ABSITE 2014 Flashcards

1
Q

treatment of T3 gastric adenocarcinoma

A

gastric resection only (CAREFUL - esoph might get adjuvant)

The risks of locoregional and distant recurrence are high for all T2 or more or node-positive gastric cancers even with surgical resection, thus providing rationale for the delivery of neoadjuvant and adjuvant therapies.

Cam 2014

Neoadjuvant and adjuvant therapy not proven to increase survival

Sab 20012

initial chemotherapy regimens for gastric cancer provide little benefi

the survival for patients receiving adjuvant therapy was no better than surgery alone.

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2
Q

best biospy approach for anterior medialstinal mass

A

often amenable to core needle biopsy via a parasternal approach, typically with CT or ultrasound guidance.

If image-guided core needle biopsy expertise is not available, an anterior mediastinotomy (Chamberlain procedure) on the left or the right is appropriate.

Thoracoscopy provides access to all compartments of the mediastinum; however, risk of seeding the pleural space with tumor when this approach is used, as well as the postoperative pain and short hospital admission associated with its use.

NO Cervical mediastinoscopy - does not allow access to the anterior mediastinum but may provide diagnostic tissue should accessible paratracheal precarinal and subcarinal areas appear pathologic in the setting of a mediastinal mass.

Well-circumscribed mass with no evidence of invasion and no associated lymphadenopathy can usually be resected primarily, serving both diagnostic and therapeutic purposes. This includes tumors such as early-stage thymomas, teratomas, mesenchymal tumors, or benign cysts. If lymphoma is suspected, biopsy is mandatory

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3
Q

pulmonary function volumes

functional residual capacity-is a really all functional?

A

ERV, Expiratory reserve volume;
FRC, functional residual capacity - lung volume at end-expiration;
IC, inspiratory capacity;
RV, residual volume, that is, lung volume after forced expiration from FRC;
TLC, total lung capacity;
VC, vital capacity, that is, the maximal volume of gas inspired from RV;
Vt, tidal volume.

NO includes residual volume

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4
Q

physio changes on induction of pheumoparitoneum

A

What else besides increased peak airway pressure and decreased pulmonary compliance?

collapse of basal lung tissue ultimately causing decreased functional residual capacity (FRC), ventilation perfusion ratio (V/Q) mismatch, increase intrapulmonary shunting of blood which all lead to hypoxemia and increased alveolar arterial oxygen gradient

The mechanical effect of pneumoperitoneum is compression of the inferior vena-cava, which causes reduction in venous return leading to decrease cardiac output and increase in the central venous pressure, resulting in increased vascular resistance in the arterial circulation.

Another effect is tachycardia, which is secondary to increased sympathetic discharge, hypercarbia and decreased venous return. The hypercarbia, acidosis, sympathetic stimulation from decreased venous return and vagal stimulation by stretching of peritoneum also disturb the cardiac rhythm.

diaphagm cephalic displacement and thereby decreasing venous return (with increased pressure)

The pooling of blood in the lower extremities increases the stasis and predisposes the deep vein thrombosis (DVT).

Acid-base findings
Systemic peripheral resistance finding
a increased venous pressure and return?

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5
Q

ASD physiology and treatment

A

increase right ventricular pressure?
Incr pulmonary flow output

Larger defects are associated with substantial shunting, which may lead to volume overload of the right atrium, right ventricle, and pulmonary arteries. The magnitude of left-to-right shunting depends on the size of the ASD,

ASD repair is indicated in patients with hemodynamically significant ASD (Qp:Qs > 1.5:1), in the absence of severe and irreversible pulmonary hypertension. Consideration for ASD repair may be given in patients with paradoxical embolism. Surgical repair is the treatment modality of choice. Percutaneous closure is the preferred treatment in patients with ostium secundum ASD and suitable anatomy, in the absence of other cardiac conditions requiring surgical repair.

