Accommodation/Vergence/Oculomotor Function Flashcards

1
Q

What is the MOST common type of oculomotor deviation?

Hyperphoria
Hypophoria
Esophoria
Exophoria

A

Exophoria

Explanation
By far the most common oculomotor deviations are exo in nature ( about 95%), however most do not pose a problem. The least common type of deviation is vertical.

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2
Q

While performing the Worth-4-dot test (red lens placed over right eye), your patient reports seeing 3 green circles to the left of two red circles. Based on the above findings, what is the correct extrapolation?

Hyperphoria
Hypophoria
Esophoria
Exophoria

A

Esophoria

Explanation
In the Worth-4-dot test, the red lens is generally placed in front of the right eye. Four dots are then projected onto the screen. The two horizontal circles are green, the top circle is white and the bottom circle is red (in most cases). Assuming the patient possesses simultaneous perception, the right eye alone views the bottom and the top circle as red and pink/red respectively. The left eye views three green circles. Combined, both eyes view four circles, two appear green, one lower appears red and the upper one appears red/green. Three green circles viewed to the right of two red circles indicate crossed diplopia (exophoria). The perception of three green circles viewed to the left of two red circles is indicative of uncrossed diplopia (esophoria). The perception of three green circles alone is indicative of right eye suppression. If the patient reports viewing two red circles, this indicates suppression of the left eye.

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3
Q

While performing the alternate cover test at near on a patient with esophoria, you ask the patient to note any target movement. Which of the following responses is this patient MOST likely to report?

The target appears to move in the same direction of the occluder movement

The target appears to move downwards
The target does not appear to move

The target appears to move in the opposite direction of the occluder movement

The target appears to move upwards

A

The target appears to move in the opposite direction of the occluder movement

Explanation
If a phoria is too small in magnitude to be observed while performing the alternate cover test, the clinician can ask the patient to fixate on the target and report any movement seen. Patients with esophoria will report that the target appears to become displaced in the opposite direction of the occluder movement. For example, when the occluder moves from the patient’s right eye to the left eye, the patient will note that the fixation target appeared to move from left to right or “against jump”. A patient with exophoria will report that the target is displaced in the same direction as the movement of the occluder or “with jump”.

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4
Q

Which of the following congenital extraocular muscle disorders occurs as a result of failure of innervation of the lateral rectus muscle by the sixth cranial nerve, accompanied by anomalous innervation of the lateral rectus by fibers from the third cranial nerve?

Congenital fibrosis of extraocular muscles
Brown's syndrome
Duane's retraction syndrome
Mobius syndrome
Marcus Gunn jaw-winking
A

Duane’s retraction syndrome

Explanation
Duane’s retraction syndrome occurs as a result of a developmental error in innervation of the lateral rectus muscle. The sixth cranial nerve fails to innervate the lateral rectus muscle, while at the same time fibers from the third cranial nerve inappropriately innervate the lateral rectus. It is common for this dysinnervation to affect both eyes; however, the involvement of one eye tends to be much more subtle.

The clinical signs leading to the diagnosis of this condition include the following extraocular motility defects of the affected eye:

  • Restricted abduction, which may be partial or complete.
  • Restricted adduction, which is usually partial.
  • This occurs secondary to opposing muscles (lateral and medial recti) being innervated by the same nerve, limiting the eye’s ability to move.
  • Retraction of the globe on adduction, which occurs as a result of co-contraction of the medial and lateral rectus muscles, leading to narrowing of the palpebral fissure; on abduction the globe will assume its natural position and the palpebral fissure will open.
  • Up-shoots or down-shoots on attempted adduction can occur in some cases. This is thought to be caused by a tight lateral rectus muscle that can slip either over or under the globe, producing an anomalous vertical movement of the eye upon co-contraction of the medial and lateral recti.
  • Convergence deficiency, in which the affected eye remains fixed in primary position while the contralateral eye converges.
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5
Q

Which of the following visual functions is present and continues to develop in a newborn infant?

