)
*IRA Contributions
*Student loan interest (can’t be another taxpayer’s dependent)
*Moving expenses
*Alimony
*Attorney fees in discrimination lawsuit

1146
Q

Which items can be carried over to future years on an individual tax return?

A

Investment interest expense in excess of investment income
Charitable contributions
Excess Section 179
Capital losses
AMT Paid
Passive Activity Losses

1147
Q

Characterize the following carryover: Passive Activity Loss

A

No carryback

Can carry forward indefinitely

1148
Q

How is excess 179 expense carried forward?

A

Carry forward to next year.

Use in any year is limited to taxable income.

1149
Q

How long can investment interest expense in excess of investment income be carried forward?

A

Indefinitely.

1150
Q

How long is the carry forward for charitable contributions?

A

Can be carried forward 5 years.

1151
Q

How long is AMT paid carried forward, and how is it applied?

A

It can be carried forward indefinitely.

It may be applied against future regular income tax, but not against future AMT tax liability.

1152
Q

How are capital losses applied in individual taxes?

A

$3,000 net capital loss can be taken in each year, the rest is carried forward indefinitely.

The loss retains its character (STCL or LTCL).

1153
Q

How does an individual capital loss carryover differ from a corporate capital loss carryover?

A

Corporate capital loss carryovers may be carried back 3 years and forward 5 years. Individual capital losses are carried forward indefinitely.

Individual capital loss carryovers retain their character (STCL or LTCL). Corporate loss carryovers are carried forward as STCL only.

1154
Q

What ratio is applied to principle payments in an installment sale to determine the gain in a given year?

A

Gross Profit / Contract Price

1155
Q

What is the contract price in an installment sale for income tax purposes?

A

Contract Price = Sales Price - Liability assumed by buyer

1156
Q

On an individual return, regular mortgage interest on what loan amount is deductible?

A

$1,000,000

1157
Q

Interest on home equity loans up to what amount are deductible on an individual tax return?

A

$100,000

1158
Q

What business gift amounts are deductible on Schedule C of form 1040? What amount for service awards?

A

$25 per person for gifts

Service awards up to $400

1159
Q

What income can business losses offset on a 1040?

A

They may only offset active business income.

Note: W2 wages are considered active business income.

1160
Q

What income can passive losses offset on a 1040?

A

Only passive income such as rental income or limited partnership income.

Note: Wages are ACTIVE (cannot be offset by passive) and Interest/Dividends are PORTFOLIO (cannot be offset by passive)

1161
Q

Are interest and dividends active or passive income?

A

Neither. They are portfolio income.

1162
Q

What is (are) the depreciation convention(s) for personal property?

A

Mid-year/Mid-quarter

1163
Q

When is the mid-quarter convention used?

A

For depreciation when 40% or more of all purchases occur in 4th quarter.

1164
Q

What depreciation convention is used for real property?

A

Mid-month

1165
Q

What depreciation life and convention are used for leasehold improvements?

A

15 year straight line (S/L)

1166
Q

What amount of business start-up costs can be deducted? How is it expensed?

A

Up to $5,000

Amortized over 180 months

Reduced dollar-for-dollar by amount over $50,000

1167
Q

How are medical expenses deducted on a 1040?

A

On Schedule A:

Amounts in excess of 10% of AGI may be deducted

1168
Q

Which personal insurance premiums are not deductible as medical expenses on Schedule A?

A

Accident or disability insurance premiums are not deductible.

1169
Q

Under what circumstances can medical expenses paid on behalf of another be deducted on someone’s Schedule A?

A

Must be a citizen of North America

Must live with you, or if they do not, must be mother/father or a relative closer than a cousin.

Benefactor must provide more than 50% support to the beneficiary.

1170
Q

Which foreign taxes are deductible?

A

Foreign INCOME and REAL ESTATE taxes are deductible.

Foreign personal property taxes are NOT deductible.

Foreign tax assessments are not deductible- they are added to the basis.

1171
Q

How is net investment income calculated, for the purpose of deducting excess investment interest expense?

A

Gross investment income - investment expense in excess of 2% of AGI = net investment income

Investment interest expense in excess of net investment income is deductible.

1172
Q

What investment interest is never deductible?

A

Investment interest expense on tax-free securities is not deductible.

1173
Q

When are mortgage points deductible and how are they deducted?

A

They are deductible if they represent prepaid interest on purchase of a new home or improving a home.

Refinance points are amortized over the life of the mortgage.

