Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

A320 > AC FOM > Flashcards

AC FOM Flashcards

1
Q

When do you normally Start the APU before departure

A

15 mins prior to pushback

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

3 types of terrain clearance listed on the flightplan and min clearance alt

A
  1. COMPLETED WITH NO LIMITATION
  2. TERRAIN CLEARANCE REQUIRES ENROUTE ESCAPE CHARTS
  3. Weight limited - ENRTE ALT 16400 ISA TEMP P14C MTOW LIMITED 080.7
    CONTACT FLIGHT DISPATCH FOR MTOW INCREASE

Each gives 1000’ terrain clerance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What triggering event(s) does terrain clearance factor in?

A

Terrain clearance check only examines engine-out driftdown scenarios and does not factor in a decompression event

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Can a flight be dispatched to a destination without a valid taf for arrival? Requirements?

A

Yes.

  1. The OFP shows a valid TAF for the selected alternates (need 2) and
  2. There are no known factors precluding a safe landing at the destination.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

OFP revision?

A

If there is a delay of two hours or more to the original departure time, Flight Dispatch shall assess the conditions of the OFP and revise the OFP and refile if required.

A new OFP shall also be issued if operational conditions warrant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

If changes to the fuel are made by the captain from the original OFP, what report shall be filed?

A

Voyage Report

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is protected and unprotected fuel?

A

Protected Fuel: Fuel amount planned to be available over a specific point. As such, the amount of fuel needed to carry the protected fuel is added to the BURN to ensure that the full amount of protected fuel is available at the required point. The following Fuels are always protected: SCANERS
• SDTO ALTN
• CONT 5 MIN
• ALTN
• NAIFR SAP
• ETOPS
• RESERVE
• SUPP
Un-protected Fuel: Fuel boarded with the assumption that some of it will be consumed en route as a result of carrying its own weight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are addition fuels

A

ATC and WX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What cost index is alt fuel based on and when does it begin and end?

A

CI - 0

From the threshold of the planned landing runway at the destination airport to the planned landing runway of the alternate airport via the published SID, enroute, and STAR routing. The vertical profile including the missed approach is considered in calculating fuel requirements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

When can cont fuel be used

A

CONT may be used any time after pushback due to unforeseen delays, however, the flight shall not take-off with less than CONT 5 MIN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is SDTO fuel

A

Standard Diversion Time Operations

SDTO fuel is boarded when fuel is needed to ensure the planned flight fuel for SDTO route segment(s) is sufficient to:
• Allow for a descent at any point along the route to the lower of the one-engine-inoperative service ceiling or 10,000 feet ASL, and
• Cruise at the one-engine-inoperative service ceiling or 10,000 feet ASL to an adequate airport
and:
◦ conduct an approach and missed approach, and
◦ hold for 30 minutes at an altitude of 1,500 feet above the airport elevation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is NAIFR SAP? How much? How is it calculated and when can it be burned?

A

NAIFR SAP is 12 minutes of fuel, calculated using the estimated landing weight at 1,500 feet ASL in ISA conditions.

Although NAIFR SAP may be consumed for purposes other than those planned for after take-off, Flight Dispatchers and the Pilot-in-Command shall not plan to burn into this fuel during flight planning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is Supplementary Fuel (SUPP)

A

Supplementary Fuel is an incremental amount of fuel to ensure that a planned minimum amount of fuel is available over destination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Min fuel for pushback and take off

A

PB - block - If it is not possible to contact Dispatch in a timely manner, commencing pushback without Extra fuels and a portion of Additional fuels is permitted provided the Pilot-in-Command is satisfied that the remaining fuel is sufficient for the flight
T/O - FLIGHT FUEL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

U.S take off Alt weather requirements (when does wx need to meet min)?

A

For U.S. departures requiring take-off alternates the ceiling and visibility at the take-off alternate airport shall meet the requirements at departure time as well as the ETA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

T/O Alt distance

A

367

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Alt wx, TEMPO, INTER, PROB and PROB 30 (or 40)

A

The forecast TEMPO or INTER condition shall not be below the published alternate minima requirements for that aerodrome
PROB condition shall not be below the appropriate landing minima
Prob 30 (or 40) TEMPO may be disregarded during flight planning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

NAIFR Times and areas of ops

A

Flights up to six hours:
i. the take-off aerodrome shall be situated within North America, the Caribbean islands, or Bermuda;
ii. the aerodrome of intended landing shall be situated within North America.

b. Flights from six hours to eight hours:
i. the take-off aerodrome and aerodrome of intended landing shall be situated within North America;
ii. between four and six hours from the aerodrome of intended landing, the PIC shall obtain confirmation from Flight Dispatch that the conditions at the aerodrome of intended landing are still acceptable.