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6
Q

findings at tetralogy of fallot

A
overriding aorta
right ventricular hypertrophy
VSD
Pulmonary stenosis
(resultant pulmonary htn)
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7
Q

Factors associated with right vs left shift oxygenation hemoglobin curve

A
Right is right - shift curve to right:
INCR temp
INCR CO2
INCR 2,3 DPG
INCR hydrogen (dcr pH)

The curve shifts leftwards in carbon monoxide poisoning - because of binding capsity of CO and fetal hemoglobin - which is why infants do better if transfued with adult blood if in trouble

effect of blood transfusion?

“The data of this study show a decrease of hemoglobin oxygen affinity as a result of blood transfusion in very early preterm infants prone to O2 toxicity

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8
Q

management of distal gastric 2.5 cm polyp with moderate dysplasia

A

endoscopic resection

Wedge?

Subtotal gastrectomy?

Gastric dysplasia (synonym: intraepithelial neoplasia) can have a flat, slightly depressed or polypoid growth pattern. In Europe and North America polypoid dysplasia is termed ‘adenoma’

most commonly affects the lesser curve and the antrum. Histologically, dysplasia is characterised by architectural as well as cytological atypia and is stratified into two grades, low and high. Low grade dysplasia progresses to adenocarcinoma in up 23% of cases within 10 months to 4 years, whereas malignant transformation of high grade dysplasia has been reported to occur in 60–80% of cases.

Fundic gland polyps are the most common type of polyps detected at EGD. ASSOCIATED with PPI NOT H pylori. usually multiple, small (1 cm in diameter) should be removed entirely to confirm the diagnosis because fundic gland polyps rarely exceed this size.

The classic association of gastric hyperplastic polyps has been with mucosal atrophy, whether caused by H pylori infection or autoimmune gastritis. In view of the potential cancer risk, all hyperplastic polyps larger than 1 cm should be excised completely

Gastric adenomas consist of dysplastic epithelial cells that often arise in a background of atrophy and intestinal metaplasia typically associated with H pylori infection. As in the colon, gastric adenomas can be viewed as part of a sequence leading from dysplasia to carcinoma.

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9
Q

sudden abrupt decrease in end tidal CO2

A

what else is checked besides the circuit

CO2 embolus - embolism were hypotension, bradycardia, and an abrupt drop in end-tidal CO2.

Vascular air embolism
decreases in
end-tidal carbon dioxide (ETCO2), and both arterial oxygen
saturation (SaO2) and tension (PO2), along with hypercapnia,
may be detected.

Emboli (Air, Fat, Thrombus) 
 Sudden hypotension (blood loss, caval compression)

Cardiac arrest

Esophageal intubation (respiration of the stomach!)

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10
Q

sudden increase in end-tidal CO2

what other diagnosis is considered besides malignant hyperthermia

A

alveolar hypoventilation is manifested by an increase in end tidal CO2.

Tx: Increasing the tidal volume is the treatment

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11
Q

laboratory findings with hyperaldosterone

A

hypernatremia, hypokalemia, and metabolic alkalosis resulting from the action of aldosterone on the renal distal convoluted tubule (DCT) (ie, enhancing sodium reabsorption and potassium and hydrogen ion excretion).

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12
Q

renin angiotensin system

A

where as it Renin secreted from?

The enzyme renin is secreted by the afferent arterioles of the kidney from specialized cells called granular cells of the juxtaglomerular apparatus in response to three stimuli:

A decrease in arterial blood pressure (that could be related to a decrease in blood volume) as detected by baroreceptors (pressure-sensitive cells). This is the most direct causal link between blood pressure and renin secretion (the other two methods operate via longer pathways).
A decrease in sodium chloride levels in the ultrafiltrate of the nephron. This flow is measured by the macula densa of the juxtaglomerular apparatus.
Sympathetic nervous system activity, which also controls blood pressure, acting through the beta1 adrenergic receptors.
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13
Q

contraindication to laparoscopy

A

Non-correctable hypocoagulability - ABSOLUTE - need hands on massively bleeding vessels

Ascites - Relative

Pulmonary disease

COPD
CHF
Recent MI

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14
Q

most common organism of bacterial peritonitis and cirrhotic with ascites

A

Escherichia coli?
b fragilis
Klebsiella
Staph aureus?

