ABFM Questions Flashcards

1
Q

CXR findings of Bronchiectasis

A

Bronchial dilation and bronchial wall thickening

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2
Q

CXR findings of Left Heart Failure

A

Pulmonary Edema

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3
Q

CXR findings in Diffuse Panbronchiolitis

A

Diffuse small centrilobular nodule opacities along with hyperinflation

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4
Q

CXR findings of interstitial lung disease

A

Reticular or increased Interstitial markings

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5
Q

Pharmacologic treatment for BPH and lower UTI symptoms in male

A

alpha-adrenergic blocker, or 5-alpha-reductase inhibitor (if evidence of prostatic enlargement or PSA >1.5), PDE-5inhibitor or antimuscarinic therapy

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6
Q

First test for male with hypogonadism (mild fatigue, decreased libido, erectile dysfunction)

A

FSH and LH levels (to distinguish between primary and secondary hypogonadism)

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7
Q

Functional constipation (4 year old with hard stool)

A

Miralax (polyethylene glycol) is effective. Fiber not supported in treatment of functional constipation

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8
Q

Patients treated with amiodarone (cordarone) should be monitored for:

A

Hyper vs. hypothyroidism (baseline TFTs with f/u every 6 months)

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9
Q

First line treatment for primary dysmenorrhea

A

NSAIDs (started at the onset of menses and continued for the first 1-2 days of menstrual cycle)

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10
Q

Tremors:

Abrupt onset, spontaneous remission, changing characteristics, extinction with distraction

A

Psychogenic tremor

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11
Q

Tremors:

intention tremor with ipsilateral involvement on the side of the lesion

A

Cerebellar tremor (you will see past-pointing on finger-to-nose testing), CT/MRI diagnostic test of choice

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12
Q

Tremors:
At rest, asymmetric, decreases with voluntary movement, sometimes bradykinesia, rigidity and postural instability are noted

A

Parkinsonian tremor (if atypical presentation, a single-photon emission CT or position emission tomography may help)

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13
Q

Tremors:

symmetric, fine tremors that involve the hands, wrists, head, voice or lower extremities, improve with alcohol

A

Essential tremor

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14
Q

How to treat essential tremor

A

Propranolol or Primidone

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15
Q

Tremors:

Postural tremor of low amplitude exacerbated by medication (history of caffeine or anxiety)

A

Enhanced physiologic tremor

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16
Q

Weakness with internal rotation of the shoulder

A

Tear of subcapularis tendon

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17
Q

If you have hyponatremia and low serum osmolality, what confirms SIADH?

A

Elevated urine osmolality. Patient should be euvolemic and have not taken diuretics in the past 24-48 hours

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18
Q

First line tx for HTN in African American pts

A

Thiazide diuretics and CCBs

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19
Q

Liraglutide, Exenatide, Dulaglutide

A

GLP-1 agonists

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20
Q

Liraglutide

A

Lowers risk of cardiovascular events and DM

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21
Q

Empagliflozin

A

SGLT-2 inhibitor, secondary prevention of cardiovascular disease and DM

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22
Q

Appropriate screening for 2-16 years old with SCD

A

Screen with transcranial Doppler ultrasonography because of increased risk of vascular disease

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23
Q

Clinodactyly

A

Curvature of fifth digit of hand - FAS

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24
Q

Camptodactyly

A

Flexion deformity of fingers - FAS

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25
Q

Camptydactyly + Clinodactyly + other flexion contractors + radioulnar synostosis, scoliosis, spinal malformations

A

Fetal Alcohol Syndrome

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26
Q

Tx for child with otitis media with effusion

A

No treatment and follow up in three months

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27
Q

Polyneuropathy, macrocytic anemia, history of chronic PPI use

A

Vitamin B12 deficiency

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28
Q

Causes of silicosis

A

Stone cutting, sand blasting, mining, quarrying exposure

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29
Q

Causes of chronic beryllium lung disease

A

Occupational exposure to beryllium (inorganic dust)

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30
Q

Causes of Farmer’s Lung

A

Exposure to organic agricultural dusts (fungal spores, vegetable products, insect fragments, animal dander, animal feces, microorganisms, pollens)

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31
Q

How to confirm primary adrenal insufficiency

A

plasma ACTH level, should be greater than twice the upper limit of the reference range

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32
Q

Cause of the hyperpigmentation of Addison’s disease

A

Caused by the MSH (melanocyte-stimulating hormone) effect of elevated plasma levels of ACTH

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33
Q

Initial tx for symptomatic HOCM

A

BB (Metoprolol), or CCB if BB is not tolerated

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34
Q

For dysfunctional uterine bleeding, progestin is effective in which menstrual phase?

