ABH Advancement Questions Flashcards

1
Q

When will mechanical latching of weapons be completed?

A

Before the engines are started

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What will turbo prop a/c be turned up to until they receive specific clearance from a flight deck operator?

A

1500 shaft power SHP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

During CARQUALS, the pilot shall transmit what information over the radio and when?

A

Side #, fuel weight, and gross weight, report it prior to initial launch, after refueling or when pilot switch occurs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

In what increments can tell weight board operator be changed?

A

500 or 1000 lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

After arming a/c has been completed what does the ordnance supervisor signal to the pilot?

A

Thumbs up during the day and at night red handed wand, vertical sweep then directs the pilot to the director.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Who must give permission to use the defeat interlock mode of the catapults?

A

CO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is considered a hangfire?

A

If the catapult does not fire within 10 seconds.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How many no loads must be fired after a hangfire on the catapult?

A

Two successful no loads before it can be considered operational.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the catapults officer primary function?

A

Final inspector only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How dos a helo pilot depart?

A

Port and shall my cross the bow within 5 miles or the stern within 3 miles w/o permission from the tower.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

For a fixed wing a/c what condition will flight crews not be required by the a/c but in the vicinity?

A

Condition II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is condition III for fixed wing a/c?

A

Flight crews shall be in full flight gear, briefed and standing by the ready rooms equipment be near their stations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

In what condition can minor maintenance be performed on the a/c for fixed wing?

A

Condition IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

In regards to helo’s what alert time is allowed during the following condition:

A

Condition I - 5 min alert
Condition II - 15 min alert
Condition III - 30 min alert
Condition IV - 60 min alert

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Helo’s experiencing lost comms should remain below what feet, arc to enter what type of pattern?

A

300’ and enter a delta pattern

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is a case I departure?

A

With weather conditions no lower than 3,000 feet and 5 NM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the ceiling for case II departure?

A

1,000 feet and a visibility of 5 NM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

When will the shop utilize case III departures?

A

During night operations or whenever existing weather at the ship is below case II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the minimal launch intervals between a/c?

A

30 seconds and 60 seconds when launching jet a/c after turbo prop.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

At what miles from the carrier will case II/III rendezvous and on what side?

A

20 and 50 NM and on the left side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

At what MSL shall the carrier a/c fly?

A

4 below 18,000 feet MSL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Who

Maintains control for optical landing AIDS and flight deck lighting?

A

PriFly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

When will PriFly be manned by both the air boss and assistant air officer?

A

During Case III ops and night operations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

When operating a/c, the forward area consists of what spots for a LHA and LHD?