One of the early steps in the development of SBP is a disturbance in gut flora with overgrowth and extraintestinal dissemination of a specific organism, most commonly Escherichia coli

Escherichia coli 	43
Klebsiella pneumoniae 	11
Streptococcus pneumoniae 	9
Other streptococcal species 	19
Enterobacteriaceae 	4
Staphylococcus 	3
Pseudomonas
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15
Q

Most common organism infection and lymphedema

A

Staph?
Group A Strep!?
Pseudomonas?

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16
Q

50% total body surface area burn, hospital date 8, obtunded, hyperglycemia, thrombocytopenia, hyperventilation? what is the cause

A

Burn wound sepsis?

drug reaction

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17
Q

treatment of 1.8 cm squamous cell carcinoma of the lip

A

excision alone

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18
Q

proven benefit of dermal substitute for burns

A

“Integra (dermal regeneration template consisting of bovine collagen, chondroitin-6-sulphate and a silastic membrane.)

® was superior to autograft, allograft or xenograft in terms of wound healing time.[21] However, with regard to wound infection and graft take, Integra® did not produce as good a result.[21,23]”

decreased length of Hospital stay?
Early mobilization?
Decrease infection?

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19
Q

treatment of Cancer found adherent to the Lateral anterior surface of the duodenum

A

en bloc resection includes the third portion of the duodenum?

En bloc resection wedges out involved duodenum with primary repair

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20
Q

what is typically seen on ultrasound with Klatskin

A

ultrasound, which may show intrahepatic biliary ductal dilation

confluence of the right and left hepatic

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21
Q

increases end-tidal CO2 during hepatic resection

A

CO2 air embolus? - this is associated with DECREASED endtital CO2

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22
Q

increase in bilirubin without increase of alkaline phosphatase after hepatic resection

A

hepatic vein obstruction
Budd-Chiari syndrome?
portal venous obstruction?
bleeding?

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23
Q

management of 72-year-old diabetic male with air in the gallbladder wall white count elevated bilirubin right upper quadrant pain

A

cholecystostomy?
Lap cholecystectomy?
open cholecystectomy?

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24
Q

management gunshot wound right third intercostal space
950 mL initial chest tube output
3 iron 50 mL over the next 2 hours
2 units of blood 3 L of crystalloid required for pressure support
white out on x-ray

A

right thoracotomy

endotracheal tube and bronch?

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25
Q

maximum amount of lidocaine 70 kg

A

70x4.5 equals 315

315 divided by 10 equals 31.5
because there at 10 mg per milliliter

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26
Q

nerve the crosses behind current sternocleidomastoid and runs with the sternal cleidomastoid artery

A

spinal accessory 11?

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27
Q

Indications for choledocho duodenostomy versus hepatic J

A

choledochoduodenostomy for injury distal to cystic duct

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28
Q

safest approach in complicated infected gallbladER

A

lateral retraction of the gallbladder and dissection to visualize direct anterior cystic artery and cystic duct

This is better than dome down?

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29
Q

what is management After ERCP for common duct stone extraction, patient develops right abdominal pain, white count was 10.5, air is seen in the retroperitoneum without free air

A

IV antibiotics?
Gastrografin upper GI?
Drainage procedure of the right upper quadrant her retroperitoneum

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30
Q

management of sick young IV drug abuser with splenic abscess

A

splenectomy - these bleed like shit if you poke them with CT

CT-guided drainage versus splenectomy

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31
Q

management of pseudoaneurysm infected and IV drug user at the bifurcation of the femoral artery

A

extra-anatomic native bypass

PTFE graft?

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32
Q

what was released and component separation just lateral to the rectus abdominis

A

anterior sheath?

Posterior sheath?
Internal/external obliques transversus abdominis

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33
Q

most important to ensure future relapse in a hernia that was previously done open inguinal

A

Medial pubic symphysis repair of floor

laparoscopic approach with mesh?

