ABStructures_DABelonio (2) Flashcards

1
Q

What is the recommended size of the galvanized welded mesh for the slatted flooring of a
goat and sheep housing?
a. 5 mm x 20mm spacing
b. 3 mm x 20mm spacing
c. 6 mm x 20mm spacing
d. None of the above

A

a. 5 mm x 20mm spacing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the distance of the slatted floor of a goat and sheep housing from the ground?
a. 0.9 m
b. 1.0 m
c. 1.2 m
d. None of the above

A

b. 1.0 m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

For shed type sheep and goat housing, the height of the front eave shall be at least 2m and
the height of the rear eave shall be _____.
a. At least 1.5m
b. Same height as the front eave
c. 0.5m lower than the front eave
d. 2.4m higher

A

a. At least 1.5m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

A mature male goat
a. buck
b. doe
c. ewe
d. kid

A

a. buck

lamb, ewe, ram - sheep
kid, doe, buck - goat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

A slaughterhouse with required facilities and operational procedures to serve any market
a. A
b. AA
c. AAA
d. AAAA

A

c. AAA

a. A (community)
b. AA (local market)
c. AAA (any market)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

NMIS stands for __________.
a. National Manpower for International
Standards

c. Nationwide Meat Institute Service

b. National Meat for International
Standard

d. National Meat Inspection Service

A

d. National Meat Inspection Service

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

It is a place in the slaughter house to supply hot water with temperature of 80 C and is equipped with heating facilities.
a. Boiler Room
b. Personnel area
c. Dressing area
d. Gut room

A

a. Boiler Room

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The meat requiring further examination as declared by a veterinary inspector
a. Spoiled meat
b. Detained meat
c. Condemned meat
d. None of the above

A

b. Detained meat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The dipping of animals in a steam to ready their skin for dehairing
a. Flaying
b. Scalding
c. Gambrelling
d. None of the above

A

b. Scalding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A slaughter house has a throughput of 30 swines per day. What is the recommended dimensions?
a. 8.6 x 5.8 m
b. 12.5 x 6.4 m
c. 23.3 x 15 m
d. 8 x 5 m

A

a. 8.6 x 5.8 m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The slaughter house shall be elevated to at least ____________ above the adjacent ground.
a. 700 mm
b. 1400 mm
c. 600 mm
d. 500 mm

A

c. 600 mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the recommended thickness of the floor slab of a slaughter house?
a. 100 mm
b. 125 mm
c. 150 mm
d. 200 mm

A

c. 150 mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The rebar in a flooring of a slaughter house shall be spaced __________ both ways.
a. 100 mm
b. 125 mm
c. 150 mm
d. 200 mm

A

d. 200 mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the recommended size of reinforcement bar to be used in the flooring for a
slaughter house?
a. 10 mm
b. 12 mm
c. 16 mm
d. 8 mm

A

a. 10 mm (walls)

16 mm (columns, beams)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Anaerobic bacteria that act upon organic materials and in the process, produce biogas
a. Methanogens
b. Acetogens
c. Fermentative bacteria
d. All of the above

A

a. Methanogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The gas composition of biogas
a. 60% CH4 and 40%CO
b. 60% CH4 and 40%CO2
c. 40% CH4 and 60%CO
d. 40% CH4 and 60%CO2

A

b. 60% CH4 and 40%CO2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Organic material used to produce biogas
a. Substrate
b. Scum
c. Sludge
d. Effluent

A

a. Substrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How many layer/s of plasters is applied to the concrete wall of a large biogas digester?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

A

c. 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the recommended minimum diameter of reinforcement for a reinforced digester?
a. 8 mm
b. 10 mm
c. 12 mm
d. 16 mm

A

b. 10 mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The recommended bar spacing for reinforced digester.
a. 0.15m along curve and the horizontal bars
b. 0.15m along curve only
c. 0.15m along vertical
d. 0.15m along curve and along vertical

A

a. 0.15m along curve and the horizontal bars

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

As an AB engineer, what pipe material should you recommend for the exposed gas outlet pipe of a biogas digester located in a site with high intensity of sunlight?
a. GI pipes
b. PVC pipes
c. BI pipes
d. All of the above