c. Within 6 hours of a scheduled destination in Canada, the PIC may re-file “No Alternate IFR” regardless of the location of the departure aerodrome.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Warning - Maintenance in Progress Card

A
  1. If power is off the aircraft and the Warning - Maintenance in Progress Card is over the thrust lever quadrant no part of any flight deck control shall be touched prior to speaking to the Maintenance person listed on the tag or a Maintenance Supervisor; or
  2. If power is on the aircraft and a Warning - Maintenance in Progress Card is over the thrust lever quadrant the Flight Crew may proceed with checks as long as:
    a. No hydraulic systems are turned on or actuated; and
    b. No engines (including APU) are started or motored; and
    c. No flight control systems are turned on or actuated; and
    d. No fuel systems are turned on.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Defect prior to and after pushback? Who do you talk to?

A

If a defect occurs prior to pushback it should be deferred under MEL, if this occurs at a station where local maintenance is provided they may be contacted to conduct the required maintenance action.

After pushback is commenced, all communication with Maintenance shall be with MOC through Flight Dispatch. Direct communication with station maintenance regarding malfunctions or abnormals after pushback or in flight is not permitted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is a “Temporary Correction Notification” (TCN)

A

used by MOC when there has been a discovery of an error (minor or editorial) in a particular MEL item as shown in the current document that will be corrected at the next revision cycle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Required AC documentation

A

Aircraft Journey Log; and
Aircraft Defect Log; and
Aircraft Documents Pouch; and
On-Board Library; and
Cabin Defect Log (Passenger Aircraft only)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Documents pouch contents and min required to depart

A

Certificate of Airworthiness (REQUIRED); and
Certificate of Registration (REQUIRED) and
Aircraft Radio License; and
Certificate of Noise Compliance is included in all Certificate of Airworthiness issued after May 1992.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Minimum Cabin Crew Complement

