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Jaspie - OB-Gyn > Abortion, GTDs, PPH > Flashcards

Abortion, GTDs, PPH Flashcards

1
Q

Abortion definition

A

Termination of pregnancy (spontaneous or intentional) prior to 20 weeks gestation or less than 500 grams

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2
Q

Recurrent abortion

A

Three or more consecutive spontaneous abortions

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3
Q

80% of all abortions in the first 12 weeks

A

Spontaneous abortion

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4
Q

MC etiology of spontaneous abortion

A

Chromosomal abnormality (aneuploidy)

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5
Q

Most common aneuploidy causing spontaneous abortions

A

Autosomal trisomy

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6
Q

Second most common aneuploidy causing spontaneous abortion

A

Monosomy X (Turner’s)

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7
Q

Congenital anomaly specific to DM mothers

A

Caudal regression

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8
Q

Patient complains of painful bleeding and cervix is closed upon IE - diagnosis?

A

Threatened abortion

Bed rest

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9
Q

Where is Retrochoreal hemorrhage seen?

A

Ultrasound finding in threatened or inevitable abortion

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10
Q

Bleeding and pain with leaking AF; cervix is dilated upon IE

A

Inevitable abortion
Do ultrasound to assess cardiac activity
If absent cardiac activity, do D&C

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11
Q

Passage of meaty material, cervix is closed. Empty cavity on ultrasound.

A

Complete abortion

Observe

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12
Q

Heavy bleeding with passage of meaty material. Cervix is dilated.

A

Incomplete abortion

Retained products seen on ultrasound
Emergency D&C

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13
Q

With what type of abortion can you do elective D&C?

A

Missed abortion

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14
Q

Habitual abortion

A

Aka recurrent abortions

Three or more consecutive spontaneous abortions < 20 weeks AOG

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15
Q

Incompetent cervix

A

Short cervix <3 cm long with widening of internal cervical canal (beaking/ funneling)

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16
Q

Where do you see beaking or funneling of the cervix?

A

Incompetent cervix

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17
Q

Screening test for APAS?

A

Lupus anticoagulant

Anti-cardiolipin antibodies

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18
Q

Infectious causes of recurrent pregnancy losses

A

Listeria monocytogenes

Toxoplasma gondii

19
Q

Management for antiphospholipid syndrome as etiology of recurrent pregnancy losses?

A

Low dose aspirin and heparin

20
Q

Two types of cervical cerclage

A

McDonald cerclage - most common

Shirodkar cerclage - for failed McDonald

21
Q

When is a McDonald cerclage done and removed?

A

Done between 14-18 weeks, removed at 37 weeks

22
Q

Most commonly used cerclage

A

McDonald

23
Q

Cerclage used if there’s a structural abnormality in the cervix

A

Shorodkar

24
Q

Resumption of ovulation after an abortion?

A

2 weeks

25
Q

Two types of benign GTDs

A

Complete mole and incomplete mole

26
Q

GTDs refer to abnormalities in what structure?

A

Chorionic villi

27
Q

3 types of malignant GTDs

A

Persistent/ invasive mole
Choriocarcinoma
Placental site tumor

28
Q

Cause of a complete/ classic mole

A

Dyspermic fertilization of an EMPTY EGG by one NORMAL SPERM

29
Q

Cause of a partial/ incomplete mole

A

Dyspermic fertilization of a NORMAL EGG by 2 NORMAL SPERMS

30
Q

MC symptom of complete mole

A

Vaginal bleeding before 12 weeks

31
Q

Most common finding in complete mole

A

Uterine enlargement out of proportion to AOG

32
Q

HCG levels in complete mole

A

> 100,000

33
Q

Which benign GTD is more associated with theca lutein cysts?

A

Complete mole

34
Q

Dyspermic fertilization of an empty egg by one normal sperm

A

Complete/ classic mole

35
Q

Gold standard for identifying molar pregnancies

A

Ultrasonography

36
Q

MC metastasis of moles

A

Lungs

37
Q

Treatment of choice for H. mole

A

Suction curettage

38
Q

Second most common site for metastasis of GTT

A

Vagina

39
Q

Post partum hemorrhage definition

A

NSD: > 500 ml
CS: > 1000 ml

After completion of 3rd stage of labor

40
Q

Most important risk factor in PPH

A

Uterine atony

41
Q

Absence of decidua basalis and imperfect development of fibrinoid layer

A

Placenta accreta

42
Q

Mgt of placenta accreta

A

Prompt hysterectomy

Immediate blood replacement

43
Q

Organism that can be cultured from septic abortus

A

Clostridium sordelli

Jaspie - OB-Gyn (12 decks)

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