A

Spots 1-5 for both LHA and LHD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What is the extra spot on LHA's used for and what's the name for it?
Intended for H-1 helo's and also known as spot 3A
26
What color is the tramline on LHA's and LHD's?
Yellow
27
What color is the AV-8B nozzle rotation line?
Hello and its on the bow
28
When PriFly is displaying a amber rotating beacon what is it signaling?
Engage/disengage rotors
29
When in EmCon what beacon would be displayed?
Red, green, red
30
When the hotel/foxtrot at the dip flag is displayed what evolution is occurring?
Setting of flight quarters. Ship is ready to conduct flight operations when wind conditions are suitable.
31
Jet efflux from an AV-8 will exceed what temp at a distance of what from the center of the spot if it is below 10 feet?
200 degrees at 25 feet from the center
32
During th VTOL's what is the danger zone for personnel?
50 feet all around the a/c
33
During STO's and ground running a what is the danger area?
40 feet in front of it. 170 feet behind it and 55 feet out
34
When blade spreading what is the max allowable winds for helos and for H-2's?
Max winds are 45 mph and for H-2's the conditions shall be less than 35mph.
35
If the nose wheel casters are out of limits (45 degrees) what will you use to straighten them?
Tiller bar or tow bar
36
With a one finger turn up what is the rpm for the AV-8 from the launch officer on a STO?
RPM to 60%
37
When using nose to tail procedures each a/c will be lined up and launched sequentially for every what foot marks?
50 foot marks
38
When if ever are you not allowed to launch off spot 1?
During night operations
39
During night operations the pilot places the nozzles on an AV-8 back to 10 degrees what does the launch officer do?
Shall flash green wand 3 times.
40
What are the signals for a wet and dry launch?
2 fingers for a dry launch and rotate the green wand in a horizontal circle and (red wand not illuminated) and 5 fingers for a wet launch (green wand moved up and down and red wand NOT illuminated)
41
What light will the pilot give to the LSE when he is ready to start APU?
Red cockpit dome light on or red lens flashlight
42
How dos a helo pilot depart?
Port and shall my cross the bow within 5 miles or the stern within 3 miles w/o permission from the tower.
43
For a fixed wing a/c what condition will flight crews not be required by the a/c but in the vicinity?
Condition II
44
What is condition III for fixed wing a/c?
Flight crews shall be in full flight gear, briefed and standing by the ready rooms equipment be near their stations.
45
In what condition can minor maintenance be performed on the a/c for fixed wing?
Condition IV
46
In regards to helo's what alert time is allowed during the following condition:
Condition I - 5 min alert Condition II - 15 min alert Condition III - 30 min alert Condition IV - 60 min alert
47
Helo's experiencing lost comms should remain below what feet, arc to enter what type of pattern?
300' and enter a delta pattern
48
What is a case I departure?
With weather conditions no lower than 3,000 feet and 5 NM
49
What is the ceiling for case II departure?
1,000 feet and a visibility of 5 NM
50
When will the shop utilize case III departures?
During night operations or whenever existing weather at the ship is below case II
51
What is the minimal launch intervals between a/c?
30 seconds and 60 seconds when launching jet a/c after turbo prop.
52
At what miles from the carrier will case II/III rendezvous and on what side?
20 and 50 NM and on the left side
53
At what MSL shall the carrier a/c fly?
4 below 18,000 feet MSL
54
Who | Maintains control for optical landing AIDS and flight deck lighting?
PriFly
55
When will PriFly be manned by both the air boss and assistant air officer?
During Case III ops and night operations
56
When operating a/c, the forward area consists of what spots for a LHA and LHD?
Spots 1-5 for both LHA and LHD
57
Where are spots 6-9 on LHA's and LHD's?
Thereafter of spots 1-5
58
What is the extra spot on LHA's used for?
Intended for H-1 helo's and is also known as spot 3A
59
What color is the tramline on LHA's and LHD's?
Yellow
60
Why color is the AV-8 rotation line?
Yellow
61
When PriFly is displaying a amber rotating beacon what is that signaling?
Engage/disengage rotors
62
When in EmCon what beacon would be displayed?
Red, Green, Red
63
When the Hotel/Foxtrot flags are displayed what evolution is occurring?
Flight quarters and ship is ready to conduct flight operations when wind conditions are suitable.
64
Jet efflux from an AV-8 will exceed what temp at a distance of what from the center of the spot if it is below 10 feet?
200 degrees at 25 feet from the center
65
During VTOL's what is the danger zone for personnel?
50' all around the a/c
66
During the STO's and ground running a what's the danger area?
40 feet in front of it, 170' behind it and 55' out
67
When blade spreading what is the max allowable winds for helos and for H-2's?
Max winds are 45 mph and for H-2's conditions shall be less than 35 mph
68
If the nose wheel casters are out of limits (45 degrees) what will you use to straighten them?
200 degrees at 25 feet from the center.
69
During VTOL's what is the danger zone for personnel?
50' all around the a/c
70
During the STO's and ground running a what's the danger area?
40 feet in front of it, 170' behind it and 55' out
71
When blade spreading what is the max allowable winds for helos and for H-2's?
Max winds are 45 mph and for H-2's conditions shall be less than 35 mph
72
If the nose wheel casters are out of limits (45 degrees) what will you use to straighten them?
200 degrees at 25 feet from the center.
73
When using nose to tail procedures each a/c will be lined up and launched sequentially for what foot marks?
50 foot marks
74
When if ever are you not allowed to launch off spot one?
During night ops
75
During night ops the pilot places the nozzles on an AV-8 back to 10 degrees. What does the launch officer do?
Flash a green wand 3 times
76
What are the signals for wet launch?
5 fingers for a wet launch, green wand will be moved up and down with red wand NOT illuminated.
77
What are the signals for dry launch?
Two fingers for dry launch and rotate the green wand in a horizontal circle with the red wand NOT illuminated.
78
What light will the pilot give to the LSE when he is ready to start APU?
Red cockpit dome light on or red lens flashlight
79
What is pilot doing when he turns on his external navigation lights on steady dim?
Ready to start engines
80
How do you know which pilot has control of the helo when arriving?