A

319/320 - 3
321 - 4

1 in 50 in the case of crew incapacitation on layover (not allowed on 321)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Hold or No Hold for Product or Service Items
If In Flight reports a missing product or service item to the Flight Crew, the Flight Crew shall advise STOC of the missing item and follow STOCs direction regarding whether the flight should hold or not for the missing item.
26
Tire Wear Guidelines
At through stations during short turnarounds, or at stations where Maintenance is not available, it is permissible to dispatch an aircraft with one or more tires having zero groove depth in the center groove(s) or with no more than a total of three linear inches of reinforcing fabric exposed per tire.
27
Aircraft Skin Damage Inspection
Any reported skin damage, including engine cowlings, that upon inspection still meets the requirements for airworthiness can have its repair deferred after the damage is recorded in the Aircraft Defect Log. Maintenance shall affix a Bump Inspected Now GO (BINGO) decal adjacent to each recorded defect that may be discovered again during line operations. The BINGO decal will be placed near the damaged area and identifies the applicable defect number
28
Oblique angle intersection take-offs
An intersection angled to the runway such that it prohibits the flight crew from seeing the approach end is referred to as an oblique angle intersection. Oblique angle intersection take-offs should not be planned or accepted unless no practical alternative exists
29
NO GO Message
A “FOM 8_2 NOGO MTC INCOMPLETE” ACARS message is an alert sent approximately 20 minutes prior to scheduled departure time in order to ensure that an aircraft does not depart prior to the completion of any required maintenance work or action. MOC or Maintenance Planning will send a "NOGO WORK COMPLETE" message to the aircraft and the controlling flight dispatcher to advise when the maintenance event is complete. Only once this message is received can the flight depart.
30
Load Data Preliminary (LDP) timeframe
The LDP is sent to the aircraft via ACARS approximately 20 minutes prior to scheduled departure time. Flight Crews should request the LDP if it is not received within eight minutes prior to scheduled departure time.
31
Passenger load tolerance
+\-3 per zone, +\- 6 total the total passenger count indicates more passengers than the LDF but within tolerance, adjust the TOW by 80 kg per extra passenger
32
Positive Baggage Reconciliation
Domestic Flights Positive baggage reconciliation for Domestic flights is not required, however Flight Crews shall advise STOC any time a passenger deplanes. International and Transborder Flights For International and Transborder flights, 100% baggage reconciliation is required. Flight Crews shall advise STOC anytime a passenger deplanes. The STOC Manager in cooperation with Corporate Security shall conduct a security assessment to determine if baggage should be removed.
33
Can engines be started during push without headset
No
34
Early departure, time and who to contact
Early departures of less than 10 minutes do not require coordination with Flight Dispatch.
35
Curfew, where is it noted , who can authorize a waiver, how many minutes early before you should recalculate a new wheels up time.
On the Flightplan Flight dispatch only When a flight is planned to touchdown or cross a curfew waypoint more than 2 minutes ahead of a morning curfew restriction, Flight Crews should calculate a wheels up time which will meet the restriction
36
Hierarchy for airport level of service, with or without an active tower
With an active ATC Tower -RVR for the runway of intended use; -Ground visibility (METAR); -Tower Visibility; -The visibility, as determined by the Pilot-in-Command Without an active ATC Tower -Ground visibility (METAR) -Any reported RVR -Pilot visibility
37
How is the electronic signature for acceptance of the OFP, security checks, flight watch co-authority, and knowledge of all required documentation acknowledged?
Release of the parkbrake
38
What items are required prior to release of parkbrake What about if ATC push delay?
The LDF shall be received, reconciled and take-off performance data calculated and entered into the FMS/FMGS prior to park brake release. Should the ground crew and Flight Crew be ready for pushback and ATC advises of a pushback delay the park brake shall not be released
39
When can you continue Taxi operations when the Aerodrome Operating Visibility deteriorates below the airport level of service?
1. Pushback commenced; or 2. Taxi commenced during open ramp operations (i.e., no pushback); or 3. Taxiing to or from de-icing; or 4. The aircraft is taxiing on the maneuvering area for purposes other than take-off or landing. Should the Take-off Visibility deteriorate below the Level of Service for the runway of intended use while taxiing, the aircraft can wait at the holding bay for conditions to improve, taxi back to the gate, or continue to taxi to another runway that supports the Take-off Visibility for the Level of Service of the new runway of intended use.
40
When do we need to advice stoc of delay after pushback? Delay of over ______mins from door closure require reference to the Airport Tarmac Delay Program procedures
Flight Crews should provide a revised ETO via ACARS or VHF radio to STOC if the flight is not airborne 20 minutes after pushback and the take-off time has been exceeded. 30 minutes
41
Hierarchy for visibility for takeoff and difference between Canada and US.
The Take-off Visibility shall be at or above the Level of Service for the runway of intended use and is defined in order of precedence as: 1. The reported RVR of the runway to be used (unless the RVR is fluctuating above and below the minimum or less than the minimum because of a localized phenomenon); or 2. The reported Ground Visibility of the aerodrome, if the RVR is: a. not available; or b. fluctuating above and below the specified minimum or less than the minimum because of a localized phenomenon; 3. The Runway Visibility as observed by the Pilot-in-Command, if the RVR and the Ground Visibility of the airport are not reported. Pilot-in-Command assessed visibility cannot be used in the absence of RVR or ground visibility for operations in the U.S.