Stereopsis
Horizontal saccadic eye movements
Vertical saccadic eye movements
Pursuits

A

Horizontal saccadic eye movements

Explanation
Horizontal saccadic eye movements first emerge at birth and continue to develop until roughly 24 months. Vertical saccades require a longer time to mature and emerge at around 2 months of age and continue to develop until about 24 months. Pursuits may be seen as early as 2 months but are more commonly evident at 4 months of age. Stereopsis is absent at birth and does not become apparent until 3-5 months of age (some sources quote 4-6 months), reaching adult levels at 5-7 years of age.

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6
Q

Torsional eye movements account for the maintenance of an upright image when a person tilts his or her head to either side. Upon head tilt to the right, which of the following torsional movements occur in the right and left eye, respectively?

Intorsion, intorsion
Extorsion, extorsion
Intorsion, extorsion
Extorsion, intorsion

A

Intorsion, extorsion

Explanation
Also known as righting reflexes, torsional eye movements occur in order to maintain upright images when a person tilts his or her head either right or left. In the case of right head tilt, the superior limbus of each eye will rotate to the left. This causes intorsion of the right eye and extorsion of the left eye. The opposite will occur when the head is tilted to the left.

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7
Q

Which 3 tests directly examine the accommodative system? (Select 3)

Positive fusional convergence ranges (PFC)
Monocular estimation method (MEM)
Monocular amplitudes
Second-degree fusion
Monocular facility testing with +/- 2.00 D lenses
Stereopsis

A

Monocular estimation method (MEM)
Monocular amplitudes
Monocular facility testing with +/- 2.00 D lenses

Explanation
MEM measures the accuracy of the accommodative response to a given target. Monocular amplitudes and monocular facility also evaluate the performance of the accommodative system.

PFC measures the interaction between the accommodative and the vergence system.

Stereopsis is a product of binocular retinal disparity. Stereopsis is not a measure of accommodation but serves to evaluate the capability of the eyes to work in unison. Although accommodation must be accounted for when performing this test, stereopsis will not quantify any type of accommodative dysfunction. Stereopsis as a cue to depth works best if the objects are not too far away. In order for stereopsis to occur, the retinal disparity must be within a certain limit to result in a perception of depth.

Second-degree fusion is the ability to superimpose like objects (not necessarily identical objects), with the end result being the perception of a single object that is a composition of the two separate images. The Worth 4 dot is an example of a test that evaluates second-degree fusion. Second-degree fusion evaluates if the eyes are capable of working together and does not measure accommodative capability.

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8
Q

An object is located 50 cm from the corneal plane of an eye with 2.00 D of myopia. What degree of accommodation is required to achieve a clear retinal image of the object with no corrective lens in place?

-2.00 D
\+1.50 D
0.00 D
\+2.00 D
\+1.00 D
A

0.00 D

Explanation
A 2.00 D myope has a far point of 50 cm (1/2.00 D= 0.50 m or 50.0 cm). Because the object is located at the far point of the eye, no accommodation is required to bring the image into focus.

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9
Q

The near phoria at 40 cm for a patient wearing their spectacle lenses is 6 exophoria. +1.00 D is then placed over the patient’s spectacles and the resulting phoria at 40 cm is measured as 9 exophoria. Based upon these clinical findings, what is the gradient AC/A ratio?