Right seat landing navigation lights on steady bright. Left seat landing the navigation lights are on flashing bright.
81
When is the pilot ready to engage rotors?
External navigation lights on flashing dim
82
Who needs to be present befor the shuttle or grab be advanced or retracted along the track and has to be inspected and found clear?
Catapult officer
83
What is the minimum take off air speed for launching off the bow and for waist a/c?
10-15 knots and for the waist 15 knots is recommended
84
This launching bulletin outlines the basic content of the various bulletins how they prepared and specs in their use?
0-10 A/C Launching Bulletin
85
This a/c launching bulletin provides crosswind limitations for catapult and deck launches for each a/c.
0-15 A/C Launching Bulletin
86
When an a/c bulletin has a Q prefix what does that mean?
Designed as war emergency bulletins
87
How far from the center can an EA-6B be turned when the tag lock will disengage?
56 degrees
88
What size is the horizontal paint marking/strip in contrasting color for the three piece shuttle spreaders?
2 1/4" X 1/4"
89
What is the max time a shuttle is allowed to remain in battery?
No more than 5 minutes
90
When pilot stops in the wye what signal does the director give to the pilot?
Disengage steering
91
What is the max speed that an aircraft will approach the buffer?
4 mph
92
Who will maintain an extra set of the catapult officers wands?
Center deck operator
93
What color and type of wand does the catapult officer/catapult safety observer have?
1 red and 1 green standard
94
What color wand does the topside petty officer use?
1 white stubby
95
What color/type wands do the directors use?
2 amber standard
96
What color/type wands do the plane checkers use?
1 blue stubby
97
What color/type wands does the centerdeck operator use?
1 white stubby
98
What color/type wands do the deck edge operators use?
1 red standard
99
What color/type wands does the ordnance safety use?
2 red standard that are banded (2 3/4" bands spaced)
100
What color/type of wands does the JBD use?
1 white stubby
101
What color/type of wands does the bow/angle safety observers have?
1 red and 1 green standard
102
What color/type of wands does the weight board person have?
1 white stubby
103
How far can the catapult officer buffer aft?
4-10"
104
Where are cats 1 & 2 located?
Fly 1
105
Define the term aircraft handling
General term that describes any movement of aircraft or associated equipment
106
State the purpose of standard aircraft signals
Used by all branches of the armed forces so that there will be no misunderstanding when a taxi signalman of one service is signaling a pilot of another.
107
What is the vehicle speed limits on the flight line and around the aircraft?
Speed limit within 50 feet of aircraft is 5 mph.
108
What is the speed limit along runways, taxiways, parking ramps and work areas?
10 mph
109
What is the maximum towing speed of an aircraft?
As fast as the slowest walker
110
What are the four categories of tiedown requirements?
Initial, intermediate, permanent, and heavy weather
111
State the purpose of the MA-1A overrun barrier
Emergency arresting system comprised of a net barrier and a cable system. Designed to stop aircraft not equipped with tail hooks but the aircraft must have a nose wheel for it to be effective.
112
True or False | The MA-1A is not always in a standby status.
False
113
Who uses the MA-1A barrier net?
Air Force
114
True or False | The Navy uses other devices known as E-5, E-28, or M-21 barriers.
True
115
When approaching hot brakes on an aircraft how would you approach?
Fore and aft
116
What is liquid oxygen?
Light blue liquid that flows like water and is extremely cold (-297 degrees)
117
What is the expansion rate of LOX?
860-1
118
LOX is a strong oxidizer and vigorously supports what?
Combustion
119
What is the breaking strength of new E-15 and E-27 tapes?
70,000lbs.
120
What is the breaking strength of E-28 tape?
150,000lbs.
121
Nylon tape exposure to weather causes what estimated reduction in strength?
20%
122
How often should new nylon tape be replaced?
6 years
123
How often should old nylon tape be replaced?
Every 3 years
124
When should nylon tape be replaced?
If tape is cut or torn 1/4" at any location
125
What identification should be displayed on each sling?
Max load capacity, strike date, local serial number
126
What is the strike date?
Latest date the item must be removed from service
127
What can be done for easy identification to belly bands?
End hardware can be color coded by length
128
What is the working load limit of new tape?
50% breaking strength
129
What is the adjustable range of crash handling tiedown?
10,000lbs.
130
What can be used in certain salvage situations for hoisting helos or to provide partial lifting of fixed wing ac by the nose or wing tip area?
Universal salvage harness
131
What is the size of the universal salvage harness?
9' long 5" wide
132
What material is the universal salvage harness?
Woven polyester
133
What is the max lifting weight of the vertical hitch (universal salvage harness)
31,000lbs.
134
What is the max lifting weight using the basket hitch (universal salvage harness)
62,000lbs.
135
What is the max lift weight using the choker hitch (universal salvage harness)
24,800lbs.
136
One universal salvage harness consists of what?
A set of five endless loop grommets
137
What is the weight capacity of the universal aircraft wheel ramp?
32,000lbs.
138
What is the drawbar pull of the A/S32A-31A tow tractor?
8,500lbs.
139
What is the max gross weight the ALBAR is able to handle?
90,000lbs.
140
What are the dimensions of the ALBAR universal aircraft towbar?
Aluminum alloy, 15ft long, 10" high, 135lbs
141
How many aircraft crash dollies are provided per carrier?
4 dollies and 2 adapters
142
Each dolly should be capable of supporting how much weight?
32,000lbs
143
How many TD-1A tie down assemblies must be maintained by crash for emergencies?
12
144
What type of tiedowns are being developed specifically for crash handling operations
(10) 30ft long 10,000 pound capacity fabric type tiedowns.
145
Concerning shackle pins and bolts what grade is not authorized for crash and salvage use?
Grade A regular strength
146
Concerning shackle pins and bolts what grade is authorized for crash and use?
Grade B high strength
147
How should grade B shackle pins and bolts be marked?
By the raised or stamped letter "HS" on the head
148
What should be permanently and legibly marked on each shackle body?
Raised or stamp letters: Identifying manufacturers The shackle size Recommended safe working load