42
Standard Take-off Minima canada/U.S
Standard Take-off Minima is RVR 2600 or 1/2 statute mile ground visibility. In the U.S., Standard Take-off Minima is defined as RVR 5000 or 1 statute mile ground visibility
43
Standard Take-off Minima canada/U.S
Standard Take-off Minima is RVR 2600 or 1/2 statute mile ground visibility. In the U.S., Standard Take-off Minima is defined as RVR 5000 or 1 statute mile ground visibility
44
RVOP 2600 to 1200RVR requirements for T/O
• Serviceable and functioning high intensity runway lights; or • Runway center line lights; or • Runway center line markings that are plainly visible to the Pilot-in-Command throughout the take-off run.
45
LVOP 1200 - 600 RVR requirements for T/O
• Serviceable and functioning high intensity runway lights; and • Runway center line lights; and • Runway center line markings that are plainly visible to the Pilot-in-Command throughout the take-off run; and • Two transmissometers, one situated at the approach end (touchdown, RVR A), and one situated at the mid-point (RVR B) reading not less than RVR 600 (RVR 175m)
46
T/O holding in position time before contacting tower
30s
47
Criteria for an RTO above 100kts
-Engine fire/severe damage -Engine power loss. -Malfunctions or conditions that give unambiguous indications that the aircraft will not fly safely -Any red ECAM warning ——-Any ECAM caution listed below: ‐ F/CTL SIDESTICK FAULT ‐ ENG FAIL ‐ ENG REVERSER FAULT ‐ ENG REVERSE UNLOCKED ‐ ENG 1(2) THR LEVER FAULT
48
On initial contact with departure, the PM should inform ATC of the following;
a. Departing runway; and b. Present altitude; and c. Cleared altitude; and d. If on a “CLIMB VIA” clearance, “CLIMBING VIA THE (name of departure)”.
49
Min alt for freq change?
A frequency change shall not be initiated below 500 feet AGL unless it has been preset to be transferred
50
Min alt for after takeoff check
The After Take-off Checklist should be initiated when convenient above 2,000 feet AGL
51
Use of oxygen
All flight crew members shall wear oxygen masks whenever cabin altitude is above 10,000 feet. Flight crew member(s) at the flight controls of an aircraft above FL410 shall wear an oxygen mask.
52
Reports shall be made to Flight Dispatch whenever:
1. En route or ramp arrival time varies from planned time by more than five minutes; or 2. The Pilot-in-Command determines a change is necessary to the OFP en route; or 3. Unexpected or significant weather is encountered; or 4. A defect has been recorded in the Aircraft Defect Log. ACARS Snag messages are automatically sent to dispatch; or 5. If at any point after Top of Climb, the AFOB is less than the MFOB over an OFP waypoint; or 6. When position reports are required.
53
Position report requirements (international)
In order to meet Flight Watch requirements, position reports to Flight Dispatch shall be made starting within two hours of being airborne and then at intervals not greater than two hours for operations that arrive from, or depart to, areas outside Canadian and Continental U.S. Domestic Airspace.
54
Mountainous Airport definition
An airport is considered to be a mountainous airport if the terrain rises 2,000 feet or greater within a radius of 12 NM centered on the airport’s Aerodrome Reference Point (ARP).
55
Factored Landing Distance (FLD) definition
calculated landing distance for the conditions of the day, including aircraft landing weight and configuration, runway conditions and weather include a time of seven seconds from threshold crossing to touchdown and a 15% safety margin for Normal Landing calculations
56
Optimum Touchdown Zone (OTZ)
The OTZ is approximately 200 meters (700 feet) long for ICAO markings and 1000 feet long for FAA markings, and begins at the beginning of the Aiming Point markings and ends at the beginning of the 2000 foot markings (600 meters).
57
What are the 3 arrival gates and brief description.
- 1,000 feet AAE; (Configuration Gate); and - The aircraft should be fully configured for landing (gear, flaps and speedbrakes/spoilers) with the Landing Check completed. - 500 feet AAE; (Stable Gate); and - Airspeed: stabilized on target within +10/-5 knots; - Vertical Speed: stabilized, not more than 1,000 fpm; and -Thrust: stabilized to maintain the target airspeed, usually above flight idle. - 200 feet AAE. (Go-Around Gate) - No flight shall continue an approach and landing past the 200 foot Go-Around Gate unless the 1000 and 500 foot gate requirements are fully met.
58
Approach Tracking Tolerances, when do they apply. (Lateral/vertical)
The lateral tolerances are applicable once established on the published lateral approach path, down to the DA/MDA. The vertical tolerances are applicable to the Final Approach segment, down to the DA/MDA
59
Aircraft using Baro-VNAV are limited by the following on Arnav/Gnss approach
- not authorized unless a local field altimeter setting is available; and - Allowable vertical path deviation is limited to +/- 75 ft on the final approach segment; and - Using Baro-VNAV for RNP AR APCH and RNP APCH LNAV/VNAV minima outside of the published TLim range is prohibited
60
If unable prm, who and when should be advised
ATC shall be advised at least 200 miles from destination (U.S. destinations) or no later than top of descent (SYD operations) that the flight is unable to conduct a PRM approach
61
Autoland criteria, when is it permitted in Canada/U.S Who can do it? What if unsatisfacoty?
- In Canada, automatic landing is permitted using CAT I ILS ground installations unless prohibited in the Jeppesen Route Manual 10-10 page or by NOTAM; and - Outside of Canada, automatic landing is only permitted using ILS or GLS ground installations that have published CAT II or CAT III minima; and - All automatic landings shall be conducted by the left seat pilot; and - The PF shall be prepared to immediately disconnect the autopilot and take appropriate action should autopilot performance be unsatisfactory.