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34
Q

5 cm erythematous umbilical hernia and 72-year-old diabetic male with this management chronic cough and smoker

A

Laparoscopic exploration repair with mesh?

reduction and elective repair
Reduction and optimize pulmonary status with admission to the hospital

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35
Q

management of cirrhotic with ascites showing skin necrosis at umbilical hernia no leak yet

A

umbilical resection and repair with biologic mesh?

umbilical resection and primary fascial repair

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36
Q

most common inguinal hernia in layman

A

indirect?

Direct?

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37
Q

Worst prognosis for metastatic colon cancer to the liver

A

metachronous liver lesion?
bilateral liver metastases
liver metastasis to hepatic artery node

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38
Q

management 40-year-old on oral contraceptives with a 6 cm hepatic lesion identified a noncontrast CT for renal stones

A

Start patient to stop oral birth control and follow up in 6 months with repeat CT scan?

repeat CT scan with IV contrast hepatic protocol

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39
Q

management of intractable pain in patient is a former alcoholic multiple bouts of pancreatitis tortuous dilated and creatinine duct

A

transduodenal sphincteroplasty
Endoscopic sphincterotomy?
Lateral pancreaticoduodenectomy

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40
Q

perforation at the GE junction the esophagus what is the best access

A

Left thoracotomy?

Thoracoabdominal incision?

x right thoracotomy

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41
Q

Was found the perforation site with endoscopy

A

aortic arch?

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42
Q

How he is adenocarcinoma at the gastroesophageal junction managed

A

esophagectomy

with possible gastrectomy..

this is classified as gastric cancer?

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43
Q

most likely cause of diffuse gastritis in a patient being treated for pneumonia

A

mucosal ischemia?

Antibiotic mucosal irritation?

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44
Q

best test to diagnose 2-day-old neonate found to have cecal dilation of meconium ileus and distal decompressed colon

A

sweat chloride?

Other choice rectal biopsy

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45
Q

Previous 28 week premie on tube feeds develops pneumatosis intestinalis was management

A

antibiotics and mass becomes septic?

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46
Q

5 cm proximal to the retropubic loss (sphincter?) 2.5 cm sessile adenocarcinoma what is the next step

A

colonoscopy?

endoscopic ultrasound?

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47
Q

management of
30-year-old Crohn’s patient maintained and sulfasalazine develops erythematous spontaneously draining perirectal
24 hours after admission on antibiotics patient continues a be febrile

A

steroids?

exam under anesthesia unroofed abscesses
infliximab?

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48
Q

where is the source with no fluctuance no erythema exquisite tenderness posterior rectal exam

A

Intersphincteric?

Ileal ischial fossa?

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49
Q

goodsals rule

A

anterior radial straight

posterior curvilinear

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50
Q

treatment of 5 cm right lobe Hurthle cell cancer of the thyroid

A

total thyroidectomy

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51
Q

2 peripheral cell cancers of the thyroid get post thyroidectomy iodine 131 residual gland ablation

A

Hurthle cell is a subset of follicular

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52
Q

most likely thyroid cancer to metastasize to bone after 10 or more years postresection

A

medullary? Hematogenous spread?

Versus papillary nodal spread

53
Q

treatment of adenocarcinoma of the gallbladder found on pathology after cholecystectomy seemed to invade the lamina propria

A

nothing until it invades passed lamina propria into muscularis?

54
Q

management of 65-year-old healthy male undergoing a left hemicolectomy found to incidentally have metastases and segments 2 and 3 of the liver

A

Left lobectomy?
lateral segmentectomy?
In addition to the left hemicolectomy

55
Q

minimal timeframe that Cimino can be used for first run dialysis

A

6 weeks?

56
Q

Most important indication for inferior vena cava filter in patient with femoral vein thrombosis

A

propagation thrombus

spinal cord injury

57
Q

contraindication for removal of IVC filter in a trauma patient one to 2 years post injury

A

current DVT

IVC filter full thrombus
Migration superior to renal veins?
irregularity of IVC wall

58
Q

best test to confirm adrenal insufficiency in patient in the ICU with long-term steroid use for ulcerative colitis

A

stimulation test

24 urine cortisol

59
Q

most important matching after ABO compatibility for renal transplant

A

HLA?

