Abridged Set focused on Study Guide Flashcards

1
Q

Papule

A

Something you can feel (i.e., solid, elevated, circumscribed, less than 1 cm diameter) caused by superficial thickening in the epidermis.

Examples: elevated nevus (mole), lichen planus, molluscum, wart (verruca).

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2
Q
Elevated skin lesions that are greater than 1 cm in diameter are called:
A. bullae.
B. papules.
C. nodules.
D. furuncles.
A

C. nodules.

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3
Q
The nurse notices that a patient has a solid, elevated, circumscribed lesion that is less than 1 cm in diameter. When documenting this finding, the nurse would report this as a:
A. nodule.
B. bulla.
C. papule.
D. vesicle.
A

C. papule

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4
Q

During the examination of a patient, the nurse notices that the patient has several small, flat macules on the posterior portion of her thorax. These macules are less than 1 cm wide. Another name for these macules is:

A

freckles.

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5
Q
Mr. Shea is a 51-year-old patient who presents with complaints of a skin lesion. On examination, you note a linear skin lesion that runs along a nerve route. Which of the following terms best describes this lesion?
A. Zosteriform
B. Annular
C. Dermatome
D. Shingles
A

A. Zosteriform

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6
Q

ConfluentShapes/configurations of lesions, examples

A

lesions run together (e.g., urticaria [hives])

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7
Q

TargetShapes/configurations of lesions, examples

A

(or iris), resembles the iris of an eye, concentric rings of color in the lesions (e.g., erythema multiforme).

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8
Q

The nurse just noted from a patient’s medical record that the patient has a lesion that is confluent in nature. On examination, the nurse would expect to find:

A

lesions that run together.

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9
Q

List the 4 assessment techniques and know what is involved with each

A

Inspection – begins the moment you meet a person and develops a “general survey.” Always comes first.

Palpation – follows inspection and confirms points noted during inspection. Applies sense of touch to assess these factors: texture, temperature, moisture, organ location and size, as well as any swelling, vibration or pulsation, rigidity or spasticity, creptitation, presence of lumps or masses, and presence of tenderness or pain

Percussion – tapping the person’s skin with short, sharp strokes to assess underlying structures. Depicts the location, size, and density of an underlying organ.

Auscultation – listening to sounds produced by the body, such as heart and blood vessels and lungs and abdomen.

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10
Q

The nurse is performing a general survey. Which action is a component of the general survey?

A

Observing the patient’s body stature and nutritional status

The general survey is a study of the whole person that includes observation of physical appearance, body structure, mobility, and behavior.

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11
Q

When listening to heart sounds, the nurse knows that S1:

A) is louder than S2 at the apex of the heart.
B) indicates the beginning of diastole.
C) coincides with the carotid artery pulse.
D) is caused by closure of the semilunar valves.

A

A. is heard louder than S2 at the apex of the heart.

Although S1 and S2 are heard throughout the heart, S1 is louder than S2 at the apex of the heart.

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12
Q

Confluent

Shapes/configurations of lesions, examples

A

lesions run together (e.g., urticaria [hives])

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13
Q

Target

Shapes/configurations of lesions, examples

A

(or iris), resembles the iris of an eye, concentric rings of color in the lesions (e.g., erythema multiforme).

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14
Q

When performing a physical assessment, the technique the nurse will always use first is:

  1. palpation.
  2. inspection.
  3. percussion.
  4. auscultation.
A
  1. inspection.
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15
Q

The nurse is planning to assess new memory with a patient. The best way for the nurse to do this would be to:

A

give him the Four Unrelated Words Test

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16
Q

During the history, a patient tells the nurse that “it feels like the room is spinning around me.” The nurse would document this as:

A

vertigo

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17
Q
During an examination, the patient states he is hearing a buzzing sound and says that it is “driving me crazy!” The nurse recognizes that this symptom indicates:		
A. vertigo.
B. pruritus.
C. tinnitus.    
D. cholesteatoma.
A

C. tinnitus.

Tinnitus is a sound that comes from within a person; it can be a ringing, crackling, or buzzing sound. It accompanies some hearing or ear disorders.

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18
Q

Syncope

A

Sudden loss of strength, a temporary loss of consciousness (a faint) due to lack of cerebral blood flow (e.g., low BP).