A

Only effective when used on a 21 day cycle, but not if used only during the luteal phase

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35
Q

Low TSH level with normal free T4 and free T3 = ?

A

Subclinical hyperthyroidism

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36
Q

Causes of subclinical hyperthyroidism?

A

Grave’s disease, autonomous functioning thyroid adenoma, multi nodular toxic goiter

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37
Q

What is the preferred antidepressant for older patients?

A

Escitalopram (Lexapro)

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38
Q

Which antidepressants should be avoided in the elderly?

A

Amitriptyline, imipramine, paroxetine (highly anticholinergic and sedating, cause orthostatic hypotension)

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39
Q

What is the first line treatment for social anxiety disorder?

A

Escitalopram (Lexapro) (SSRI)

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40
Q

Most common hip disorder in adolescents (ages 8-15)?

A

SCFE, slipped capital femoral epiphysis

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41
Q

Name the skin condition: Wood’s Lamp turns coral pink florescence

A

Corynebacterium minutissimum (erythematous, well demarcated patches with some scale)

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42
Q

Name the skin condition:

Wood’s lamp turns yellow florescence

A

Tinea infections

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43
Q

Name the skin condition:

Wood’s lamp turns pale blue florescence

A

Pseudomonas infections

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44
Q

Name the skin condition: Wood’s lamp turns white

A

Vitiligo

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45
Q

Pap test recs for women 21-29 years old

A

Every 3 years

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46
Q

Metatarsal stress fractures treatment

A

No weight bearing for a few days, possibly using a posterior splint, transitioning to a walking boot or short leg cast, and then a rigid-soled shoe in 4-6 weeks

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47
Q

How to rule out proteinuria in children?

A

Spot protein/creatinine ratio on the first morning urine

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48
Q

Treatment for traveler’s diarrhea

A

Azithromycin

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49
Q

Pityriasis rosea is associated with what birth defect?

A

Spontaneous abortion in the first 15 weeks

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50
Q

Donepezil (Aricept) causes what side effect?

A

Increased risk of bradycardia, part of Beers Criteria. Avoid in patient’s with syncope. Can cause prolonged PR interval.

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51
Q

Avoid which medication in patient with reduced EF?

A

CCB (verapamil or diltiazem) because they have a negative inotropic effect, and the heart already isn’t beating well

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52
Q

Significant risk factors for esophageal adenocarcinoma

A

GERD and obesity

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53
Q

In a patient with AS and systolic murmur, what symptom would be most concerning?

A

Exertional dyspnea, first presentation of a downward spiral and the need for rapid valve replacement

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54
Q

treating acute aortic dissection

A

IV esmolol, loading dose of 500-1000 mcg/kg/min over 1 min and then infusion rate of 50/mcg/kg/min, max infusion rate is 200mcg/kg/min

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55
Q

Idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura (ITP), first line treatment?

A

Corticosteroids is first line therapy. IVIG and rituximib

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56
Q

Idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura (ITP), second line treatment?

A

thrombopoietin-receptor agonists and splenectomy. further evaluation is bone marrow biopsy to rule out MDS or lymphoproliferative disorders

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57
Q

Chronic rhinosinusitis defined as?

A

2/4 cardinal symptoms: nasal drainage, nasal obstruction, facial pain or pressure, hyposmia or anosmia, 6-8 days

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58
Q

Dx: overuse and causes pain at the insertion of the patellar ligament on the midline proximal tibia

A

Osgood-Schlatter disease

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59
Q

Dx: pain localized to medial joint line of knee rather than distal to the joint line, +McMurray

A

Medial meniscus tear

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60
Q

Dx: repetitive use, medial knee pain

A

Pes anserine bursitis

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61
Q

Dx: overuse, pain in the lateral knee

A

Iliotibial band syndrome

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62
Q

Dx: thin, clear discharge, associated with thin, friable vaginal mucosa

A

Atrophic vaginitis

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63
Q

Dx: burning and soreness with vulvar erythema, but no discharge

A

Irritant/allergic vaginitis

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64
Q

Dx: thin, homogenous discharge with fishy odor and no cervical or vaginal inflammation

A

Bacterial vaginosis

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65
Q

Dx: white, thick, cheesy or curdy discharge

A

Vulvovaginal candiasis

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66
Q

Dx: greenish-yellow, frothy discharge with a foul odor, inflammation of the vagina and cervix, sometimes punctate hemorrhages (strawberry cervix)

A

Trichomoniasis

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67
Q

Which medication for diabetes has an increased risk for candidiasis?