A

a. GI pipes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

It is a device along the gas line of a biogas plant designed to stop the propagation of flame.
a. Water trap
b. Flare assembly
c. Flame arrester
d. Gas valves

A

c. Flame arrester

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The PD1152 is otherwise known as _______.
a. Environmental Code on Solid and Liquid Waste Disposal
b. Water Code
c. Philippine Clean Air Act
d. Philippine Clean Water Act

A

a. Environmental Code on Solid and Liquid Waste Disposa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

A classification of manure with at least 20% solids
a. Liquid
b. Slurry
c. Semi solid
d. Solid

A

d. Solid

a. Liquid (0-4%)
b. Slurry (4-10%)
c. Semi solid (10-20%)
d. Solid (20-25%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Residue remaining after water is removed from waste material by evaporation.
a. Moisture content
b. Fixed solids
c. Volatile Solids
d. Total Solids

A

d. Total Solids (evaporation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

That part of total solids remaining after volatile gases driven off at 600C.
a. Volatile Solids
b. Suspended solids
c. Dissolved solids
d. Fixed solids

A

d. Fixed solids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

A part of total solids removed by a filtration procedure.
a. Volatile Solids
b. Suspended solids
c. Dissolved solids
d. Fixed solids

A

b. Suspended solids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Quantity of oxygen needed to satisfy biochemical oxidation of organic matter in waste sample
in 5 days at 20C
a. P2O5
b. COD
c. BOD5
d. K2O

A

c. BOD5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Type of waste collection system recommended for swine buildings according to PAES 414-
1:2002?
a. Scrape systems
b. Gravity drain systems
c. Flush systems
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

The recommended width of scrape alley for dairy and beef cattle according to PAES 414-
1:2002?
a. 2.5 to 4m
b. 1 to 3m
c. 3.5 to 5m
d. 10 to 15m

A

a. 2.5 to 4m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

The recommended width of scrape alley for swine and poultry according to PAES 414-
1:2002?
a. 2.5 to 4m
b. 1 to 3m
c. 3.5 to 5m
d. 10 to 15m

A

b. 1 to 3m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

The specified minimum depth of sludge volume in a storage tank according to PAES 414-1:2002?
a. 0.2m
b. 0.3m
c. 0.1m
d. Not applicable

A

a. 0.2m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

It is defined as the liquid that flows into a containing space
a. Influent
b. Effluent
c. Sludge
d. Slurry

A

a. Influent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

A precipitate resulting from coagulation or sedimentation of liquid waste.
a. Influent
b. Effluent
c. Sludge
d. Slurry

A

c. Sludge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

The minimum freeboard depth of a storage pond as specified in PAES.
a. 0.2m
b. 0.3m
c. 0.1m
d. Not applicable

A

b. 0.3m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

A type of treatment lagoon designed to include treatment volume.
a. Aerobic lagoons
b. Anaerobic lagoons
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above

A

b. Anaerobic lagoons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

A type of treatment lagoon designed on the basis of volatile solids
a. Aerobic lagoons
b. Anaerobic lagoons
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above

A

b. Anaerobic lagoons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

A type of treatment lagoon designed on the basis of BOD5.
a. Aerobic lagoons
b. Anaerobic lagoons
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above

A

a. Aerobic lagoons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

A type of lagoon that can function as aerobic or anaerobic depending on the environment.
a. Mechanically aerated lagoons
b. Long ditches
c. Facultative
d. None of the above

A

c. Facultative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

The design volume of aerobic lagoon also includes sludge volume.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Which of the following should the foundation and footings of a greenhouse shall be able to resist?
a. Uplift
b. Overturning
c. Downward acting loads
d. All of the above

A

a. Uplift

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the minimum depth for the foundations of a permanent greenhouses?
a. 0.35 m
b. 0.4 m
c. 0.45 m
d. 0.5 m

A

c. 0.45 m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

The length of the greenhouse should not exceed __________.
a. 60 m
b. 30 m
c. 40 m
d. 50 m