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19
Q

The inspection phase of the physical assessment:

  1. yields little information.
  2. takes time and reveals a surprising amount of information.
  3. may be somewhat uncomfortable for the expert practitioner.
  4. requires a quick glance at the patient’s body systems before proceeding on with palpation.
A
  1. takes time and reveals a surprising amount of information.
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20
Q
The nurse is examining a 3-month-old infant. While holding the thumbs on the infant’s inner mid thighs and the fingers outside on the hips, touching the greater trochanter, the nurse adducts the legs until the nurse’s thumbs touch and then abducts the legs until the infant’s knees touch the table. The nurse does not notice any “clunking” sounds and is confident to record a:
A) positive Allis test.
B) negative Allis test.
C) positive Ortolani's sign.
D) negative Ortolani's sign.
A

D. negative Ortolani’s sign

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21
Q

Allis test

Ortolani maneuver

A
  • Ortolani maneuver – checks hips for congenital dislocation in infants up to 1 year old by flexing knees and adducting legs. Normally feels smooth and has no sound. Hip instability feels like a clunk as the head of the femur pops back into place – positive Ortolani sign.
  • Allis test – checking hip dislocation in infants by comparing leg lengths. Place baby’s feet flat on the table and flex the knees up – scan the tops of the knees, normally they are at the same elevation.
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22
Q
The nurse places a key in the hand of a patient and he identifies it as a penny. What term would the nurse use to describe this finding?
A. Extinction
B. Astereognosis
C. Graphesthesia
D. Tactile discrimination
A

B. Astereognosis

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23
Q
A woman who is 8 months pregnant comments that she has noticed a change in posture and is having lower back pain. The nurse tells her that during pregnancy women have a posture shift to compensate for the enlarging fetus. This shift in posture is known as:
A) lordosis.
B) scoliosis.
C) ankylosis.
D) kyphosis.
A

A) lordosis.

Lordosis compensates for the enlarging fetus, which would shift the center of balance forward. This shift in balance in turn creates strain on the low back muscles, felt as low back pain during late pregnancy by some women. Scoliosis is lateral curvature of portions of the spine; ankylosis is extreme flexion of the wrist, as seen with severe rheumatoid arthritis; and kyphosis is an enhanced thoracic curvature of the spine.

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24
Q
The nurse is explaining the mechanism of the growth of long bones to a mother of a toddler. Where does lengthening of the bones occur?
A) Bursa
B) Calcaneus
C) Epiphyses
D) Tuberosities
A

C) Epiphyses

25
Q

What are:

stereognosis/astereognosis

graphasthesia

A
  • Stereognosis – ability to recognize objects by feeling their forms, sizes, and weights.
  • Astereognosis – inability to identify object correctly. Occurs in sensory cortex lesions (e.g. stroke)
  • Graphasthesia – ability to “read” a number by having it traced on the skin (good measure of sensory loss if person cannot make the hand movements needed for stereognosis, as occurs in arthritis)
26
Q

lordosis

kyphosis

A
  • Lordosis compensates for the enlarging fetus, which would shift the center of balance forward. This shift in balance in turn creates strain on the low back muscles, felt as low back pain during late pregnancy by some women.
  • Kyphosis is an enhanced thoracic curvature of the spine.
27
Q

Nodule

A

Solid, elevated, hard or soft, larger than 1 cm. May extend deeper into dermis than papule. Examples: xanthoma, fibroma, intradermal nevi.

28
Q

Keloid

A

A hypertrophic scar. The resulting skin level is elevated by excess scar tissue, which is invasive beyond the site of original injury. May increase long after healing occurs. Looks smooth, rubbery, and “clawlike” and has a higher incidence among African Americans.

29
Q

Macule

A

Solely a color change, flat and circumscribed, of less than 1 cm. Examples: freckles, flat nevi, hypopigmentation, petechiae, measles, scarlet fever.

30
Q

Wheal

A

Superficial, raised, transient and erythematous; slightly irregular shape due to edema (fluid held diffusely in the tissues). Examples: mosquito bite, allergic reaction, dermographism.