1174
Q

How are charitable contributions of LTCG property and property related to a charity’s function deducted?

A

Deducted at fair market value (FMV), up to 30% of AGI

1175
Q

How are charitable donations for STCG property and property not related to the charity’s function deducted on Schedule A?

A

Deduction is taken for adjusted basis in the property, up to 50% of AGI.

1176
Q

Does a casualty loss affect the basis of property?

A

No. It decreases the fair market value (FMV) of the property.

1177
Q

How is the deductible portion of a casualty loss calculated?

A

Take the lower of either A) Decrease in FMV or B) Basis in property (call this number GROSS LOSS)

GROSS LOSS - insurance proceeds received - $100 - 10% of AGI = Deductible casualty loss

1178
Q

What are the miscellaneous deductions on Schedule A, and how are they deducted?

A

Deductible in excess of 2% of AGI

Continuing Education - if required to keep your job
Business travel
50% Meals and entertainment
Union Dues
Tax prep fees
Legal fees to collect alimony
Appraisal fees to value casualty loss of charitable contributions

1179
Q

Which itemized deductions are not subject to phaseout based on income or other factors?

A

Medical
Casualty
Gambling
Investment Interest Expense

1180
Q

Define qualifying child for most individual tax factors.

A

Must be resident of North America

Under age 19, or under age 24 if a student

1181
Q

Define qualifying relative for most individual tax factors?

A

Must be citizen of North America

Must live with you, unless mother/father or relative closer than a cousin

You must provide more than 50% support to the individual

1182
Q

How is minor income taxed at a parent’s rate calculated (AKA kiddie tax)?

A

Child’s unearned income
- early withdrawal penalties
- $1,000
- Greater than $1,000 or child’s itemized deduction related to unearned income
= Amount taxed at parents’ rate

1183
Q

Can spouses married filing jointly use different accounting methods?

A

Yes, if they each own a small business. All non-business income is cash basis.

1184
Q

At what rate is self-employment tax assessed?

A

15.3% of net earnings from self-employment

(Note: executor of an estate is NOT self-employment income)

1185
Q

What is a refundable tax credit? Which individual tax credits are most commonly refunded?

A

A tax credit which takes the taxpayer’s tax owed on the return below zero, resulting in a refund to the taxpayer.

Earned Income Credit (EIC), American Opportunity Credit and the Additional Child Tax credit.

Note: the REGULAR child tax credit is NOT refundable.

1186
Q

How many education credits may be taken on a tax return?

A

American Opportunity Credit - per student

Lifetime Learning Credit - per taxpayer

Note: The American Opportunity Credit is refundable.

1187
Q

What estimated tax payments must be paid in by an individual taxpayer either via withholding or by quarterly tax payments?

A

The lesser of:

90% of current year’s total tax

100% of prior year’s total tax

110% of prior year’s total tax (if AGI is $150,000 or more)

1188
Q

Which farming costs related to land are deductible? Which aren’t?

A

Deductible: Costs incurred to PRESERVE soil/water

Non-deductible: Costs incurred to drain wetlands or prep for irrigation (i.e. improve land)

1189
Q

Which depreciation table is used for personal tangible property related to farming?

A

MACRS 150

1190
Q

How long does the taxpayer have to petition the court for appeal after an audit?

A

90 days

1191
Q

If no petition to appeal is filed, how long does a taxpayer have to pay tax due after an audit?

A

10 days

1192
Q

What is the statute of limitations for a tax audit?

A

3 years, generally

6 years if 25% or more of gross income was omitted

The clock starts on the LATER of the due date or the filing date of the return.

There is NO STATUTE OF LIMITATIONS for either fraud or failure to file a required return.

1193
Q

How is non-business bad debt deducted on a 1040?

A

It is treated as a STCL

1194
Q

How long does an individual taxpayer have to file a claim for refund?

A

Refunds must be claimed within 3 years of the return due date or within 2 years of being paid, whichever is later.

1195
Q

When are life insurance premiums of an employee includable in income?

A

Premiums paid by an employer for coverage in excess of $50,000 per employee are includable in income.

1196
Q

When are scholarships not taxable?

A

When they are not in return for services rendered,

AND

The money is used only for tuition and books

Note: Scholarships for room and board are includable in income.

1197
Q

What interest income is tax free?

A

State & municipal bond interest

US EE Savings Bond interest (note: HH bond interest is taxable)

1198
Q

Which dividend income is tax free?

A

S-corporation (actually distributions)

Life insurance

1199
Q

How much social security income can be taxed for individuals in higher income brackets?