6/1
4/1
3/1
9/1

A

3/1

Explanation
The gradient AC/A ratio allows for the determination of the magnitude of change in the ocular deviation as a result of stimulation or relaxation of the accommodative system by the introduction of ophthalmic lenses. The patient is asked to view a target at near (typically 40 cm) through the lenses that achieve the best corrected visual acuity, and the phoria is measured. +1.00 or -1.00 is then placed in front of the ophthalmic corrective lenses and the resultant phoria is re-measured (some clinicians use a +3.00 D lens). Plus-powered lenses relax the accommodative system, resulting in a decrease in accommodative convergence, while minus-powered lenses stimulate the accommodative system, thereby causing increased accommodative convergence and an increased eso deviation or a decreased exo deviation. The resulting AC/A ratio is then determined via the following formula: gradient AC/A= (deviation-deviation with lens)/power of lens in diopters. For the above question, the gradient AC/A is calculated as follows: (6-9)/1=-3/1. Conventionally, a minus sign indicates an increase in exodeviation or a decrease in esodeviation. Typically, AC/A ratios are given in absolute values.

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10
Q

While performing the bichrome test with the left eye occluded, the patient initially reports that the letters on the red side appear bolder, blacker and sharper. -0.25 D is then placed before the right eye and the patient reports that the letters on the green side now appear clearer. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step?

Re-explain the goal of the test, as the patient is likely unclear as to the test instructions

Add an additional -0.25 D over the right eye

Leave the findings in the phoropter, occlude the right eye and proceed to the left eye

Add +0.25 D over the right eye

A

Add +0.25 D over the right eye

Explanation
The bichrome test is performed by occluding one eye and projecting letters on a red and green background. The patient is initially fogged by roughly + 0.50 D. Fogging over-plusses the patient and shifts the chromatic interval forwards (causing objects projected on a background with longer wavelengths (red) to be bolder) such that the patient should report that the letters are blacker and bolder on the red side of the chart. The addition of minus lenses should equate the two sides such that the letters appear equally black and bold on the red and green sides. If the patient initially reports that the letters on the green side are bolder, then either plus lenses need to be added or minus powered lenses need to be reduced to shift the chromatic interval forwards. If the patient does not report equal boldness/blackness/sharpness of the letters on the green and red sides of the chart but instead instantly reports reversal upon switching lenses, the majority of clinicians will leave the power of the lens in the phoropter at the setting where the patient last reported that the letters on the red side of the chart appeared bolder/blacker to minimize the chances of over-minussing the patient.

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11
Q

Nerve fibers from the abducens nucleus innervate which of the following extraocular muscles?

Contralateral superior oblique
Contralateral lateral rectus
Contralateral medial rectus
Ipsilateral superior oblique
Ipsilateral medial rectus
Ipsilateral lateral rectus
A

Ipsilateral lateral rectus

Explanation
The nucleus of the abducens nerve (cranial nerve VI) is located in the dorsal lower portion of the pons. Motor neuron axons from the abducens nerve course from this location to the ipsilateral lateral rectus muscle via the cavernous sinus and superior orbital fissure. Additionally, interneurons also traverse from the abducens nucleus to the opposite medial longitudinal fasciculus (MLF) and terminate at the oculomotor nucleus, thus coordinating horizontal gaze movements of both eyes.

The trochlear nucleus innervates the contralateral superior oblique muscle.

The oculomotor nucleus innervates the ipsilateral medial rectus, inferior rectus, and inferior oblique, as well as the contralateral superior rectus.

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12
Q

Which of the following extraocular muscles is considered the synergistic pairing to the left superior oblique?

Left inferior rectus
Right inferior oblique
Right inferior rectus
Left superior rectus

A

Left inferior rectus

Explanation
Synergistic extraocular muscles pairs are those muscles of the same eye which, when contracted, act to move the eye in the same direction. In this question, one of the actions of the left superior oblique is to depress the left eye. Additionally, in the left eye, the left inferior rectus also acts to depress the eye. Therefore, the muscle that acts synergistically with the left superior oblique is the left inferior rectus.

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13
Q

Which of the following extraocular muscles has its insertion point FURTHEST from the limbus?

Superior rectus
Inferior rectus
Lateral rectus
Medial rectus

A

Superior rectus

Explanation
The spiral of Tillaux is an imaginary line that joins the insertion points of the four recti muscles. As their insertions get further away from the limbus, a spiral pattern is created, starting with the medial rectus. The insertion point for the medial rectus is the closest to the limbus (5.3mm), followed by the inferior rectus (6.8mm), lateral rectus (6.9mm), and finally the superior rectus, which inserts the furthest from the limbus (7.9mm).