31
Q

Zosteriform Shapes/configurations of lesions, examples

A

linear arrangement along a unilateral nerve route (e.g., herpes zoster)

32
Q

lordosis

kyphosis

A
  • Lordosis compensates for the enlarging fetus, which would shift the center of balance forward. This shift in balance in turn creates strain on the low back muscles, felt as low back pain during late pregnancy by some women.
  • Kyphosis is an enhanced thoracic curvature of the spine.
33
Q

During a breast health interview, a patient states that she has noticed pain in her left breast. The nurse’s most appropriate response to this would be:
A) “Don’t worry about the pain; breast cancer is not painful.”
B) “I would like some more information about the pain in your left breast.”
C) “Oh, I had pain like that after my son was born; it turned out to be a blocked milk duct.”
D) “Breast pain is almost always the result of benign breast disease.”

A

B. I would like some more information about the pain in your left breast.

34
Q

The nurse is assisting with a self-breast examination clinic. Which of these women reflect abnormal findings during the inspection phase of breast examination?
A) Woman whose nipples are in different planes (deviated)
B) Woman whose left breast is slightly larger than her right
C) Nonpregnant woman whose skin is marked with linear striae
D) Pregnant woman whose breasts have a fine blue network of veins visible under the skin

A

A) Woman whose nipples are in different planes (deviated)

35
Q

During a discussion for a men’s health group, the nurse relates that the group with the highest incidence of prostate cancer is:

A. Hispanics.
B. Asian Americans.
C. African-Americans.
D. American Indians.

A

C. African-Americans.

36
Q

A 40-year-old black man is in the office for his annual physical. Which statement regarding the prostate-specific antigen (PSA) blood test is true, according to the American Cancer Society? The PSA:

A. should be done at age 50 years.
B. is only necessary if there is a family history of prostate cancer.
C. should be done with the visit.
D. should be done at age 45 years.

A

D. should be done at age 45 years.

37
Q

The nurse is reviewing risk factors for breast cancer. Which of these women have risk factors that place them at a higher risk for breast cancer?
A) 37 year old who is slightly overweight
B) 42 year old who has had ovarian cancer
C) 45 year old who has never been pregnant
D) 65 year old whose mother had breast cancer

A

D) 65 year old whose mother had breast cancer

38
Q
A nurse notices that a patient has ascites, which indicates the presence of:
A) fluid.
B) feces.
C) flatus.
D) fibroid tumors.
A

A) fluid

Ascites is free fluid in the peritoneal cavity, and occurs with heart failure, portal hypertension, cirrhosis, hepatitis, pancreatitis, and cancer.

39
Q
The nurse is reviewing a patient’s medical record and notes that he is in a coma. Using the Glasgow Coma Scale, which number indicates that the patient is in a coma?	 
A. 11
B. 8
C. 6
D. 18
A

C. 6

40
Q

Know the Glascow Coma scale and what it means

A

Defines level of consciousness with a numeric value

  • A fully, alert normal person has a score of 15.
  • A score of 7 or less reflects coma.
41
Q
A 30-year-old woman tells the nurse that she has been very unsteady and has had difficulty in maintaining her balance. Which area of the brain would the nurse be concerned about with these findings?
A. Occipital lobe
B. Cerebellum
C. Frontal lobe
D. Temporal Lobe
A

B. Cerebellum

42
Q

The nurse is assessing orientation in a 79-year-old patient. Which of these responses would lead the nurse to conclude that this patient is oriented?

A

“I know that my name is John. I am at the hospital in Spokane. I couldn’t tell you what date it is, but I know that it is February of a new year —2010.”

43
Q
When assessing muscle strength, the nurse observes that a patient has complete range of motion against gravity with full resistance. What Grade should the nurse record using a 0 to 5 point scale?  
A. 5
B. 3
C. 0
D. 1
A

A. 5

44
Q

During an admission assessment, the nurse notices that a male patient has an enlarged and rather thick skull. The nurse suspects acromegaly and would further assess for what?

A

coarse facial features

45
Q

A patient is especially worried about an area of skin on her feet that has turned white. The health care provider has told her that her condition is vitiligo. The nurse explains to her that vitiligo is:

A

caused by the complete absence of melanin pigment in that particular area.

Vitiligo is the complete absence of melanin pigment in patchy areas of white or light skin on the face, neck, hands, feet, body folds, and around orifices—otherwise the depigmented skin is normal.