A

SGLT-2 inhibitors (causes yeast vaginitis, because the MOA is blocking the renal uptake of glucose, which results in an increase in glucosuria

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68
Q

Side effects of GLP-1 receptor agonists?

A

Nausea, early satiety, weight loss

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69
Q

Side effects of sulfonylureas?

A

Weight gain and hypoglycemia

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70
Q

Side effect of metformin?

A

GI upset

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71
Q

Vitamin D intake in 2 week year old that’s primarily breastfed?

A

Daily intake of 400 IU of Vit D a day in infants, especially in primarily breastfed babies

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72
Q

Foot X-Ray Requirements

A

Ottawa:

  • bone tenderness at fifth metatarsal
  • bone tenderness at navicular
  • inability to bear weight immediately in the ED for four steps
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73
Q

Ankle X-Ray Requirements

A

Ottawa:

  • bone tenderness at posterior edge or tip of lateral malleolus
  • bone tenderness at posterior edge or tip of medial malleolus
  • inability to bear weight both immediately and in the ED for 4 steps
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74
Q

Best indicator of iron absorption and bone marrow response to oral iron therapy

A

Reticulocyte count (at 4 days)

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75
Q

Chronic urticaria (hives) treatment after 3 months of loratadine

A

Ranitidine, combine H1 and H2 together after H1 doesn’t work, and then go to steroids

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76
Q

Cimetidine/Ranitidine

A

H2 receptor antagonist

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77
Q

TB induration 5 or above

A
  • recent contact with infectious TB
  • radiographic evidence for prior TB
  • HIV infected persons
  • immunosuppressed patients
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78
Q

TB induration 10 or above

A

increased risk of TB

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79
Q

TB induration 15 or above

A

no risks of TB

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80
Q

SGLT-2 inhibitor

A

Empagliflozin

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81
Q

GLP-1 agonists

A

liraglutide, exenatide, dulaglutide

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82
Q

sugar tong splint

A

for distal radial fractures

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83
Q

radial gutter splint

A

for uncomplicated fractures of second and third metacarpals

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84
Q

thumb spica splint

A

suspected scaphoid fracture

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85
Q

At which opioid dosage do you prescribe naloxone?

A

the risk of an opioid overdose increases at a threshold of 50 MME/day

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86
Q

chronic kidney disease with mildly low ionized calcium level will have which PTH and phosphorus levels?

A

elevated PTH and elevated phosphorus

this is because phosphate is not appropriately excreted and the subsequent hyperphosphatemia leads to secondary hyperparathyroidism

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87
Q

if you see a 1cm wide dimple on the sacrum, 1 cm superior to the anus, what is the next step?

A

ultrasound to rule out spinal dysraphism (tethered cord)

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88
Q

In an obese patient with peripheral neuropathy, erythema of the foot, but no fever, leukocytosis or inflammatory markers, what is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Charcot neuroarthropathy

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89
Q

Tx for Charcot neuroarthropathy

A

Immobilization with total contact casting, for 3-4 months but can be up to 12 months

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90
Q

goal fasting blood glucose level in patients with gestational diabetes?

A

<95 mg/dL

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91
Q

which NSAID is not associated with an increased risk of MI?

A

naproxen

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92
Q

which med used for anxiety also reduces the symptoms of IBS?

A

Celexa (Citalopram)

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93
Q

Causes of HTN in children

A

Renal parenchymal disease (glomerulonephritis, congenital abnormalities, and reflux nephropathy)

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94
Q

carbonic anhydrase inhibitor, which induces a

metabolic acidosis that leads to hypercalciuria and the formation of calcium phosphate stones

A

Topiramate

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95
Q

TSH level in pregnancy

A

The TSH reference range is lower during pregnancy because of the cross-reactivity of the -subunit of
hCG. Levels of hCG peak during weeks 7–13 of pregnancy, and hCG has mild TSH-like activity, leading
to slightly high free T4 levels in early pregnancy.