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14
Q

While performing the unilateral cover test, the right eye assumes an exo position when covered. If the right eye were to maintain an exo position when the occluder is removed where would the target’s image fall on the retina in relation to the fovea?

The target’s image would be nasal to the fovea
The target’s image would be temporal to the fovea
The target’s image would be superior to the fovea
The target’s image would be inferior to the fovea

A

The target’s image would be temporal to the fovea

Explanation
An exo position places the fovea of the right eye nasal to the image projected from the object of regard. This is due to the outward rotation of the eye which rotates the fovea nasally relative to the object. This places the target’s image temporal to the fovea.

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15
Q

Using the Von Graefe method to determine the amount of phoria present at near on your patient he reports that the targets are lined up horizontally with 5 base up prism before the left eye. What conclusion can you deduce from the above results?

Left hyper deviation or right hypo deviation
Right hyper deviation or left hypo deviation
Esophoria of 5 prism diopters
Exophoria of 5 prism diopters

A

Right hyper deviation or left hypo deviation

Explanation
When performing the Von Graefe method, a 4 base up dissociating prism is placed before the left eye and an 18 base in prism (biasing prism) is placed before the right eye. A single letter or target is projected at far (or near). The patient should initially perceive two targets with one being up and to the right and the other down and to the left . The 4 base up prism is then slowly reduced (either via intermittent occlusion or no occlusion) until the patient reports that the two targets are directly beside one another lined up horizontally. When the targets are aligned horizontally, the amount of prism before the left eye is recorded. If there is base up prism in front of the left eye then the deviation is described as either right hyperphoria or left hypophoria in the amount equal to the neutralizing prism before the left eye.

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16
Q

Which 3 of the following extra-ocular muscles are supplied by the LATERAL muscular branch of the ophthalmic artery? (Select 3)

Inferior rectus
Superior rectus
Medial rectus
Lateral rectus
Superior oblique
Inferior oblique
A

Superior rectus
Lateral rectus
Superior oblique

Explanation
The medial muscular branch of the ophthalmic artery supplies the medial rectus, inferior rectus, and the inferior oblique extra-ocular muscles, while the lateral muscular branch supplies the superior rectus, superior oblique, lateral rectus, and levator palpebrae superioris.

17
Q

Which of the four involuntary vergence stimuli is driven by neural innervation?

Fusional
Accommodative
Tonic
Proximal

A

Tonic

Explanation
Tonic vergence is caused by baseline innervation. This type of vergence is generally maintained when all other vergence stimuli are absent. Proximal stimuli are driven by near objects. The response increases as the distance from the object decreases. Accommodative response results from target defocus. Fusional involuntary vergence is provoked by retinal disparity.

18
Q

Accommodation is primarily controlled by which system?

The somatic nervous system
The lymphatic system
The sympathetic system
The parasympathetic system

A

The parasympathetic system

Explanation
Accommodation is innervated by the parasympathetic system. During accommodation, the parasympathetic system causes contraction of the ciliary muscles which decreases the tension on the zonules causing the lens to become more spherically shaped thereby increasing its dioptric power. Another theory suggests that ciliary body contraction increases the mass in the vitreous which causes the vitreous to push the lens forward.

The sympathetic nervous system is primarily responsible for bodily functions in the presence of heightened awareness, danger or excitement and it prepares the body for fight-or-flight.

The parasympathetic system is generally in charge of basic housekeeping tasks when the body is at rest. This system essentially tells the body to slow down.

The somatic division of the peripheral nervous system is responsible for motor function and serves to convey information to and from skeletal muscles, tendons and skin. This division works closely with the autonomic system which relays signals to visceral organs such as the heart and gut.