A

Up to 85%

1200
Q

Is unemployment compensation taxable?

A

Yes.

1201
Q

Which damages awarded in lawsuits are taxable? Which are not?

A

Payments made to make you whole are NOT taxable (i.e. to pay for losses of property, body parts or earning ability)

Any payments for punitive damages ARE taxable.

1202
Q

Are workman’s compensation insurance benefits taxable?

A

No - similar to an award for damage to make a person whole.

1203
Q

Which of the following are taxable: Child Support, Divorce Property Settlements, Alimony

A

Alimony IS taxable.

Child support and divorce property settlements are NOT taxable.

1204
Q

Adoption expenses - Are they deductible?

A

NO, they are not deductible. However tax benefits are available through the adoption CREDIT.

1205
Q

Describe alimony recapture.

A

2nd Year: (3rd year - 2nd year - $15,000)

1st Year:
1st Year Alimony Paid
- Avg alimony paid in 2nd & 3rd years
- $15,000
- Recapture from 2nd year
=1st Year Alimony Recapture

Total Recapture = 1st Year Recapture + 2nd Year
Recapture

1206
Q

How are Net Operating Losses (NOLs) utilized?

A

Can be carried back 2 years

If any left, can be carried forward 20 years.

1207
Q

Which IRA contributions are deductible?

A

Traditional IRA = deductible

Roth IRA = not deductible

1208
Q

When can a couple file married filing jointly?

A

They must be married at the end of the year.

If one spouse dies, they must be married at the end of the year.

1209
Q

What are the requirements for filing as Head of Household?

A

Must have a dependent child

Must provide more than 50% of the child’s support

Must live with them more than 50% of the year

1210
Q

What are the requirements for filing as qualifying widower?

A

Must have a dependent child.

Essentially gets MFJ status for the year of death + 2 tax years

1211
Q

What is the Interstate Income Act of 1959?

A

Restricts a state’s authority to tax interstate commerce

1212
Q

What are the principles of the Interstate Income Act of 1959?

A

A state can’t collect income tax on sales within its borders as long as the orders are filled and shipped outside of the state

Applies to tangible property only

Does not protect a Corporation in the state where incorporated

Does not protect from taxes using metrics other than income (Ex: Sales Tax)

1213
Q

What is the Uniform Division of Income for Tax Purposes Act (UDITPA)?

A

Uniform criteria for determining taxable income of multi-state corporations

Also known as the Multi-State Tax Compact

1214
Q

What are the basic principles of UDITPA?

A

Designed to ensure a company is not taxed more than once on its income

Forces a corporation to segregate Business Income from Non-Business Income

1215
Q

What is considered Business Income?

A

Part of the corporation’s regular course of business

Includes acquisition of tangible and intangible property if such activities are part of the regular trade or business

1216
Q

True or false? Partnerships are a taxable entity.

A

False. Income and expenses flow through to the partner to be taxed via a
Form K-1.

1217
Q

When exchanging property for a partnership interest; how is gain or loss recognized?

A

Neither gain nor loss is recognized in an exchange of property for a partnership interest. It is a non-taxable event.

1218
Q

What is a partner’s basis in partnership property?

A

Initial basis for partnership property is the basis of the property that was contributed or exchanged for the partnership interest.

1219
Q

When services are exchanged for a partnership interest; how is this treated for tax purposes?

A

It is a taxable event; treated the same as compensation for the services. The taxable income equals the % of partnership interest received times the FMV of the partnership.

i.e. the FMV of the interest received is the taxable income for the service provider.

1220
Q

What is the partner’s basis in a partnership when they provide a service in exchange for the interest?

A

The basis in the partnership interest is the amount of taxable service revenue provided by service provider.

1221
Q

What is the holding period of an asset that has been contributed to a partnership?

A

The partnership inherits the holding period of the asset contributed.

The exception of inventory- the holding period begins when contributed.

1222
Q

What is the tax treatment of startup costs for a partnership?

A

Tax treatment is the same as that of an individual taxpayer.

However syndication fees are not deductible or amortized.

1223
Q

What deductions are subtracted from gross revenues to arrive at partnership income?

A

COGS
Wages - except for partners
Guaranteed payments to partners
Business bad debt (if on accrual basis)
Interest paid
Depreciation (except section 179)
Amortization (Startup costs; goodwill; etc)

1224
Q

How are partnership losses taken on an individual’s return?

