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ABOMS > ABOMS > Flashcards

ABOMS Flashcards

1
Q

Is extension or flexion worse in a brain injury?

A

extension

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2
Q

What is seen 1st on the retina during ocular exam in people diabetes

A

micro aneurysms

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3
Q

Why does propofol cause bradycardia and hypotension?

A

inhibits baroreceptors

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4
Q

Transcaruncular incision landmarks

A

Incise between caruncle and plica semilunaris

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5
Q

Sensory nerve to tip of nose

A

ext ciliary
nasociliary nerve
anterior ethmoidal nerve

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6
Q

Nerve injured in hip graft

A

iliohypogastric nerve

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7
Q

Deltopec artery supply

A

internal mammary artery

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8
Q

Hypokalemic periodic paralysis vs GBS after surgery

A

hypokalemia has low K and recovers quickly

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9
Q

Tissue layer depth for chemical peels

A

superficial-0.06
medium-0.45
deep-0.60

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10
Q

Hardest tooth position for coronectomy

A

position most likely to mobilize roots

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11
Q

What is type 4 nec fasc?

A

fungal

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12
Q

Body burn % estimate

A

Rule of 9s

18: chest, back
9: each arm, head, each leg surface

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13
Q

Min % Improvement in fev1 with bronchodilator

A

12%

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14
Q

Exact insertion point of superior head lateral pterygoid

A

Originates from greater wing of sphenoid

Inserts into articular disc and fibrous capsule

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15
Q

What type of flap is a buccal fat pad?

A

axial

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16
Q

Precedex MOA

A

alpha-2 agonist

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17
Q

What size LMA would you use on a patient who weighs 50kg?

A

4

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18
Q

A NIDDM pt with hyperosmolar nonketotic state would have hyponatremia?

A

false: Normal lytes, increased Cr and osms

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19
Q

Why fat graft after superficial parotidectomy

A

prevent frey’s syndrome

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20
Q

During trauma which nerve is injured with which bone fracture? CN 1,3,4,6

A

1-ethmoid
3-
4-occipital
6-temporoparietal

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21
Q

Which part of face loses the most volume with age

A

malar

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22
Q

During neck trauma what is the most frequent indication for trach?

A

blunt neck trauma

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23
Q

How do you prevent recurrence of odontogenic myxoma

A

cryotherapy

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24
Q

How does a myxoma grow?

A

mitosis

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25
Q

Change on lateral ceph after SARPE

A

clockwise rotation of maxilla

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26
Q

To prevent iatrogenic fracture of the sphenoid and orbital bone during sarpe which cuts have to be done adequately?

A

pterygomaxillary/tuberosity

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27
Q

Most common cardiac side effect of peds with succinylcholine

A

bradycardia

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28
Q

A lefort 2 is done for which developmental abnormality?

A

Binder’s syndrome

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29
Q

Maxillary and mandibular alveolar bone is derived from which arch?

A

1st branchial, ectoderm

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30
Q

What does BMP stimulate?

A

mesenchymal stem cells

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31
Q

What ABG value will lead you to believe that an ashthmatic is pending respiratory failure?

A

increased CO2

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32
Q

Trauma to face anterior 2/3 tongue have anesthesia and tongue drops to side of injury. What nerves are damaged?

A

lingual and hypoglossal

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33
Q

What preoperative treatment could you do to avoid hyperpigmentation after laser?

A

trentoin and azaleic acid

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34
Q

Ex fix is indicated for which fracture?

A

resorbed edentulous mandible

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35
Q

Eyelid test shows laxity on lower lid, what procedure would you do?

A

canthopexy

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36
Q

Surgery in which zone can result in shoulder injury?

A

2B

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37
Q

Local anesthesia toxicity is increased in pediatric patient with simultaneous use of

A

opioids

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38
Q

An increased dose adjustment is needed for patients with myasthenia gravis for which paralytic?