The lymphatic system plays a large role in the immune system.

19
Q

Which of the following types of aberration have been shown to play a major role in how the eye detects defocus and responds with the normal reflex accommodative response?

Spherical aberration
Longitudinal chromatic aberration
Radial astigmatism
Trefoil
Curvature of field
Coma
A

Longitudinal chromatic aberration

Explanation
Studies have shown that longitudinal chromatic aberration (LCA) plays a very important role in how the eyes detect defocus, resulting in an accommodative response. There is a significant amount of LCA present in the human eye; this occurs due to the fact that the refractive index of any medium (other than a vacuum) varies with wavelength. Therefore, shorter wavelengths (blues) will bend more as they pass through a lens, while longer wavelengths (reds) bend less. This leads to a variation in the image location, also known as LCA. If the LCA is removed by using monochromatic light or by optically neutralizing the LCA, it has been proven that a significant disruption occurs in the normal reflex accommodative response.

20
Q

How does one clinically differentiate between a true Von Graefe’s sign and a pseudo Von Graefe’s sign?

Ptosis is not present in straight-ahead gaze
Ptosis is less prominent on abduction
Ptosis disappears in down gaze
Ptosis is not evident in adducted gaze

A

Ptosis is not evident in adducted gaze

Explanation
Pseudo Von Graefe’s sign occurs due to aberrant regeneration of cranial nerve III. After incurring an insult (paralysis), upon recovery, instead of innervating the levator palpebrae superioris, fibers now connect to the medial rectus. Therefore, when one adducts the eye on the same side of the palsy, the ptosis is not evident. In straight-ahead gaze a ptosis is present on the same side of the palsy.

Von Graefe’s sign occurs in Grave’s disease (thyroid dysfunction). This term refers to the inability of the eyelid to move down when the globe is directed in a down gaze. It is often described as a lagging of the upper eyelid-not because it sags but because it lags behind movement-wise. The greater the down gaze, the greater the bearing of the sclera. Von Graefe’s results from excessive innervation of the sympathetic system causing upper lid retraction via Muller’s muscle.

21
Q

Retraction or lagging of the upper eyelid while looking in down gaze is referred to as which of the following terms?

Horner’s syndrome
Von Graefe’s sign
Collier’s sign
Myerson’s sign

A

Von Graefe’s sign

Explanation
Von Graefe’s sign occurs in Grave’s disease (thyroid dysfunction). This term refers to the incomplete ability of the eyelid to move down when the globe is directed in a down gaze. It is often described as a lagging of the upper eyelid-not because it sags but because it lags behind movement-wise. The greater the down gaze, the greater the bearing of the sclera. Von Graefe’s sign results from excessive innervation of the sympathetic system which causes upper lid retraction via the muscle of Mueller.

Collier’s sign is also known as a tucked lid due to extreme upper lid retraction in primary gaze which stems from a lesion of cranial nerve III at the posterior commissure. This is very rare.

Myerson’s sign occurs in people who are suffering from Parkinson’s disease and in all infants younger than 2 months of age. Most people when tapped between the eyes can inhibit themselves from blinking. Patients with Parkinson’s cannot inhibit the facial reflex and will always blink, which is referred to as Myerson’s sign. The facial reflex is as follows: tap proximal to orbit-> ophthalmic division or maxillary division of trigeminal (depends on the location of tapping) ->midbrain->pons->stimulation of orbicularis, inhibition of levator palpebrae superioris.

Horner’s syndrome results from a disruption of the sympathetic innervation to the eye either due to a lesion or mass located either post-ganglionically or pre-ganglionically. The classic triad of signs seen in a patient suffering from Horner’s syndrome is miosis, a small ptosis and anhidrosis (lack of sweat) on one side of the head.

22
Q

Which of the following laws describes the concept of reciprocal innervation, in which increased innervation to an extraocular muscle is accompanied by an equal amount of decreased innervation to its antagonist?