Final recipient serum reactivity to donor cells?

60
Q

2.5 cm tubo-ovarian abscess and febrile patient with white count

A

antibiotics - is for PID (even if sick) - because big risk of complications (infertilitiy) in intervention.

image guided drainage?
Laparoscopic drainage?

Most TOAs (60-80%) resolve with antibiotic administration. If patients do not respond 2-3 days:

Once operation is undertaken, a conservative approach with unilateral adnexectomy for one-side TOA is appropriate if future fertility or hormone production is desired.[66] Similarly, drainage of the abscess by either laparotomy, percutaneous drainage, or a colpotomy incision may preserve the patient’s fertility.

appropriately, laparoscopy may be useful for identifying loculations of pus requiring drainage. An enlarging pelvic mass may indicate bleeding secondary to vessel erosion or a ruptured abscess. Unresolved abscesses may be drained percutaneously via posterior colpotomy, under computed tomographic (CT) or ultrasonographic guidance, laparoscopically, or through laparotomy.

61
Q

complication of etomidate

A

adrenal insufficiency

62
Q

indication the has been retroperitoneal lymphatic spread of nonseminomatous germ cell cancer after orchiectomy

A

AFP?

63
Q

Antibiotics least likely to cause penicillin allergy

A

aminoglycoside ?

piperacillin?
Unasyn?

64
Q

most likely blood finding after 6 units of RBCs, 2 units of FFP

A

thrombocytopenia

65
Q

described wound healing after split thickness skin graft

A

Ingrowth from her follicles

second choice-epithelialization and wound contracture

66
Q

first cell to show up and wound healing

A

neutrophil

67
Q

nutrition recommendations for 70 kg female who remains intubated in the ICU after colon resection for diverticulitis

A

30 kcal per kilogram per day +3 g protein?

35 + 1.5 g

68
Q

refeeding syndrome

A

hypophosphatemia

hyperglycemia?

69
Q

Best test for platelet function

A

bleeding time

70
Q

2 years status post Roux-en-Y bariatric procedure patient has lost and deep tendon reflexes, bilateral leg numbness what her is deficient

A

B12?

Niacin?
Thiamine?

71
Q

How does magnesium work as a tocolytic

A

competitively antagonize his calcium -
YES

calcium antagonist, it decreases calcium intracellular concentration and inhibits contraction process

myosin light chain inhibitor

72
Q

Findings of torsades

A

relationship of potassium

Conditions associated with torsade include the following:

Hypokalemia,
hypomagnesemia,
hypocalcemia

73
Q

initial treatment of symptomatic hypercalcemia

A

normal saline and loop diuretic?

Versus
Volume expansion and mitomycin

74
Q

best indication of sufficient resuscitation in 78-year-old female

A

urine output 0.5 cc per kilogram per hour

75
Q

BI-RADS 2 recommendation

A

continue normal screening?

76
Q

percentage of breast cancer related to BRCA one and 2

A

one percent?

Together, BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutations account for about 20 to 25 percent of hereditary breast cancers (1) and about 5 to 10 percent of all breast cancers (2).

77
Q

BRCA associated with paternal breast cancer

A

BRCA 2?

78
Q

management after Partial mastectomy demonstrating ductal adenocarcinoma 1 cm and sentinel node negative triple negative

A

radiation

79
Q

what is gained by radiation and breast cancer

A

decreased local recurrence

does not increase overall survival?

80
Q

best study design to determine etiology of rare surgical event

A

cohort
case reports

may analysis
randomized prospective patella trial

81
Q

what is the type of study would be used to evaluate negative and positive sentinel lymph node breast patients that go on to axillary dissection or nothing.

A

Cohort study

double blinded randomized controlled trial?

82
Q

what is the power of the study referred to

A

the probability of observing a treatment effect when it is present?