46
Q

A patient is complaining of pain in his joints that is worse in the morning, is better after he has moved around for awhile, and then gets worse again if he sits for long periods of time. The nurse should assess for other signs of what problem?

A) Tendinitis
B) Osteoarthritis
C) Rheumatoid arthritis
D) Intermittent claudication

A

C) Rheumatoid arthritis

47
Q
A patient is being assessed for range of joint movement. The nurse asks him to move his arm in toward the center of his body. This movement is called:
A) flexion.
B) abduction.
C) adduction.
D) extension.
A

C) adduction

48
Q
patient tells the nurse that she is having a hard time bringing her hand to her mouth when she eats or tries to brush her teeth. The nurse knows that for her to move her hand to her mouth, she must perform which movement?
A) flexion.
B) abduction.
C) adduction.
D) extension.
A

A) flexion

49
Q
A patient who has had rheumatoid arthritis for years comes to the clinic to ask about changes in her fingers. The nurse will assess for signs of what problems?
A) Heberden's nodes
B) Bouchard's nodules
C) Swan neck deformities
D) Dupuytren's contractures
A

C) Swan neck deformities

50
Q
The nurse is checking the range of motion in a patient's knee and knows that the knee is capable of which movement(s)?
A) Flexion and extension
B) Supination and pronation
C) Circumduction
D) Inversion and eversion
A

A) Flexion and extension

51
Q

In a patient with acromegaly, the nurse will expect to discover which assessment findings?

A

Overgrowth of bone in the face, head, hands, and feet

52
Q

When assessing a patient’s lungs, the nurse recalls that the left lung:

A) consists of two lobes.
B) is divided by the horizontal fissure.
C) consists primarily of an upper lobe on the posterior chest.
D) is shorter than the right lung because of the underlying stomach.

A

A) consists of two lobes.

Pages: 413-414. The left lung has two lobes, and the right lung has three lobes. The right lung is shorter than the left lung because of the underlying liver. The left lung is narrower than the right lung because the heart bulges to the left. The posterior chest is almost all lower lobe.

53
Q

During an assessment, the nurse knows that expected assessment findings in the normal adult lung include the presence of:

A) adventitious sounds and limited chest expansion.
B) increased tactile fremitus and dull percussion tones.
C) muffled voice sounds and symmetrical tactile fremitus.
D) absent voice sounds and hyperresonant percussion tones.

A

C) muffled voice sounds and symmetrical tactile fremitus.

Pages: 429-430. Normal lung findings include symmetric chest expansion, resonant percussion tones, vesicular breath sounds over the peripheral lung fields, muffled voice sounds, and no adventitious sounds.

54
Q

Categories used to describe abnormal heart sounds

A
Location 
Timing
Duration
Frequency
Intensity
Quality
Change with reposition?
55
Q

When examining a patient’s cranial nerve (CN) function, the nurse remembers that the muscles in the neck that are innervated by CN XI are the:

A. trapezius and sternomandibular
B. spinal accessory and omohyoid
C. sternomastoid and trapezius.
D. sternomandibular and spinal accessory.

A

C. sternomastoid and trapezius.

56
Q

Which of these techniques best describes the test the nurse should use to assess the function of cranial nerve X?

A. Assess movement of the hard palate and uvula with the gag reflex.
B. Ask the patient to say “ahhh” and watch for movement of the soft palate and uvula.
C. Have the patient stick out the tongue and observe for tremors or pulling to one side.
D. Observe the patient’s ability to articulate specific words.

A

B. Ask the patient to say “ahhh” and watch for movement of the soft palate and uvula.

57
Q

The nurse is testing the function of cranial nerve XI. Which of these best describes the response the nurse should expect if the nerve is intact? The patient:

A. sticks tongue out midline without tremors or deviation.
B. demonstrates ability to hear normal conversation.
C. moves the head and shoulders against resistance with equal strength.
D. follows an object with eyes without nystagmus or strabismus.

A

C. moves the head and shoulders against resistance with equal strength.

58
Q

In performing a breast examination, the nurse knows that it is especially important to examine the upper outer quadrant of the breast. The reason for this is that the upper outer quadrant is:
A) the largest quadrant of the breast.
B) the location of most breast tumors.
C) where most of the suspensory ligaments attach.
D) more prone to injury and calcifications than other locations in the breast.

A

B) the location of most breast tumors.