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96
Q

transient or persistent thyroid dysfunction that occurs within 1 year
of childbirth, miscarriage, or medical abortion

A

Postpartum thyroiditis

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97
Q

How is postpartum thyroiditis confirmed?

A

Release of preformed thyroid hormone in the bloodstream initially results in hyperthyroidism. During the hyperthyroid phase, radioactive iodine uptake will be low, which can help to confirm the diagnosis. Pregnancy and breastfeeding are contraindications to radionuclide
imaging. T

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98
Q

Thyrotropin receptor antibody levels are positive in

A

Grave’s disease

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99
Q

Thyroid peroxidase antibody levels are elevated with

A

Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

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100
Q

Koilonychia, also known as spoon nail, is a finding that can be associated with multiple systemic conditions

A

Iron deficiency, SLE, hypothyroidism

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101
Q

Treatment of eosinophilia esophagitis

A

Application of corticosteroids to the esophagus is generally the treatment of choice,
either in the form of an oral suspension of budesonide or an inhaled corticosteroid sprayed into the mouth
and swallowed.

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102
Q

Characteristics that are more common with pulmonary malignant lesions are consistent with:

A

a nonsolid “ground glass” appearance, a size >6 mm, noncalcified lesions, a lesion size or volume doubling time between 1 month and 1 year, and irregular or spiculated borders.

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103
Q

6-month-old male is brought to the urgent care center with a 3-day history of rhinorrhea, cough, and increased respiratory effort. His temperature is 37.5°C (99.5°F), his heart rate is 120 beats/min, his respiratory rate is 42/min, and his oxygen saturation is 96% on room air. On examination the child appears well hydrated with clear secretions from his nasal passages, there is diffuse wheezing heard bilaterally, and there is no nasal flaring or retractions

A

Viral bronchiolitis, treat with supportive care and hydration

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104
Q

American Academy of Otolaryngology defines chronic rhinosinusitis as the presence of two of four cardinal symptoms, which include:

A

nasal drainage, nasal obstruction, facial pain or pressure, and hyposmia or anosmia, along with objective signs on examination or radiographic studies

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105
Q

__________ are known to cause an increased risk of yeast vaginitis because their mechanism of action involves blocking renal uptake of glucose, which results in an increase in glucosuria

A

SGLT2 inhibitors such as empagliflozin (Jardiance)

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106
Q

Glucose goals in gestational DM

A

Fasting <95
1 hr post-prandial: <145
2 hr post-prandial: <120

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107
Q

eczematous rash in semiprotected folds of skin such as the web spaces of fingers, the umbilicus, the axillae, or the genital region

A

Scabies

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108
Q

screening for elevated serum cholesterol levels in children

A

9-11 yo

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109
Q

Children, screened annually for depression beginning at?

A

11-21 yo

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110
Q

Universal screening for anemia (children)

A

12 months of age and again at 15–30 months of age if the patient is determined to be high risk

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111
Q

Which antidepressant lowers seizure threshold?

A

Bupropion

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112
Q

Hereditary hemochromatosis

A

Cardiomyopathy, cirrhosis and HCC

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113
Q

Cardiac murmur asso with marfan’s

A

Mitral valve prolapse, aortic root dilation, aortic insufficiency

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114
Q

Drugs for IBS

A

Neomycin first constipation predominant

SSRIs or SNRIs for diarrhea predominant

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115
Q

GLP-1 agonists are contraindicated in patients with:

A

medullary thyroid cancer or multiple endocrine neoplasm syndrome, or with a family history of these conditions

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116
Q

Mild SLEtreatment

A

Hydroxychloroquine reduces arthritis pain in lupus patients and is the preferred initial treatment for lupus arthritis

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117
Q

Treatment for severe lupus or lupus nephritis

A

Cyclosporine and azathioprine

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118
Q

Treatment for refractory lupus or lupus nephritis

A

Mycophenolate

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119
Q

Treatment for severe refractory lupus

A

Rituximab

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120
Q

NT-proBNP level is affected by:

A

NT-proBNP is negatively correlated with kidney function as measured by the estimated glomerular filtration rate (GFR) and albumin levels. Patients with a low GFR or a low level of albumin have higher NT-proBNP levels.