A

succ

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39
Q

During cleft lip repair which layer of orbicularis oris needs to be re- approximated for good white roll?

A

horizontal

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40
Q

What do you use to treat cocaine induced HTN?

A

diltiazem

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41
Q

Frey’s syndrome crossover

A

damage to auriculotemporal

PS connected to sympathetic

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42
Q

When placing extraoral drain draining pterygomandibular abscess drain is placed where?

A

superficial to medial pterygoid, deep to ramus

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43
Q

Pt with fever malaise horners syndrome has abscess where?

A

post styloid lateral pharyngeal abscess

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44
Q

What is true about skin graft around implant indications?

A

may be the only choice due to volume in cancer patients

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45
Q

What percentage of full bony impacted canines come into occlusion after uncovering?

A

75

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46
Q

Maximum relapse you would expect after maxillary down graft

A

2.3mm

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47
Q

What is the disadvantage of using DO on a 20mm high anterior mandible to fill a defect of 20mm?

A

vector maintenance

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48
Q

An orbital abscess causes vision loss by:

A

venous thrombosis

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49
Q

Where does reduction of dorsal hump take place?

A

superficial to bone and cartilage

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50
Q

Chronic TMJ pain and GI problem which NSAID is best?

A

etodolac

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51
Q

Which medicine should you not use on a patient with parkinsons?

A

droperidol

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52
Q

What is same for both obstructive and restrictive lung disease?

A

TV

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53
Q

Nonunion after LF I most commonly caused by:

A

bruxism

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54
Q

When do you cranialize frontal sinus?

A

comminuted anterior and posterior table

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55
Q

Trigger zones for Trigeminal neuralgia are distributed in areas innervated by which nerves?

A

CN V2 and 3

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56
Q

Normal RR for 3 year old

A

24-40

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57
Q

Which is not a good choice for cranial and frontal developmental abnormality?

a. autograft
b. allograft
c. cranial advancement
d. subcranial LF3

A

D

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58
Q

MC bacteria in odontogenic infections

a. strep
b. staph
c. bacteroides
d. actino

A

a.strep

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59
Q

Pulseless rhythm is seen in:

A

WPW

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60
Q

Ion uptake by Fentanyl in the stomach where acid is present leads to:

a. faster onset
b. short acting
c. delayed onset

A

c. delayed onset

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61
Q

What is beneficial for someone with Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?

A

expand volume

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62
Q

Homograft rejection is mediated by:

A

cellular immunity

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63
Q

What is true about burkitts?

A

extranodal spread is seen in GI Tract of Americans

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64
Q

23 yo AA M with maxillary submucosal painful swelling for the past 2 months

A

actino

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65
Q

Orbital trauma what causes loss of crease in upper eyelid?

A

levator disinsertion

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66
Q

Lab value you check to see muscular dystrophy

A

creatinine kinase

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67
Q

How is BMP made?

a. distillation from freeze dried bone
b. polymerizing BMP amino acids
c. gene splicing into cells

A

b

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68
Q

How do you correct ectropion with 4mm scleral show?

A

lateral canthopexy

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69
Q

Implant placed in incisor region the tooth was previously endo treated then had infection and was removed how will you ensure papilla will grow

A

papilla will grow if the distance from the bone crest to contact is 5mm

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70
Q

What determines longevity of implant placed in posterior maxilla?

A

use of a longer implant than shorter implant

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71
Q

Thalessemia and facial deformity leads to what kind of hypoplasia?

A

sagittal (vertical)

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72
Q

First stage of metabolic phases

A

ebb

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73
Q

Difference between imbibition and inosculation

A

Imbibition- graft absorbs (imbibe) nutrients from underlying recipient bed

Inosculation- blood vessels in skin graft grow to meet the vessels (inosculate = kiss) of the recipient bed

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74
Q

Doing a vestibulopathy and floor lowering procedure with a 0.7mm skin graft, what is most likely late complication?