A

d. 50 m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

The framing of a greenhouse shall be able to withstand maximum wind gusts of _____.
a. 200 km/hr
b. 250 km/hr
c. 150 km/hr
d. 300 km/hr

A

b. 250 km/hr

45
Q

The covering of a greenhouse should be durable as well as economical and should withstand heavy loads like wind gusts of ________.
a. 200 km/hr
b. 250 km/hr
c. 150 km/hr
d. 300 km/hr

A

c. 150 km/hr

46
Q

The roof pitch for a glass greenhouse should be ______ to prevent inside condensation from dripping on plants
a. 58 %
b. 51 %
c. 70 %
d. 2 %

A

b. 51 %

47
Q

What is the maximum spacing required for uniform ventilation for the fans in a greenhouse
structure?
a. 5 m
b. 7.5 m
c. 10 m
d. 2.5 m

A

b. 7.5 m

48
Q

Fans should be located on the __________ side of the greenhouse building?
a. Upwind
b. Downwind
c. Right
d. Left

A

b. Downwind

49
Q

It is a condition that describes the freedom of plant materials, culture medium, confines of
the culture vessel from contaminating microorganisms?
a. asepsis
b. incubation
c. sterilization
d. None of the above

A

a. asepsis

50
Q

It is subjecting of cultures to conditions favorable to the growth of the plant tissue?
a. asepsis
b. incubation
c. sterilization
d. None of the above

A

b. incubation

51
Q

Wooden frames used on concrete floors for stacking bags to prevent direct contact between
the grains and the floor.
a. Pallet
b. Tarima
c. Dunnage
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

52
Q

The recommended size of concrete hollow blocks for the wall of bagged storage warehouse.
a. 4”
b. 6”
c. 8”
d. 10”

A

b. 6”

53
Q

The recommended size of reinforcing bar for the wall of bagged storage warehouse.
a. 10mm
b. 12mm
c. 16mm
d. 8mm

A

b. 12mm

54
Q

What is the recommended spacing of the reinforcing bar for the wall of a bagged storage
warehouse?
a. 600 mm on center, both ways
b. 600 mm on center, vertical
c. 600 mm on center, horizontal
d. 600 mm on center, diagonal

A

a. 600 mm on center, both ways

55
Q

The height of the stacks in a bagged storage warehouse shall not exceed the height of the
walls and a space of at least _________ shall be allowed between the tops of the stacks and roof
frames.
a. 6 m
b. 1 m
c. 2 m
d. 3 m

A

b. 1 m

56
Q

What is the specified standard pallet size
a. 125 cm x 61
b. 215 cm x 61
c. 152 cm x 61 cm
d. 125 cm x 16

A

c. 152 cm x 61 cm

57
Q

It is a recommend stacking method for bagged grains with 14% moisture content and lower.
a. Chinese method
b. Japanese method
c. Filipino method
d. Criss-cross stacking

A

a. Chinese method

58
Q

It is a recommend stacking method for bagged grains with more than 14% moisture content
and higher.
a. Chinese method
b. Japanese method
c. Filipino method
d. Criss-cross stacking

A

b. Japanese method

59
Q

Sacks made of woven polypropelene shall not be stacked more than _________ high.
a. 6 m
b. 1 m
c. 2 m
d. 3 m

A

d. 3 m

60
Q

A granular material of mineral composition such as sand, gravel, shell, crushed and
uncrushed stone or lightweight materials.
a. Aggregates
b. Backfill
c. Base course
d. Borrow

A

a. Aggregates

61
Q

The suitable material used to replace other materials removed during construction
a. Aggregates
b. Backfill
c. Base course
d. Borrow

A

b. Backfill

62
Q

The layer of aggregate, soil-treated aggregate, treated soil, or soil aggregate that rests upon
the subbase or if no subbase, upon the sub-grade
a. aggregates
b. backfill
c. Base course
d. borrow

A

c. Base course

SLAB
BASE
SUBBASE
SUBGRADE

63
Q

A space intended to employ traffic consideration for the transport of agricultural products
a. Highway
b. Road
c. Roadway
d. None of the above