A higher BMI is associated with a lower NT-proBNP. Thus, the utility of NT-proBNP to rule out heart failure in obese patients is decreased

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121
Q

physical examination reveals isolated tenderness with palpation at the medial and lateral aspects of the knee, and the grind test is also positive

A

Patellofemoral pain syndrome

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122
Q

Pain and tenderness over the tibial tubercle and the distal patellar tendon is the most common presentation

A

Osgood Schlatter disease

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123
Q

typically causes infrapatellar pain, and findings include extensor mechanism malalignment, weakness of ankle flexors, and tightness of the hamstring, heel cord, and/or quadriceps

A

Patellar tenidopathy

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124
Q

osteochondrosis at the insertion of the Achilles tendon on the calcaneal tuberosity. It occurs during periods of rapid growth, causes heel pain during and after activity, and is relieved with rest

A

Sever’s disease

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125
Q

How to diagnose nephrotic range proteinuria

A

protein-to-creatinine ratio from a single urine sample

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126
Q

Current criteria for the diagnosis of diabetes mellitus:

A
  • hemoglobin A1c ≥6.5%
  • a fasting plasma glucose level ≥126 mg/dL
  • a 2-hour plasma glucose level ≥200 mg/dL OR in a symptomatic patient, a random blood glucose level ≥200 mg/dL.
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127
Q

26-year-old female presents with a 3-month history of abdominal pain, lightheadedness with standing, and some hyperpigmentation. Her CBC is normal, but a basic metabolic panel reveals a slightly low sodium level and a slightly high potassium level, what’s the diagnosis?

A

Primary adrenal insufficiency

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128
Q

What is used to screen for adrenal hyperplasia in hypertensive patients and also for establishing the existence of mineralocorticoid insufficiency in patients with Primary Adrenal Insufficiency?

A

Serum aldosterone paired with plasma renin activity

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129
Q

In patients ≥65 years of age treated with medication for type 2 diabetes mellitus, hemoglobin A1c values of _____ have shown the greatest reduction in mortality in multiple studies

A

7-8% to prevent hypoglycemia

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130
Q

high fever in a child with either mild upper respiratory symptoms or no other symptoms. After the fever subsides, a rash will appear

A

Roseola infantum, caused by HHV-6

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131
Q

single herald patch that is oval-shaped and scaly with central clearing, followed by a symmetric rash on the trunk in a typical distribution along the Langer lines

A

Pityriasis rosea

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132
Q

The child will typically have mild symptoms then an erythematous facial rash that has a “slapped cheek” appearance. This is sometimes followed by pink patches and macules in a reticular pattern. Once the rash appears the child is no longer contagious

A

Erythema infectiosum is caused by parvovirus B19 and is also known as fifth disease

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133
Q

scaly, erythematous plaques, commonly on the flexor surfaces of the extremities

A

Atopic dermatitis

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134
Q

Mild persistent asthma is defined as:

A

symptoms present >2 days per week but not daily, nighttime awakenings 3–4 times per month, and inhaler use >2 days per week but not daily and not more than once on any day. The FEV1 is >80% of predicted.

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135
Q

Severe asthma present as:

A

symptoms present throughout the day, nighttime awakenings up to 7 times per week, inhaler use several times per day, and an FEV1 <60% of predicted. Normal activities are extremely limited by severe asthma

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136
Q

Moderate persistent asthma presents as:

A

symptoms are present daily, nighttime awakenings occur >1 time per week but not nightly, and an inhaler is required daily

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137
Q

Intermittent asthma presents as:

A

symptoms are present ≤2 days per week, nighttime awakenings occur ≤2 times per month, an inhaler is required ≤2 days per week, and the FEV1 is >80% of predicted

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138
Q

unexplained proteinuria, peripheral neuropathy, enlargement of the tongue, cardiomegaly, intestinal malabsorption, bilateral carpal tunnel syndrome, and orthostatic hypotension

A

Primary amyloidosis

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139
Q

Common agents that cause viral pericarditis:

A

Enteroviruses, herpesviruses, adenovirus, and parvovirus B19

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140
Q

Organisms that cause infection of puncture wound of foot through shoe

A

Staphylococcus aureus is the most common, followed by other staphylococcal and streptococcal species. When the puncture wound is through the rubber sole of an athletic shoe, Pseudomonas is the most frequent pathogen (use Cipro)

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141
Q

Patients with a history of cryptorchidism are at high risk for the development of ______, especially if orchiopexy is performed after puberty

A

Testicular cancer

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142
Q

If mass is suspicious for testicular cancer, what should be performed?