A

hair growth

papillary dermis is 0.45, reticular (has hair follicles) is 0.6, so this depth would grow hair

Normal STSG is ~0.015”

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75
Q

Precedex – Alpha 2 agonist, how does it affect a child also getting sevoflourane?

A

requires less sevo

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76
Q

Crouzon’s – how does it affect mandible growth?

A

variable

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77
Q

What does mineralized bone graft provide better?

A

osteoconduction

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78
Q

Maxilla and mandible are from which brachial arches?

A

1st

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79
Q

Minimal space required “for an implant-supported overdenture”

A

12

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80
Q

Definition of the Keystone area

A

where nasal bones and upper lateral cartilages overlap

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81
Q

Treatment of lacrimal duct injury

A

cannulation for 3-4 months

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82
Q

Minimum amount of time for consolidation of distraction for implant placement

A

2 months

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83
Q

Large parotid mass with nerve-involvement symptoms… what is the next step?

A

FNA

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84
Q

Where do you see a pterygomandibular space infection?

A

Above the angle and below the ear

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85
Q

What determined onset of a local anesthetic?

A

dissociation constant (pKa)

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86
Q

Triceps out but biceps work.. where is the lesion?

A

C7/8

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87
Q

Some lady with gingival overgrowth.. they show histology which is full of lymphocytes… what is the lesion?

A

leukemia

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88
Q

What is responsible for cat scratch disease?

A

Gm – bacillus, bartonella

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89
Q

In an oculomotor palsy, where does the eye look?

A

down and out

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90
Q

What is the test for hyperparathyroidism?

A

Parathyroid immunoassay

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91
Q

What is protective against PONV?

A

smoking

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92
Q

Which increases the risk of alveolar osteitis?

A

age >25

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93
Q

What is treatment for serotonin syndrome?

A

cyproheptadine

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94
Q

Where will a STSG not work?

A

scalp avulsion to skull

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95
Q

Artery supplying the scapular free flap

A

Circumflex scapular

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96
Q

Artery supplying the iliac crest free flap

A

deep iliac circumflex

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97
Q

Which is true of lichen planus?

A

it can become malignant

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98
Q

Young lady with boyfriend with history of an STI now has TMJ septic arthritis…bacteria?

A

gongococcal

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99
Q

On pediatric rheumatoid arthritis of the TMJ – do steroid injections work?

A

no

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100
Q

Why wait 3 months for primary cheiloplasty?

A

muscle maturation

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101
Q

What is a contraindication to an LMA?

A

Limits to positive pressure, cannot position other than supine, doesn’t prevent aspiration

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102
Q

Feature most likely to indicate nerve injury during thirds removal?

A

darkening of root

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103
Q

Medial osteotomy of a BSSO too high what happens?

A

condyle stays on distal segment

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104
Q

Rushton Bodies are found in:

A

Lateral radicular cysts

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105
Q

Correct dose of lidocaine in micrograms/min/kg to treat ventricular fib

A

1-1.5mg

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106
Q

position of upper eyelid in primary gaze in relation to limbus

A

2-3mm inferior

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107
Q

best way to monitor blood loss in trauma patient

A

CVP

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108
Q

position for CSF leak

A

semi fowler

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109
Q

osteotomy for LF III

A

FZ suture extending into inferior orbital fissure

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110
Q

temperature that necrosis bone during implant

A

47

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111
Q

In lip switch where is mucosa sutured to?

A

periosteum at depth of vestibule

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112
Q

difference between staple and TMI

A

TMI requires less bone

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113
Q

what percentage of discs recapture after arthroscopy

A

0-10

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114
Q

which noise of TMJ has best prognosis

A

early opening and late click

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115
Q

how is pain felt if disc perforation

A

subchondral nociceptors

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116
Q

what nerve is damaged above condylotomy

A

auriculotemporal

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117
Q

RA diagnostic aid

A

ANA

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118
Q

MC AVM site after LFI

A

descending palatine

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119
Q

area most resistant to RPE

A

mid palatal suture

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120
Q

stripping of which muscles causes condylar sag after IVRO

A

medial pterygoid and masseter

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121
Q

what causes immediate relapse following BSSO

A

proximal segment distraction during fixation

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122
Q

What do patients with VME have?