Knapp’s law
Hering’s law
Snell’s law
Sherrington’s law

A

Sherrington’s law

Explanation
Sherrington’s law refers to the reciprocal decreased innervation that occurs in an antagonist muscle when the agonist receives increased innervation. For example, when the lateral rectus muscle contracts to move an eye laterally, the medial rectus muscle will automatically relax. It is important to note that Sherrington’s law applies for both versions and vergences.

23
Q

A 22 year-old male presents with a history of a right orbital medial wall fracture and restriction in right gaze on extraocular muscle testing. Which of the following additional tests is MOST useful in determining whether the limitation is secondary to muscle entrapment or muscle paralysis?

Visual evoked potential
X-ray imaging
Electrooculogram
Exophthalmometry
Cover test
Forced duction testing
A

Forced duction testing

Explanation
Forced duction testing is an in-office procedure that is used in differentiating between muscle weakness and restrictive causes of limitations in extraocular muscle movements. This test is typically performed when a patient is anesthetized using topical eye drops. The patient is then instructed to look as far as possible in the direction of the muscle that is suspected of underacting such that maximum innervation is recruited to that muscle. The examiner will then use forceps in order to grasp the conjunctiva as close to the area of the limbus as possible, opposite the side of gaze restriction. If the forceps can then rotate the globe further than where the patient can move it on his own, some degree of muscle paresis is likely. However, if the globe cannot be rotated farther, restriction or entrapment of the muscle is probable. For example, if the patient has a deficit in superior gaze, the insertion of the inferior rectus muscle should be topically anesthetized. The patient’s gaze should then be directed upwards and the inferior rectus muscle should be grasped with forceps. Further superior rotation of the eye should then be attempted. Resistance is considered a positive forced duction test, while effortless rotation is deemed a negative forced duction test.

24
Q

Which of the following methods for measuring a heterophoria is classified PRIMARILY as dissociating?

The Hirschberg method
Von Graefe method
Modified Thorington method
Bruckner testing

A

Von Graefe method

Explanation
Dissociating methods cause diplopia with prism thereby enabling the clinician to quantify a phoria. The Von Graefe method is considered dissociating. This technique is performed by placing a 4 base-up dissociating prism before the left eye and a base-in prism (biasing prism) before the right eye. A single letter or target is projected at far (or near). The patient should initially perceive two targets, with one being up and to the right and the other down and to the left. The 4 base-up prism is then slowly reduced (either via intermittent occlusion or no occlusion) until the patient reports that the two targets are directly beside one another and lined up horizontally. When the targets are aligned horizontally, the amount of prism before the left eye is recorded. If there is base-up prism in front of the left eye, then the deviation is described as either right hyperphoria or left hypophoria in the amount equal to the neutralizing prism before the left eye.

Distortion methods blur one or both retinal images such that the reflex for binocular fusion is eliminated. The Modified Thorington method utilizes a Maddox rod to create distortion. The Hirschberg test is uses the position of the corneal reflexes relative to the center of the pupil to determine the presence or absence of a heterotropia. Temporal displacement of the corneal reflex suggests esotropia, while nasal displacement infers exotropia. The Bruckner reflex test is used to denote an asymmetry between the brightness of the retinal reflexes that may be caused by strabismus, anisometropia, anisocoria, or certain pathologies such as a large retinal detachment or retinoblastoma. In the event of strabismus, the deviated eye will appear brighter because more light is reflected from the retinal periphery.

25
Q

If accommodation is increased by adding minus powered lenses while the patient is fixating a stationary target, what occurs to the resulting phoria?

The resultant phoria will not change
It becomes less esophoric in nature
It becomes more exophoric in nature
It becomes more esophoric in nature

A

It becomes more esophoric in nature

Explanation
In a normal visual system convergence and accommodation work together. If accommodation is increased convergence is stimulated as well. This causes the measured phoria to become more esophoric or less exophoric.