A

Losses cannot be taken beyond a partner’s basis in the partnership

Losses in excess of basis are carried forward until basis is available

1225
Q

When are guaranteed payments to a partner includable in taxable income?

A

They appear in partner’s income during the year in which the partnership’s fiscal year CLOSES.

1226
Q

How are partner benefits paid by the partnership treated?

A

Health insurance; life insurance and other benefits paid on behalf of the partner are treated as guaranteed payments and are includable as self-employment income.

1227
Q

How is net self-employment income from a partnership interest calculated?

A

Partner’s % share of ordinary income from partner’s K-1
+ Guaranteed payments
- Partner’s % share of section 179 expense from K-1
= Self-employment income (subject to SE tax)

1228
Q

In general; what is a partner’s basis in partnership property purchased?

A

Partner’s basis is basis of goods exchanged or for services exchanged is FMV of partnership interest received.

If purchased; purchase price less liabilities incurred = basis.

For a gifted interest in a partnership; gift basis rules apply.

1229
Q

Which items are not deductible on Schedule K of form 1065?

A

Foreign tax paid
Investment interest expense
Section 179 expense
Charitable contributions

Mnemonic: IFC179

1230
Q

Which items are not counted as income on Schedule K of form 1065?

A

Passive Income
Portfolio Income
1231 Gain or Loss

Mnemonic: PP1231

1231
Q

How is adjusted partnership basis calculated?

A

Beginning partnership basis
+ Capital contributions
+ Share of ordinary partnership income
+ Capital gains
+ Tax-exempt partnership income (DON’T FORGET!)
= Ending partnership basis

1232
Q

What items DECREASE partnership basis?

A

Money distributed
Adjusted basis of property distributed
Partners’s share of ordinary losses
Partnership is relieved of a liability (considered a distribution)

1233
Q

What INCREASES partnership basis?

A

Partnership getting a loan
Capital contributions
Ordinary income
Capital gains
Tax-exempt income

1234
Q

How do liabilities either INCURRED or RELIEVED affect a partner’s basis in a partnership?

A

If the partnership gets a loan; this INCREASES basis.

If partnership is relieved of a liability; this DECREASES basis.

1235
Q

How do guaranteed payments affect partnership basis?

A

They do not affect basis- they are already included in ordinary income; which affects basis.

1236
Q

What is the order in which basis is adjusted in a partnership?

A
  1. Increase basis (all items; including tax-exempt income)
  2. Distributions
  3. Losses (limited to basis)
1237
Q

How is the taxable year of a partnership determined?

A

It must be the same as 50% of the partners and use the same tax year for 3 years once adopted.

1238
Q

How does death of a partner affect the partnership’s taxable year?

A

The taxable year closes with respect to the decedent partner’s interest ONLY.

1239
Q

When CAN’T a partnership use cash basis?

A
  1. They have inventories
  2. Partnership is a tax shelter
  3. Has a corporate partner
  4. Gross receipts are $5 Million or more

Exception: If gross receipts are $1 Million or LESS and Partnership maintains inventories; Cash method is ok.

1240
Q

When does a partnership terminate?

A

When there is less than 2 partners (only one partner)

When 50% of the partnership interests sell within a 12 month period- partnership IMMEDIATELY terminates.

1241
Q

How is gain or loss on sale of a partnership interest calculated?

A

Gain or Loss = Amount realized on sale - basis in partnership interest

1242
Q

What is the new basis of a partnership interest sold?

A

Basis = Capital account + Liabilities assumed

1243
Q

How is the sale of non-capital partnership property treated?

A

As ordinary gain/loss.

Items that fall into non-capital category would be unrealized receivables; appreciated inventory; and similar.

1244
Q

How is a partner’s share of an ordinary gain calculated?

A

FMV of Assets (non-capital)
- Adjusted basis of assets
= Ordinary gain
x Partner’s % interest
= Partner’s share of gain

Note: No gain or loss will be recognized by a partnership upon distribution of property.

1245
Q

What is the order of basis reductions for distributions from a partnership?

A
  1. Money distributed
  2. Adjusted basis of unrealized receivables and inventory
  3. Adjusted basis of other property

Note: Only MONEY distributions will trigger a gain in a partnership distribution.

1246
Q

When can a LOSS occur in a partnership distribution?

A

Only in a liquidating distribution.

1247
Q

What are the requirements for recognizing a gain in a partnership liquidating distribution?

A
  1. Money was distributed
  2. Unrealized receivables were distributed
  3. Appreciated inventories were distributed

Otherwise; no loss recognized.