83
Q

the best use of meltaanalysis

A

to determine most effective treatment

84
Q

the best approach for Zenker’s diverticulum that is 4 cm and has failed laparoscopic approach

A

open left cervical incision

ac is approached from the left because the recurrent laryngeal nerve is longer on the left side and remains in the tracheoesophageal groove over its entire cervical course as it is descends into the chest. These factors serve to protect it from a direct or stretch injury that can occur with the rotation and manipulation of the laryngotracheal complex that occurs with this procedure.

85
Q

3 months status post revision-open Nissen over a 52 French bougie with 2 cm 360° fundoplication - patient begins having significant early satiety with postprandial pain

A

fundoplication too loose (“slipped Nissen”?).

vagus nerve injury?

86
Q

Origin of the left anterior descending mammary artery

A

The internal thoracic artery arises from the subclavian artery near its origin.

It travels downward on the inside of the ribcage, approximately a centimeter from the sides of the sternum, and thus medial to the nipple. It is accompanied by the internal thoracic vein.

It runs deep to the internal intercostal muscles, but superficial to the transverse thoracic muscles.

It continues downward until it divides into the musculophrenic artery and the superior epigastric artery around the sixth intercostal space.

87
Q

blood supply of the head of the pancreas

A

Superior versus inferior

88
Q

management 17 baseball player with swelling of the arm after 3 games in a row
subclavian stenosis

A

first rib

89
Q

study to evaluate the dialysis access after report that there is increased outflow pressure

A

arteriogram from fistula?

90
Q

next step after open tibial fracture and posterior knee dislocation arterial and venous anastomoses

A

fasciotomy

versus intraoperative duplex ultrasound?

91
Q

Nerve responsible for extension of the toe and ankle

A

deep peroneal nerve versus

sciatic nerve

92
Q

next step after patient loses toe dorsiflexion after being in stirrups or 5 hours

A

measure anterior compartment

93
Q

most common cause of chylous ascites in adults

A

cancer

Iatrogenic,?

94
Q

6-month-old baby cyst present at birth just lateral to the eyebrow parents a mild increase in size

A

dermatofibroma?

Mental origin?

95
Q

rigid bronchoscope with 90° viewing port was used for what anatomy to retrieve foreign body

A

right upper lobe?

96
Q

medication used for breast pain and mechanism decreases prolactin

A

bromocriptine

97
Q

most likely source of lymphedema and management of breast cancer

A

with dissection anterior to the axillary vein?
Dissection superior to axillary vein?
Radiation therapy?

98
Q

best surveillance after excision of 8 cm sarcoma tumor with invasion of the fascia

A

surveillance:
chest imaging if >stage I):
q3-6mos x2-3yrs,

then
q6mos x2yrs if >stage I, then q1yr, consider

primary site imaging periodically x10yrs

q 6 mo MRI and CT ches
q 6 mo MRI and CXR
q.6 month MRI with PET scan x5 years?

99
Q

Proven to decrease the ventilator acquired pneumonia

A

head of bed 30°

versus early trach?

100
Q

Most important surgical management for open crush wound

A

remove devitalized tissue

Serial debridement?

101
Q

management 12-year-old boy who transected the body of his pancreas on handlebars

A

distal pancreatectomy

102
Q

management low velocity gunshot wound through and through injury to separate areas of the second portion of the duodenum

A

primary repair?

103
Q

Status post B2 10 years ago now with vomiting and white count

A

afferent limb

104
Q

gunshot wound to the mid ureter

A

ureterostomy

105
Q

4 weeks status post renal transplant at the incision 8 cm fluid collection most common diagnosis

A

lymphocele?
Hernia?
Abscess?

106
Q

Physiology after relieving pneumothorax with chest tube

A

increased cardiac output?

107
Q

steps performed upper management of empyema

A

decortication

Pleurodesed mechanical

108
Q

cells seen in white clot

A

platelet aggregates

Not seeing the antibodies to heparin

109
Q

advantage of epidural over spinal block

A

A Spinal acts immediately.

epidural may take anywhere between 10 and 20 minutes before it becomes effective.