26
Q

During case history, your 47 year-old Caucasian female patient reports to you that she occasionally manifests double vision in certain fields of gaze. She is taking Tapazole® for Grave’s disease and has no other ocular or systemic health issues. Restriction of which of the following extraocular muscles would you MOST likely expect to be causing her symptoms?

Inferior oblique
Inferior rectus
Superior oblique
Medial rectus
Lateral rectus
Superior rectus
A

Inferior rectus

Explanation
Thyroid-related orbitopathy associated with Grave’s disease (hyperthyroidism) manifests itself through several pathologic features, including the progressive enlargement of the extraocular muscles. This inflammation is mediated through release of cytokines, fibroblast proliferation, increased deposition of extracellular matrix, and differentiation and proliferation of adipocytes, and tends to target the muscles of the eye. Studies have shown that the inferior rectus muscle is preferentially affected in these patients, often resulting in diplopia on upgaze. The second most commonly affected muscle is the medial rectus, followed by the superior rectus then lateral rectus (obliques are rarely targeted). These patients often experience diplopia, proptosis, and orbital pain, and may require surgical intervention.

An easy way to remember the order of affected muscles in thyroid eye diseases is “I MuScLes”: Inferior, Medial, Superior, Lateral.

27
Q

A 12 year-old patient is seen at your office complaining of distance blur. Cover test reveals 4 prism diopters of exophoria at near. Subjective refraction reveals -2.25 DS OU. The patient returns 4 weeks later and reports that her vision is clear at distance with the glasses, but when she reads her eyes become fatigued and she reports frontal headaches, all of which she did not experience prior to getting her glasses. What is the MOST likely etiology of her headaches while reading?

Her glasses are too tight and are putting pressure on her temples

The pantoscopic tilt is incorrect and is inducing unwanted astigmatism

The optical center of her glasses was measured too low

Resultant esophoria at near induced by her glasses

A

Resultant esophoria at near induced by her glasses

Explanation
Patients with myopia who are newly corrected may display esophoria at near when wearing their spectacle correction. Reading through minus-powered lenses causes an increase in the accommodative response as well as the vergence system, resulting in less exophoria or more esophoria at near. If enough esophoria is induced, symptoms of asthenopia can occur. For patients with mild amounts of myopia, the removal of their glasses while performing near, visually oriented tasks will typically eliminate ocular discomfort. Other options include prescribing a bifocal or a progressive addition lens (PAL). Research has demonstrated that myopic patients who possess esophoria at near may benefit from a bifocal or PAL, which may serve to slow down the rate of progression of myopia.

28
Q

A 47-year old man sustained orbital trauma and now presents with complaints of retro-orbital pain, impaired ability to move the eye, a droopy eyelid, and diplopia. These signs are most consistent with damage to which of the following structures?

Superficial temporal artery
Stylomastoid foramen
Internal auditory meatus
Superior orbital fissure

A

Superior orbital fissure

Explanation
The superior orbital fissure is a cleft between the lesser and greater wings of the sphenoid. Structures traveling through the superior orbital fissure include the oculomotor nerve (CN III), trochlear nerve (CN IV), abducens nerve (CN VI), lacrimal nerve, frontal nerve, nasociliary nerve, and the ophthalmic vein (superior and inferior divisions). These structures can be damaged when there is orbital trauma causing fractures through the floor of the orbit into the maxillary sinus. This leads to superficial orbital fissure syndrome (also known as Rochon-Duvigneaud’s syndrome). Signs include paralysis of extraocular muscles, diplopia, ptosis, exophthalmia and decreased sensation of the upper eyelid and forehead. Vision loss or blindness implies a more serious injury involving the orbital apex (orbital apex syndrome).

Tolusa-Hunt syndrome (THS) is an inflammatory condition within the cavernous sinus or superior orbital fissure causing damage to the structures in those regions. Signs are usually acute and unilateral at onset in adults and the most common presenting signs are pain and ophthalmoparesis.