1248
Q

What is the basic calculation for basis in property?

A

Cost of property + Purchase expenses + Debt assumed + Back taxes and interest paid = Basis. Note: taxes and interest related to time when a taxpayer did not own the property are not deductible - they are added to basis.

1249
Q

What is the recipient or donee’s basis on gifted property?

A

Sold at a gain: use donor’s basis

Sold at a loss: use lesser of donor’s basis or FMV at time of distribution

Sold in between donor’s basis and FMV: No gain or loss

1250
Q

What is the basis and holding period of inherited property?

A

FMV at date of death or alternate valuation date (6 months later)

If alternate date is elected by property is sold before 6 month window; use FMV at date of death.

Property inherited is LTCG property regardless of how long it is held by the recipient.

1251
Q

What is the holding period on a stock dividend?

A

Holding period of new stock received from a dividend takes on the holding period of the original stock

1252
Q

What property is eligible for like-kind exchange treatment?

A

Real for real or personal for personal business property only

US property only

1253
Q

What is BOOT in a like-kind exchange?

A

Cash received + unlike property received + liability passed to other party

1254
Q

In a like-kind exchange; how is it handled if a netting of mortgages results in net boot paid?

A

DO NOT subtract the boot paid amount from the cash received

Ignore the boot paid amount from the mortgage completely

1255
Q

What is an involuntary conversion? When does it not result in a gain?

A

Occurs when you receive money for a property involuntarily converted

There is no gain if you reinvest the proceeds completely

If proceeds not completely reinvested; gain is LESSER of realized gain or amount not reinvested.

1256
Q

What are the requirements for exclusion of gain on a primary residence? How are losses treated?

A

Must live there 2 out of 5 years

Loss on sale of home is NOT deductible

1257
Q

What is a wash sale?

A

30 Day rule applies

Disallowed loss adds to basis of new stock

New stock takes on date of acquisition of old stock

1258
Q

Who is considered a related party in a property transaction? How does it affect the transaction?

A

Ancestors; siblings; spouse; descendants; corporation or partnership where you’re a 50% shareholder

Seller cannot take a loss on sale to a related party; but gain is always recognized.

Related party gets to use the disallowed loss when they sell.

Related party’s holding period begins when they acquire the property.

In-laws are NOT related parties.

1259
Q

How are capital losses taken in a corporation?

A

capital losses only offset capital gains

Carryback 3 years - if you elect NOT to carryback; you lost the option in the future

Carry forward 5 years - only as STCL

1260
Q

What assets are NOT capital assets?

A

Inventory; Business interest; Accounts Receivable; Covenant not to compete

Goodwill IS a capital asset

1261
Q

What are the steps in applying a capital gain or loss?

A

Net all STCG and STCL

Net all LTCG and LTCL

Add together

Deduct $3;000

1262
Q

How much ordinary income can be offset by an INDIVIDUAL’s capital losses?

A

$3;000 per year. Unused is carried forward and taken $3;000 each year.

No carryback is allowed.

1263
Q

Which property is governed by section 1231?

A

Real or Personal Business Property held more than a year

Inventory is never 1231 Property

1264
Q

How are section 1231 gains and losses handled?

A

Casualty Losses on 1231 Property - Net the losses

  • Net Loss = Ordinary Loss
  • Net Gain = Combine with other 1231 Gains

1231 Net Loss - If 1231 Losses exceed gains; treat as Ordinary Loss

1231 Net Gain - If 1231 Gains exceed losses; treat at LTCG

1231 Gain = LTCG

1231 Loss = Ordinary Loss

1265
Q

How is section 1245 depreciation recapture handled; and when does it apply?

A

To the extent of depreciation; treat as ordinary gain
Remainder is 1231 gain; which is LTCG - There are no 1245 Losses

1231 Gain = LTCG
1245 Gain = Ordinary
Casualty Gain = LTCG

1231 Loss = Ordinary
1245 Loss = N/A
Casualty Loss = Ordinary

1266
Q

What property qualifies for section 1250 treatment; and how are gains/losses handled?

A

1250 property is Real Estate that is not 1231 Property
Use 1250 for Gain only. For losses; use 1231

Individuals: Post-1986 property with a gain is 1231 LTCG

If Straight Line depreciation is used; don’t use 1250 - Entire gain is 1231

Corps: Section 291 requires 20% of depreciation classified as ordinary gain
Remainder is 1231 LTCG

1267
Q

When are 1231; 1245 and 1250 gains or losses always ordinary?

A

When the asset is held less than one year.