A

decreased masticatory force

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123
Q

SARPE in which patients?

A

> 18 with >5mm transverse

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124
Q

MC bad split in BSSO

A

buccal plate fracture

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125
Q

microscopic anatomy of lingual nerve

A

10-25 fascicles

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126
Q

graft with more long term shrinkage

A

STSG

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127
Q

maxillary vein plus what make retromandibular vein?

A

superficial temporal

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128
Q

what type of bond exists between HA and bone?

A

chemical

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129
Q

cant feel pulse in anterior temporalis, what to do next?

A

discard and use posterior

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130
Q

mentalis I/O

A

I-dermis of skin

O-mental tubercle

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131
Q

how does freeze dried bone work?

A

osteoconduction/provides BMP

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132
Q

pec major blood supply

A

thoracoacromial

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133
Q

what muscle during AICBH causes limp

A

tensor fascia lata, psoas

134
Q

best age for hard tissue manipulation in cleft kids

A

9-11

135
Q

Fetal alcohol characteristics

A

epicanthal folds, indistinct philtrum

136
Q

moebius syndrome

A

CN 6 and 7 palsy

facial droop, crossed eyes

137
Q
  • Symptoms: malaise, cramps, weakness, constipation

* EKG: ST segment depression, inverted T waves, large U waves, prolonged PR interval.

A

hypokalemia

138
Q
  • > 5.5 mmol/L
  • Symptoms: palpitations, muscle pain, muscle weakness, numbness
  • EKG: peaked T waves, prolonged PR interval, widened QRS complex, small P waves
  • Tx: calcium gluconate, insulin/glucose
A

hyperkalemia

139
Q

contraindication to lag screws

A

comminuted fractures, oblique fractures

140
Q

absolute indication for hardware removal

A

loose

141
Q

oral and esophageal candidiasis treatment

A

nystatin or systemic fluconazole

142
Q

Cerebellopontine angle tumor causing symptoms of trigeminal neuralgia. What kind of tumor most likely

A

schwannoma

143
Q

long term complication of hyphema

A

glaucoma

144
Q

tidal volume for child on ventilator

A

5-10

145
Q

staging of cancer patient with boney involvement

A

T4

146
Q

what kind of cells are associated with epulis of newborn?

A

granular cells

147
Q

blood supply of inferior turbinate

A

sphenopalatine from internal maxillary

148
Q

muscle that closes eustachian tube

A

levator

149
Q

muscle not important in velopharyngeal competance

A

superior constrictor

150
Q

buccal cellulitis with blue hue in child

A

hemophilus

151
Q

Want antibiotic concentration to be what in relation to minimum inhibitory concentration?

A

less than

152
Q

when to have abx before OR?

A

30 min

153
Q

hypoglossal nerve in relation to hyoglossus and mylohyoid

A

lateral and above hyoglossus, medial to mylohyoid

154
Q

accessory TMJ ligaments

A

stylo and sphenomandibular

155
Q

Relation of the upper lateral cartilages to the nasal bones:

A

underneath

156
Q

Murmur that is continuous through systolic and diastolic

A

PDA

157
Q

valve most commonly involved in endocarditis

A

tricuspid

158
Q

best screening for cardiac contusion

A

ekg

159
Q

paralytic for renal failure

A

atracurium

160
Q

siadh treatment

A

fluid restriction, conivaptan

161
Q

eye findings in hypertension

A

Funduscopic examination shows arteriolar constriction, arteriovenous nicking, vascular wall changes, flame-shaped hemorrhages, cotton-wool spots, yellow hard exudates, and optic disk edema.

162
Q

cluster headache characteristics

A

unilateral, congestion, lacrimation

163
Q

What RDI is indication for treatment in child with craniofacial anomaly?

A

10

164
Q

After birth what part of the mandible shows the least growth?

A

symphysis

165
Q

Muscle of facial expression that does not attach to bone?

A

risorius

166
Q

chance of unaffected parents having second cleft child

A

4
Cl +/- CP: 1: 700
CP only: 1:2000

Primary relative: CL +/- CP: 3.3%
CP only: 2%

One affected child: 2-5% Second child
Two affected children: 9-12%

167
Q

Craniopharyngeoma resembles what histologiclly

A

ameloblastoma

168
Q

Innervation of Palatoglossus

A

vagus, it’s the only tongue muscle not innervated by XII

169
Q

thyroid IMA rate

A

7.5%

170
Q

dysphagia, cheilosis, esophageal webs

A

plummer vinson, esophageal cancer

171
Q

MC tooth to show hyperplastic pulpitis

A

primary molar

172
Q

Fungal infection the Type I diabetics

A

mucor

173
Q

when eyelid raises w/ pterygoid function

A

marcus gunn/jaw winking

174
Q

medial strabismus is caused by damage to what muscle

A

lateral rectus

175
Q

ewings sarcoma is most related to

A

non-hodgkin’s lymphoma and neuroblastoma histologically

176
Q

digastric innervation

A

anterior: CN V
posterior: CN VII

177
Q

tongue drops down before palatal closure

A

true

178
Q

temporal branch muscles

A

frontalis

orbic oculi

179
Q

zygomatic branch muscles

A

orbic oculi
zygomaticus major/minor
levator labii superioris
levator labii superioris alaeque nasi

180
Q

buccal branch muscles

A

buccinator

orbic oris

181
Q

mandibular branch muscles

A

depressor anguli oris
depressor labii inferioris
mentalis

182
Q

cervical branch muscles

A

platysma

183
Q

what does aortic stenosis do to MAP?

A

decreases

184
Q

What factor in the coagulation cascade activates complement, clotting and kinin?

A

Extrinsic pathway: activated by TF/trauma

Intrinsic pathway: activated by HMW kininogen, prekallekerin

185
Q

Pros and cons of DCIA hip graft

A

Pros

  • excellent source of both BONE and SOFT TISSUE for composite defects
  • most ANATOMIC reconstruction of the mandible
  • can provide HEIGHT & WIDTH of the native mandible
  • great for implant placement
  • internal oblique muscle: can be used for soft tissue component and avoid bulky cutaneous skin paddle

Cons

  • skin paddle has limited mobility
  • bone stock limited to 16cm
  • NOT sufficient for total mandibular recon
  • osteotomies have to be performed lateral to the ilium to preserve the vascular supply on the medial surface
  • vascular pedicle is short
186
Q

MC arrhythmia in sudden cardiac death

A

V fib

187
Q

Marcus-Gunn: Pupil and the Jaw-winking phenomenon

A

An aberrant connection appears to exist between the motor branches of the trigeminal nerve (CN V3) innervating the external pterygoid muscle and the fibers of the superior division of the oculomotor nerve (CN III) that innervate the levator superioris muscle of the upper eyelid

188
Q

what does maxillary sinus drain into

A

middle meatus

189
Q

When do palatal shelves fuse-related to tongue dropping down?

A

8 weeks

190
Q

muscle not involved in speech and most involved in speech

A

tensor

levator

191
Q

pt with congenital micrognathia also has defect in what bones

A

malleus, incus

192
Q

minimum bone to allow immediate implant at sinus lift

A

4-5mm

193
Q

what does a minor salivary gland in sjogrens show

A

50+ lymphocytes, 1 focus per 4mm

194
Q

venoirritation and thrombophlebitis during injection versed

A

propylene glycol

195
Q

criteria for positive DPL

A

100k RBC
500 WBC
+ gram stain

196
Q

MC arrhythmia in hyperthyroid

A

sinus tach

197
Q

MOA of metformin

A

Decreases glucose production and increases insulin sensitivity

198
Q

MOA cyclosporine

A

inhibits t cell proliferation and activation

199
Q

distance from upper brow to center of pupil

A

25mm

200
Q

what syndrome is associated with coup-de-gras defect

A

romberg (progressive facial atrophy)

201
Q

malar eminence relationship to lateral canthus

A

10mm lateral, 15mm inferior

202
Q

normal palpebral fissure

A

8-12mm women

7-10 men

203
Q

relationship of medial and lateral canthus

A

lateral is 4mm superior

204
Q

most likely prognostic factor for OKC recurrence

A

type of keratin

205
Q

3 muscles surrounding scap flap

A

teres major, minor, tricep

206
Q

blood supply to genioplasty

A

periosteum

207
Q

MC ped orbital fx

A

roof

208
Q

ramsey hunt syndrome

A

caused by herpes

facial paralysis plus auditory nerve damage

209
Q

MOA TCA

A

blocks NE reuptake

210
Q

pregnancy PFT

A

dec FRC, inc TV

211
Q

least predictable area of soft tissue during BSSO

A

lower lip

212
Q

what does wedge pressure of pulm catheter measure

A

L end diastolic

213
Q

nerve most at risk during subgaleal brow lift

A

supraorbital

214
Q

what is exposed during open sky approach to bleph

A

septum

215
Q

the ability to distract the lower lid by how much means need for eyelid procedure

A

8mm

216
Q

arch length discrepancy is MC associated with

A

impacted 3rds, buccal canines

217
Q

latency time from benign tumor to sarcoma

A

5-12 years

218
Q

max bone tibia

A

40cc

219
Q

what causes loss of supraorbital crease after orbital trauma

A

enophthalmos

220
Q

what causes tinnel’s sign

A

percussion proximal to injury

221
Q

increased alk phos but normal calcium and phos

A

pagets

222
Q

branchial cleft cyst is located where?

A

lateral

223
Q

acute sinusitis bacteria

A

step pneumo
staph aureus
h inf
m catarrhalis

224
Q

nosocomial sinus infection bacteria

A

pseudomonas

225
Q

chronic sinusitis bacteria

A

bacteroides
proprionobacteria
alpha/beta hemolytic strep

226
Q

cavernous sinus thrombosis affects what first

A

CN VI

227
Q

how does TB spread?

A

hemotologically

228
Q

b fragilis tx

A

flagyl

clinda

229
Q

MC location for pindborg

A

CEOT mand, then max molar

230
Q

what are lisegang rings seen in

A

CEOT (pindborg)

231
Q

recurrent ranula tx

A

excise sublingual gland

232
Q

abx that interfere with protein binding

A

aminoglycosides
tetracyclines
clinda
erythromycin

233
Q

muellers muscle is under what type of control

A

sympathetic

234
Q

kcal in 2400 of D5LR

A

480

235
Q

enzyme elevated in MI

A

CK-MB, troponin

236
Q

why cant do trap flap after neck dissection

A

transverse cervical a may be disturbed

237
Q

what inhalational shouldnt be used in children

A

desflurane

238
Q

what makes local more potent?

A

lipid solubility

239
Q

how does damaged articular cartilage heal?

A

forming fibrocartilage

240
Q

What happens to the synovial fluid in the TMJ in a patient w/RA?

A

decreased viscosity

241
Q

After a Lefort I osteotomy, a patient has a strange aura and diplopia, what is the cause?

A

cavernous sinus thrombosis

242
Q

What type of occlusal splint will cause more loading on the TMJ?

A

anterior primary contact

243
Q

Compression of which part of the brain, or what type of herniation will result in anisicoria

A

temporal lobe compression

transtentorial herniation

244
Q

What type of flap is the temporalis flap?

A

Axial

245
Q

What is the correct pressure setting of CPAP for a patient with OSA?

A

7-15

246
Q

What artery does not contribute to the frontal flap to the nose?

A

Superficial temporal

-Supratrochlear, supraorbital & dorsal nasal DO

247
Q

Why do skin grafts differ between children & adults?

A

Child – no redundant skin, more elasticity

248
Q

What separates the fat pads in the lower lid?

A

Inferior oblique separates medial & central pads

249
Q

What is the pathway of dissection for an open rhinoplasty?

A

Over perichondrium, under periosteum

250
Q

Where is the sensation lost after harvesting a sural nerve graft?

A

Dorsal & lateral foot/ankle

251
Q

What is the major disadvantage of Abbe flap?

A

commissure recon

252
Q

Which is the most potent vasoconstrictor?

A

NE

253
Q

What is minimum that is required on the lower lateral cartilages for tip support?

A

5-7mm

254
Q

What bacteria are most involved with pericoronitis?

A

a. Peptostreptococcus
b. Fusobacterium
c. Spirochetes
d. Bacteroides

255
Q

What bacteria from the maxillary sinus is the most likely cause for meningitis?

A

h flu

256
Q

What muscle opens the Eustachian tube?

A

tensor

257
Q

What is the length of the nares, when compared to the columella?

A

2:3

258
Q

You displace a 5 mm portion of the palatal root of a 1st molar into the sinus, what do you do first?

A

irrigate & suction then X-ray in 2 planes

259
Q

Von Willebrand’s disease labs

A

elevated PTT and BT

260
Q

What is the dose of lidocaine to treat multifocal PVC’s?

A

2-4

261
Q

Where should you set the low limit alarm on a pulse oximeter?

A

94

262
Q

A pulse oximter reading of 90% corresponds to a pO2 of?

A

60mm hg

263
Q

How does heparin work?

A

Inactivates Xa and potentiates antithrombin III

264
Q

What is the pollybeak deformity?

A

a. Convexity of nasal supratip, relative to the rest of the nose.
b. Complication following rhinoplasty – inadequate reduction of the superior
septal angle, a transfixion incision that is not adequately reconstructed
and/or postoperative scarring in the supratip region
c. Also called parrot’s beak deformity

265
Q

Duration of local anesthesia is related to?

A

Degree of protein binding ability

266
Q

An increase of 25% in the diameter of an implant gives what increase in the surface area of the implant?

A

10%

267
Q

What are the risks of total parathyroidectomy

A

osteomalacia

268
Q

What is the source of bleeding in an epidural hematoma

A

Middle meningeal or posterior meningeal arteries

269
Q

What are the signs & symptoms associated with an epidural hematoma

A

Pupil dilation, hemiparesis, decerebration, LOC

270
Q

What are the most common signs associated with a subdural hematoma

A

Anisicoria & motor deficit

271
Q

what structures are damaged with deep laceration anterior to masseter

A

facial nerve, parotid duct, transverse facial artery

272
Q

why do kids have higher incidence of ankylosis

A

thin cortical bone

273
Q

soft tissue requirement for extraoral implant

A

1mm thick without hair follice

274
Q

max bone pos iliac crest

A

100-120

275
Q

when harvesting dermis graft, what structures survive

A

sebaceous gland

276
Q

nitrous contraindication

A

repeat otitis media
sinus infection
GI obstruction
closed head injury

277
Q

eye symptom of SLE

A

iritis

278
Q

what cranial nerve leads to no consensual, direst reaction in affected eye and normal function in unaffected eye