The internal auditory (or acoustic) meatus is a canal in the petrous portion of the temporal bone through which the facial (CN VII) and vestibulocochlear nerves (CN VIII) and the labyrinthine artery travel. Damage to these structures can result in deafness and facial muscle paralysis. Acoustic neuromas will commonly expand the internal auditory meatus and damage these structures. Other signs may include tinnitus or vertigo.

The stylomastoid foramen is the termination of the facial canal between the styloid and mastoid processes of the temporal bone. The facial nerve and stylomastoid artery travel through this area. Damage to this area can result in facial drooping and paralysis. Bell’s palsy (idiopathic facial nerve paralysis) is an inflammatory condition that may lead to swelling of the facial nerve in this region.

The superficial temporal artery is a major artery arising from the bifurcation of the external carotid artery. The artery begins within the parotid salivary gland and passes over the zygomatic process of the temporal bone. It is often affected in cases of giant cell arteritis (which is also known as temporal arteritis for this reason). This condition is a vasculitis of the medium and large arteries of the head and is not necessarily restricted to the temporal artery. Temporal arteritis is seen predominantly in older patients and is characterized by fever, headache, sensitivity on the scalp, jaw pain, reduced visual acuity or vision loss, diplopia, and acute tinnitus. Due to potentially rapid progressive vision loss, this disease is a medical emergency. Treatment usually consists of high-dose corticosteroids.

29
Q

You are testing accommodation on your 44 year-old female patient. With an add power of +1.50 in place, the patient reports blur of the near target at 20cm in both the right and left eyes. Which of the following represents her true amplitude of accommodation?

  1. 50 diopters
  2. 00 diopters
  3. 50 diopters
  4. 00 diopters
  5. 50 diopters
A

3.50 diopters

Explanation
To determine the amplitude of accommodation for each eye in adults, one eye is occluded while the subjective findings are left in place, and the patient is asked to focus on one or two lines above their visual acuity threshold on the reduced Snellen chart. The chart is brought closer to the patient until they report that the line first becomes blurry. This measurement is repeated with the other eye; the results are then converted from cm to diopters, yielding the near point of accommodation.

If the amplitude of accommodation is measured with an add power in place, this amount must be subtracted from the initial findings to give the true amplitudes of accommodation. For example, the above patient reported that the chart became blurry 20cm from her eyes; 1/0.20= 5.0 diopters. Because she was looking through an additional reading power of 1.50 D, this must be subtracted from the total of 5 diopters, rendering her final amplitude of accommodation for both the right and left eye as 3.50 diopters.

30
Q

A patient with a low AC/A ratio (2/1) displays exophoria at a 6 m distance. Based on the AC/A ratio, how would you expect the phoria to change as the target is brought closer to the patient?

The deviation will remain unchanged
Increase in hyper deviation
Decrease in hyper deviation
Decrease in exo deviation
Increase in exo deviation
A

Increase in exo deviation

Explanation
The AC/A ratio denotes the amount of change to convergence resulting from a change in accommodation. Regardless of the initial phoria, with decreasing viewing distance the phoria will become more exo (or less eso) for a patient who exhibits a low AC/A ratio. The opposite holds true for a high AC/A ratio (greater than 6/1); as the target gets closer, the resultant phoria becomes more eso or less exo.

31
Q

Which of the following is the only extraocular muscle that does not originate from the apex of the orbit?

Superior oblique
Superior rectus
Medial rectus
Inferior oblique
Inferior rectus
Lateral rectus
A

Inferior oblique

Explanation
In contrast to the other extraocular muscles (EOMs), the inferior oblique is the only EOM that does not originate from the apex of the orbit. Instead, the inferior oblique muscle arises from the maxillary bone in the medial wall of the orbit. From here, it courses posteriorly and inferiorly to the inferior rectus muscle and inserts into the sclera at a location on the lateral aspect of the globe medial to the tendon of the lateral rectus and posterior to the equator.