A

c. Roadway

64
Q

The part of the roadway next to the travel way providing lateral support of base and surface
courses used as emergency stopping area for the vehicles.
a. Roadbed
b. Roadway embankment
c. Road shoulder
d. None of the above

A

c. Road shoulder

65
Q

A road side ditch is located at __________.
a. The end of the roadway
b. The edge of the roadway
c. The roadway
d. none of the above

A

b. The edge of the roadway

66
Q

Which of the following is a mandatory requirement in locating a farm-to-market road?
a. The FMR shall conform to the land
use plan of the area.

b. The FMR shall link or be located in the
key production areas of valuable
crops and fisheries.

c. The FMR shall service to mobilize
agricultural products/produce from
the production area to the nearest
existing roadway system.

d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

67
Q

A road used as farm-to-market road
a. Earth road
b. Gravel road
c. Bituminous Road
d. Concrete road
e. All of the above

A

e. All of the above

68
Q

The typical width of farm-to-market road for a one-lane roadway
a. 2 m
b. 4 m
c. 6 m
d. None of the above

A

a. 2 m

69
Q

Which of the following cross section of the road side ditch not specified in the PAES
a. trapezoidal
b. triangular
c. rectangular
d. None of the above

A

d. None of the above

70
Q

In designing farm-to-market roads, what is the recommended minimum radius design for
curvature for flat terrain?
a. 50 m
b. 150 m
c. 500 m
d. None of the above

A

c. 500 m

71
Q

In designing farm-to-market roads, what is the recommended minimum radius design for
curvature for rolling terrain?
a. 50 m
b. 150 m
c. 500 m
d. None of the above

A

c. 500 m

72
Q

The poultry dressing plant shall be located in area with at least _____ distance to dwellings, schools, churches and other public or commercial buildings.
a. 200 m
b. 250 m
c. 300 m
d. 350 m

A

a. 200 m

73
Q

For wall and ceiling surfaces of a poultry dressing/slaughtering plant, it should be ____.
a. Preferably not painted

b. Should be painted white if painting is
required

c. Painted with any light color for sanitary purposes.

d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

74
Q

In PAES 422-1, pipelines carrying potable water is color coded _____.
a. Blue
b. Green
c. White
d. Orange

A

a. Blue

75
Q

The ceiling height for a small scale poultry dressing / slaughtering plant should be at least
______.
a. 2.4 m
b. 3 m
c. 3.7 m
d. 6 m

A

a. 2.4 m

76
Q

The ceiling height for a large scale poultry dressing / slaughtering plant should be at least
______.
a. 2.4 m
b. 3 m
c. 3.7 m
d. 6 m

A

b. 3 m

77
Q

It is a unit consisting of upright containers used for storage and handling of grains in bulk
and provided with necessary equipment and accessories
a. Bulk system
b. Vertical storage
c. Silo
d. None of the above

A

c. Silo

78
Q

The height of the vertical-walled segment of silo.
a. Eave height
b. Equivalent height
c. Overall height
d. Peak height

A

a. Eave height

79
Q

In bin and silo design, it is referred to as the ratio of the equivalent height to the diameter.
a. Slenderness
b. Aspect ratio
c. h/D ratio
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

80
Q

A rectangular bin/silo having a dimension of 6m x 3m x 10m (L x W x H) is classified as ______ based on PAES.
a. Intermediate
b. Slender
c. Retaining
d. Squat

A

b. Slender

81
Q

The wall of a silo shall be _____
a. Corrosion resistant
b. Painted
c. Corrosion resistant and painted
d. Corrosion resistant and not painted

A

d. Corrosion resistant and not painted

82
Q

It is the angle of the material when the grains held starts to move.
a. Angle of friction
b. Angle of repose
c. Angle of surcharge
d. None of the above

A

a. Angle of friction

83
Q

It is a board where the flow of grains at different points of the system at any time will be
reflected
a. Board wall
b. Mimic board
c. Viewing panel
d. None of the above

A

b. Mimic board

84
Q

The equation used in solving the static vertical pressure in bins and silos.
a. Modified Coloumbs Equation
b. Hydrostatic equation
c. Janssen Equation
d. None of the above