A spinal involves a single injection into the spinal sac. epidural, may attach a catheter to the area.

  1. Spinals need fewer medicines, but may cause more headaches and low blood pressure.
  2. Your risks of post operative damage from this anesthesia are slightly lesser when you are going for a spinal.
110
Q

management Patient 4 cm asymptomatic sliding hernia

A

observe

111
Q

most common organism breast abscess lactating woman

A

staph aureus?

112
Q

balloon pump physiology

A

increased filling coronary arteries

increased preload and diastolic left ventricular volume?

Decrease afterload with balloon suction right before systole - yes

113
Q

management Flail chest and 6 rib fractures blood gas okay

A

epidural analgesia

Plate ribs??

114
Q

Major physiology contributing to decompensation with flail chest

A

pulmonary contusion what is the physiology?

Mechanical flailing of the chest with Increased compliance

115
Q

large ovarian cyst treatment

A

Persistent simple ovarian cysts larger than 5-10 cm, especially if symptomatic, and complex ovarian cysts should be considered for surgical removal.

The surgical approaches include an open incisional technique (laparotomy) and a minimally invasive technique (laparoscopy) with very small incisions. Whichever method is used, the goals remain the same; they include the following:

To confirm the diagnosis of an ovarian cyst
To assess whether the cyst appears to be malignant
To obtain fluid from peritoneal washings for cytologic assessment
To remove the entire cyst intact for pathologic analysis - This may mean removing the entire ovary
To assess the opposite ovary and other abdominal organs
To perform additional surgery as indicated

laparoscopic ovary pexied?

116
Q

Treatment type one choledochal cyst

A

choledochoduodenostomy?

choledochoj - not sure this was a choice..

117
Q

management 60-year-old calcium 11 (normal 10.2) parathyroid hormone level high, “osteoporosis on DEXA scan” vitamin D level okay

A

parathyroidectomy?

Repeat parathyroid hormone levels 6 months?

118
Q

tertiary hyperparathyroidism

A

uncontrolled hyperparathyroidism after kidney transplantation

119
Q

lung cancer responsible for SIADH

versus parathyroid hormone like hormone

A

SIADH = SMALL CELL

parathyroid hormone like hormone = squamous cell

120
Q

immediate treatment patient and her burns are given succinylcholine and goes into cardiac arrest

A

insulin and glucose?

Calcium gluconate not sure this was a choice

121
Q

patient was Amsterdam criteria positive what is the gene mutation responsible

A

Lynch syndrome (HNPCC or hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer

endometrium (secondary most common up to 50%), ovary, stomach, small intestine, hepatobiliary tract, upper urinary tract, brain, and skin.

** DNA mismatch repair* MLH, MSH, PMS

HNPCC?

ACC??

122
Q

gene target for melanoma drug

A

b-raf

Zelboraf, known as vemurafenib or PLX4032

123
Q

What French bougie sould be used to wrap the Nissen fundoplication

A

52?

124
Q

advantages of treating 80% total body surface area burn with catheter graft and dermal substitute

A

decreased infection rate?

Shorter hospital stay

125
Q

The thymus is located

A

anterior mediastinum

adjacent to the posterior surface of the sternum

anterior pericardium.

Thymic tumors are the most common anterior mediastinal neoplasms.

126
Q

Chamberlain procedure

A

incision is made over the second rib,
(and the second costal cartilage can be excised - but not always required)

Adequate biopsies can usually be obtained without excision of the cartilage, and a video mediastinoscope can be inserted into the wound to allow for visualization

127
Q

Major Respiratory Changes With Age

A

Decrease chest wall compliance

Decline in maximum inspiratory and expiratory force

Decrease in lung elasticity (small airway collapse)

Ventilation-perfusion mismatch

Decrease in Pao2, no change in Paco2

Decreased FVC and FEV1

Decline in ventilator responses to hypoxemia and hypercapnia

Decline in normal airway protective mechanisms (increased risk for aspiration)

128
Q

Pulmonary physiology after an operative procedure.

A

First, loss of functional residual capacity is present in almost all patients.