62
ILS SA CAT II Approaches Special Authorization (SA) CAT II approaches
based on ILS CAT I facilities which under certain conditions can safely permit minima as low as a DH of 100ft and RVR values of 1200 feet SA CAT II approaches can be identified by the "SA" label in the approach chart title. A major difference between a SA CAT II and a conventional CAT II instrument approach is that the SA CAT II approach may only have lighting systems intended for CAT I approaches. The ILS performance, however, is capable of allowing an aircraft to reach the SA CAT II minima and subsequently autoland. Because of the reduced lighting systems, SA CAT II approaches shall be flown using an Autoland system to touchdown
63
A go-around shall be initiated from a CAT II or CAT III approach when:
a. The required visual reference is not established at DA/DH; or b. Once inside the FAF (or where no FAF exists, the published altitude of glideslope intercept) the RVR drops or fluctuates below the required minima prior to reaching the DA, DH, or AH; or c. Any of the required airborne equipment specified in the AOM for the approach being flown becomes inoperative and is still required to complete the approach (under certain circumstances an approach may be continued, refer to appropriate AOM); or d. Any of the elements in the airport system become inoperative during the approach
64
Min wx for FO landing
1/2 sm (800m) or RVR 2400ft (750m)
65
Reported Visibility Hierarchy for Approaches (Other than CAT II or CAT III)
Touchdown zone RVR, then; Mid-point RVR, if touchdown zone RVR is unavailable, then; Ground Visibility (per FOM 8.3.5.4 - Ground Visibility) if touchdown or mid-point RVR is unavailable. Note: 1. Touchdown zone RVR (or mid-point RVR if touchdown zone RVR is unavailable) is required for all approach operations below 1/2 sm (800m) ground visibility 2. If the RVR value reported is varying or fluctuating, the lowest value must be used.
66
Visual approach requirements
• The ceiling shall be at least 1500' AGL, and reported visibility no less than 5 sm; and • The Flight Crew reports the airport in sight; and • The flight shall maintain VMC unless a revised ATC clearance is obtained; and • Flight Crew shall maintain visual separation from traffic that they are instructed to follow; and • Flight Crew shall use and display any available navigation aids for the intended landing runway, to assist in maintaining the appropriate flight path; and • Flights shall not descend below 1000 feet AAE until established on the appropriate Visual Approach profile to the runway of intended landing.
67
Minimums settings during a Visual Approach
For charted visual procedures, the altimeter bug or minimums alert shall be set as published. For other visual approaches set 500 ft above TDZE. If an instrument approach was previously briefed and set up during arrival preparation, it is acceptable to leave the altimeter bug or minimums alert to the DA/MDA of the instrument approach.
68
Night Visual Approaches are subject the following conditions:
Permitted only in accordance with any applicable restrictions in the Jeppesen Route Manual 10-10 pages; Prohibited at mountainous airports except when specified otherwise in the Jeppesen Route Manual 10-10 pages; and Flights shall not descend below the minimum IFR altitude (e.g., minimum vectoring altitude) until within 10 NM of the landing airport, unless following a VGA procedure
69
The Pilot-in-Command may cancel IFR, subject to the following conditions:
a. The ceiling shall be at least 1500' AGL, and reported visibility no less than 5 sm; b. The flight is within 10 nm of the airport or the airport is in sight; c. Any applicable restrictions in the Jeppesen Route Manual 10-10 pages.
70
For approaches that require lateral maneuvering below minima, the aircraft shall be established on the extended runway centerline by
300 feet AAE
71
Advice to Company and Passengers of Delays on arrival
Workload permitting, Flight Crews should revise the ETA via ACARS if the flight will not arrive within 5 minutes of the arrival time indicated on the DFM. If the aircraft is not at a gate or stand within 30 minutes of wheels down after landing, refer to the Airport Tarmac Delay Program procedures
72
Take-offs are not authorized in what wx conditions
1. Hail; or 2. Heavy ice pellets; or 3. Moderate or heavy freezing rain.
73
Landings are not authorized in what wx conditions
moderate or heavy freezing rain .
74
Lowest temp and time for flight planning
flights will not be planned to operate for periods longer than 90 minutes in areas where the SAT is -65°C or colder
75
When reverse thrust is selected on performance Acars, what is that accounting for?
Prompt selection of max reverse thrust, maintained to 70 kt, and idle thrust to full stop
76
Standard go around climb gradient is?
‐ 2.5%
77
Cabin Emerg Coms a. -immediate contact with the In-Charge Flight Attendant is required b. Signal for Flight Attendants to be Seated. In a prepared emergency landing, approximately two minutes prior to touchdown the Flight Crew c. In a prepared emergency landing, approximately 30 seconds prior to touchdown, the Flight Crew d. Initiating Rapid Deplanement e. Initiating Evacuation f. Preparation for Emergency Descent g. Post Depressurization h. P-EFB, PED or Laptop Fire in the flight deck.
a. “In-Charge Flight Attendant report to/call the flight deck.” b. “Emergency stations - Emergency stations.” c. “Brace for landing, Brace for landing.” d. “Deplane immediately and leave your personal belongings.” e. “Evacuate - Evacuate” with no further instructions. f. “Attention, Flight Attendants secure the cabin, passengers take your seats.” g. “In-Charge Flight Attendant report to/call the flight deck.” h. “ Backup to the flight deck, backup to the flight deck”

A320 (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions