Abnormal growth and development Flashcards

(45 cards)

1
Q

Term for male breasts

A

Gynecomastia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the reason for Turner’s syndrome

A

One normal X chromosome in female’s cells and the other one is missing or altered.
Thought to be caused by defect in SHOX gene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the clinical presentations of Turner syndrome

A
Webbed neck
Low airline at the back of neck.
Lymphedema of hands and feet 
Early loss of ovarian function
Heart defects 
Normal interlligence
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What group of cells is the main source of the placenta and associated membranes

A

Trophoblast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What group of cells is the main source of the embryo proper

A

Embryoblast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Name for the extramembrionic endoderm that lines the former blastocyst

A

Heuser’s membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Once Heuser’s membrane forms the blastocyst cavity is called

A

Primary yolk sac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what are PGCs and where are they

A

Primordial germ cells in the wall of the yolk sac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

primitive streak is composed of

A

Primitive pit, node and groove

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is gastrulation

A

migration of the epiblast cells on day 16 through the primitive streak

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What gives rise to the vertebral column, skeletal musculature and dermis

A

somitomeres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Ectoderm, mesoderm and definitive endoderm derive from

A

the epiblast during gastrulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Development of Thyroid gland

A

NOT FROM A PHARYNGEAL POUCH

comes from midline thyroid diverticulum from endoderm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Hypoparathyroidism levels

A

low Ca

High Phosphorus in blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

sensory innervation of the mucosa of the a2/3 tongue is via

A

lingual branch of the trigeminal nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Taste innervation of the a2/3 tongue is via

A

chorda tympani branch of facial nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

taste buds in circumballate papilla are inverted via

A

glossopharyngeal nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

motor innervation of intrinsic skeletal muscles of tongue is via

A

hypoglossal nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Innervation of posterior 1/3 of tongue

A

sensory; glossopharyngeal
Taste: glossopharyngeal
Motor; hypoglossal

20
Q

Speech and swallowing movements of tongue

A

Hyploglossal (12)

21
Q

what does calcitonin from the thyroid glands do

A

Opposes the action of PTH.
Reduces calcium levels in blood by:
Inhibits activity of osteoclasts
decreases resorption of Ca in kidneys

22
Q

That does PTH do

A

Acts mainly in bone and kidneys
stimulates osteoclasts; casuses ↑ in serum concentration of Ca and Ph.
↑ in vit D prod
↑ resorption of Ca in distal renal tubules, ↓ Ca clearance
↓ resorption of Ph.

23
Q

what are the consequences of hyperparathyrodism

A

hypercalcimia
hypophosphatemia
High urinary Ca and Ph.

24
Q

What is tetralogy of fallot

A

Pulmonary stenosis
right ventricular hypertrophy
Overriding aorta
ventricular septal defect

25
When is the basic morphology of the face created
Bn the fourth and tenth week by the dev of the five prominences of the first pharyngeal arch.
26
the primary palate is formed by
posterior extensions of the inter maxillary process
27
What gives rise to the posterior 1/3 of tongue
hypopharyngeal eminence
28
The parotid gland develops from and is innervated by
invagination of ectoderm. Sensory; auriculotemporal nerve of V3 Para: Glossopharyngeal nerve (IX) Symp: Superior cervical sympathetic ganglion
29
The submaidibular and sublingual salivary glands develop from
Invaginations of endoderm
30
All salivary glands above the level of the oral fissure are innervated by
Greater petrosal branch of VII
31
All salivary glands below the level of the oral fissure are inervated by
Chorda tympani branch of VII
32
What are four functions of saliva
buffering cleansing antibacterial Maintenance of oral enviro
33
When do the dental laminas appear
sixth week
34
Whwn do the 20 centers of epidermal proliferation develop
seventh week
35
At what stage does amelogenesis occur
bell stage
36
What are the three stages of amelogenesis
Inductive Secretory Maturation
37
What is hypo plastic amelogenesis
defect in the amount of enamel; Generalized; Reduced thick, smooth surf, normal hardness Pitted; normal thick, pitted surface, normal hardness
38
what is hypo maturation amelogenesis
defect in final growth and maturation of enamel crystallites and hypo mineralization. Normal thickness, chipped surface, less hardness, opaque white coloration.
39
What is hypo calcified amelogenesis
defect in initial crystallite formation followed by defective growth and hypo mineralization. Normal thickness, smooth surface, less hardness.
40
When can implants be put in
Once all growth is completed girls 17 boys 18-19
41
what type of genetic condition is dentinogenesis imperfecta
AD. | Mutation in DSPP gene; cleaving of dentin sialophosphoprotein.
42
What is the cause of osteogenesis imperfecta
mutation in COL1A1 or COL1A2. | loss of production of collagen.
43
clinical presentation of osteogenesis imperfecta
bulbous crowns small pulp chambers shearing of overlying enamel.
44
Ectodermal dysplasia characteristics
Defects in hair, nails, sweat glands and | teeth: missing, pointed, widely spaced, prone to cavities.
45
what is holoprosencephaly
birth defect of the brain which affects the development of midline facial features; failure of prosencephalon to sufficiently divide into the double lobes. Closed spaced eyes Microcephaly CLP