A

CN III

279
Q

vascular supply to inferior turbinate

A

sphenopalatine

280
Q

what type of injuries can lead to anisicoria

A

temporal lobe compression

transtentorial herniation

281
Q

what separates fat pads in lower lid

A

inferior oblique separates medial and central pads

282
Q

sensation of sural nerve

A

dorsal and lateral foot/ankle

283
Q

minimum LLC for tip support

A

5-7

284
Q

bacteria for pericoronitis

A

peptosctreptococcus
fusobacterium
spirochetes
bacteroides

285
Q

increase by 25% of diameter gives what increase to surface area

A

10%

286
Q

signs and symptoms of epidural hematoma

A

pupil dilation
hemiparesis
decerebrate
LOC

287
Q

signs and symptoms of subdural hematoma

A

anisicoria

motor defecit

288
Q

what DFD does thalessemia lead to

A

VME

289
Q

class II heart failure meds

A

beta blocker and ACE

290
Q

which rib for costochondral graft in child

A

7

or 8-9

291
Q

what do you see on arthroscopy in someone with late osteoarthritis

A

subchondral bone exposure

292
Q

rhythm strip with double humped p wave

A

lef atrial enlargement

293
Q

how does radiofrequency coblation work

A

radiofrequency plasma field

294
Q

taste nerve tongue

A

pos third is CN IX

ant 2/3 is CN VII

295
Q

ideal TAD placement

A

between premolars

296
Q

cytokine seen in TMJ Synovium

A

TNF-alpha

297
Q

what drug are people with MG sensitive to?

A

non depolarizing paralytics

298
Q

labs in hyper para

A

low phos, high alk phos

299
Q

paralysis of lower half of face

A

central

300
Q

inferior border of level II

A

hyoid and carotid

301
Q

what does IS measure

A

VC

302
Q

where do osteoprogenitor cells come from 8 days after surgery

A

macrophages

303
Q

most likely sign of IAN injury

A

darkening of root canals

304
Q

which fracture is lowest prognosis

A

root fracture with intrusion

305
Q

pradaxa MOA

A

direct thrombin inhibitor

306
Q

degrees difference between frankfurt horizontal and natural head position M/F

A

male: 3.18
female: 4.41

307
Q

what happens when HA injected into TMJ space

A

crystal induced arthropathies

308
Q

minimum opening for pulp revascularization

A

1mm

309
Q

rate of pulp revascularization

A

0.5-1mm per day

310
Q

cytokine for healthy TMJ

A

IL-10

311
Q

desmoplastic fibroma characteristics

A

effects children, benign

312
Q

damage to the lingual nerve can cause atrophy of what?

A

fungiform papilla

313
Q

what does acanthomatous ameloblastoma resemble?

A

SCCa

314
Q

digeorge syndrome triad

A

palate disfunction, learning disability, chromosome 22 deletion

315
Q

how can you give more distance to fibula flap

A

ligation of deep tibial artery

316
Q

proper therapy for partial ear avulsion

A

dermabrasion with posterior pouch

317
Q

how to preserve autologous fat grafting

A

atraumatic dissection of adipose tissue

318
Q

split thickness graft location most likely to fail

A

exposed calvarial site

319
Q

how does AML present intraorally

A

hyperplastic gingiva

320
Q

rdi formula

A

RERA+hypopnea+apneax60

321
Q

apnea definition

A

desat by 4% for 10 sec

322
Q

how does globus pharygeus present

A

pharyngeal pain

323
Q

dissection of what zone can damage trapezius

A

2b

324
Q

orbital injury has what chance of blindness

A

3/1000

325
Q

left sided face paralysis except frontalis has damage where?

A

cerebral opposite side

326
Q

brown recluse spider bite treatment

A

dapsone

327
Q

MC fungal infection in max sinus

A

aspergillus

328
Q

MC bacteria in odontogenic infection

A

s viridans for aerobes

bacteroides/prevotella anaerobe

329
Q

drain for lateral pharyngeal space

A

medial to medial pterygoid

330
Q

max dose of dantrolene

A

2.5mg/kg

331
Q

damage to what leads to hyphema

A

circulus iridis major artery-ant/pos ciliary a

ABOMS (2 decks)

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