A

b. Hydrostatic equation

85
Q

When external loads are applied on a member, it results to ____.
a. Generation of support reactions
b. Development of internal stresses in the member
c. Deformation of the member
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

86
Q

It’s a structural element characterized by having lengths way greater than their cross
sections
a. Line elements
b. Spatial elements
c. Point elements
d. None of the above

A

a. Line elements

87
Q

It’s a structural element characterized by having their area is way larger than their thickness.
a. Line elements
b. Spatial elements
c. Point elements
d. None of the above

A

b. Spatial elements

88
Q

Typical examples of axial members in compressions.
a. Columns
b. Some braces
c. Some truss members
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

89
Q

It is a beam that carries smaller beams.
a. Joists
b. Girder
c. Deep beams
d. All of the above

A

b. Girder

90
Q

It is a planar structural element composed of individual straight members connected together so as to form a rigid configuration. The joints are assumed to be pin-connected.
a. Truss
b. Frame
c. Walls
d. Slabs

A

a. Truss

91
Q

It is a planar structural element composed of individual straight members connected
together so as to form a rigid configuration. The joints are assumed to be fixed-connected.
a. Truss
b. Frame
c. Walls
d. Slabs

A

b. Frame

92
Q

It is a structural element that transmits forces from one member to another
a. Supports and joints
b. Beams
c. Frames
d. Trusses

A

a. Supports and joints

93
Q

It is a type of structural support that does not allow rotation as well as translation.
a. Pin support
b. Roller support
c. Fixed support
d. Rocker support

A

c. Fixed support

94
Q

It is a type of structural support that does not allow translation in both axis but allows
rotation.
a. Pin support
b. Roller support
c. Fixed support
d. Rocker support

A

a. Pin support

95
Q

It is a type of structural support that does not allow translation in one axis only but allows
rotation.
a. Pin support
b. Roller support
c. Fixed support
d. Rocker support

A

b. Roller support

96
Q

The use of internal hinge ________
a. Makes the problem statically
determinate

c. Reduces the degree of static
indeterminacy

b. Makes the problem kinematically
determinate

d. Reduces the degree of kinematic
indeterminacy

A

a. Makes the problem statically
determinate

97
Q

When a truss is loaded at the member and at the joints, the member will experience
__________
a. Axial loading only
b. Flexural loadings only
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above

A

c. Both a and b

98
Q

In analyzing or designing a truss, the joints of a truss are assumed to be __________.
a. Fixed supports
b. Internal hinge
c. Roller supports
d. Link supports

A

b. Internal hinge

99
Q

The degree of freedom for fixed support is __________.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. None of the above

A

d. None of the above

100
Q

Which of the following is an example of line load?
a. Wind forces acting on wall
b. Beam self-weight
c. Beam reaction to column
d. Footing forces to underlying soil

A

b. Beam self-weight

101
Q

In analyzing a truss, all loadings must be applied ____.
a. Anywhere along the member length
b. At the joints only
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above

A

b. At the joints only

102
Q

When external loads are applied on a member, it results to ____.
a. Generation of support reactions
b. Development of internal stresses in
the member
c. Deformation of the member
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

103
Q

It is the intensity of the internal force distribution in the material.
a. Pressure
b. Stress
c. Strain
d. Elastic Modulus

A

b. Stress

104
Q

The slope of a pin support is ____.
a. Zero
b. Non zero
c. A negative number
d. None of the above

A

b. Non zero

105
Q

The slope of a fixed support is ____.
a. Zero
b. Non zero
c. A negative number
d. None of the above

A

a. Zero

106
Q

The deflection of a fixed support is ____.
a. Zero
b. Non zero
c. A negative number
d. None of the above

A

a. Zero

107
Q

A beam fixed on both ends is ____.
a. Statically determinate
b. Statically indeterminate to the first degree
c. Statically determinate to the second degree
d. None of the above

A

d. None of the above

107
Q

It relates the displacement of the structure so that its various parts fit together
a. Equillibrium equations
b. Compatibility conditions
c. Force-deformation relationships
d. All of the above

A

b. Compatibility conditions