A

If sonography shows a hypoechoic mass, a testicular biopsy is contraindicated, since it may contaminate the scrotum or alter the lymphatic drainage. Radical inguinal orchiectomy is both diagnostic and therapeutic

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143
Q

Causes of subclinical hyperthyroidism

A

Graves disease, autonomous functioning thyroid adenoma, and multinodular toxic goiter

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144
Q

Labs suggesting subclinical hypothyroidism

A

low TSH level with normal free T4 and free T3 levels

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145
Q

Even in the absence of overt hyperthyroidism patients with subclinical hypothyroidism are at higher risk for several health conditions, including:

A

atrial fibrillation, heart failure, and osteoporosis

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146
Q

Lactulose, also an osmotic laxative, should be avoided in patients with IBS because?

A

it is broken down by colonic flora and produces excessive gas

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147
Q

The only proven therapy for pulmonary hypertension related to COPD is?

A

Supplemental oxygen should be recommended when the PaO2 is <60 mm Hg, because it has been shown to improve mortality by lowering pulmonary arterial pressures

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148
Q

Which antihypertensive drug may reduce the severity of sleep apnea?

A

Potassium sparing diuretics

Resistant hypertension is common in patients with obstructive sleep apnea. Resistant hypertension is also associated with higher levels of aldosterone, which can lead to secondary pharyngeal edema, increasing upper airway obstruction

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149
Q

most sensitive test to diagnose primary hyperaldosteronism?

A

aldosterone/renin ratio

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150
Q

There are multiple tools for evaluation of pneumonia severity, including:

A

SMART-COP (predicts the likelihood of the need for invasive ventilation or vasopressor support), the Pneumonia Severity Index (predicts the risk of 30-day mortality and the need for admission to the intensive-care unit), and CURB-65 or CRB-65

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151
Q

hyperextension of the wrist leads to:

A

Triquetral fractures

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152
Q

Absolute contraindications for testosterone replacement therapy

A

Absolute contraindications include breast cancer, prostate cancer, a prostate-specific antigen (PSA) level >4 ng/dL, an abnormal rectal examination with nodules, and polycythemia with a hematocrit >54%

Testosterone stimulates erythropoiesis and increases the risk of thrombosis

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153
Q

Node-blocking medications such as

diltiazem and metoprolol should not be used for the long-term treatment of WPW, due to

A

The increased risk of VFib

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154
Q

Chronic kidney disease–mineral and bone disorder (CKD-MBD)

A

In patients with CKD, phosphate is not appropriately excreted and the subsequent
hyperphosphatemia leads to secondary hyperparathyroidism and binding of calcium. Decreased production of calcitriol in patients with CKD also leads to hypocalcemic hyperparathyroidism. Patients with CKD stages 3a–5 should have phosphorus, calcium, parathyroid hormone, and 25-hydroxyvitamin D levels. checked regularly, and consultation with a nephrologist or endocrinologist should be obtained if CKD-MBD is suspected.

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155
Q

affected skin appears as erythematous patches with white to yellow greasy scales

A

Seborrheic dermatitis, treat with topical antifungals

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156
Q

Tdap is recommended for all women with each pregnancy, preferably between:

A

27-36 weeks gestation

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157
Q

Leser-Trélat sign may be defined as:

A

the abrupt onset of multiple seborrheic keratoses, which is an unusual finding that often indicates an underlying malignancy, most commonly an adenocarcinoma of the stomach

well circumscribed brown, oval, rough papules with a “stuck-on” appearance on his trunk and proximal extremities

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158
Q

considered a second-line choice for patients who are intolerant of metformin?

A

SGLT2 (Empagliflozin)

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159
Q

Both sitagliptin, a DPP-4 inhibitor, and liraglutide, a GLP-1 receptor agonist, should be avoided or used with caution in patients with a history of?

A

Pancreatitis

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160
Q

In the newborn period the two most common causes of neonatal sepsis are

A

Group B STREP & E. coli

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161
Q

Both 13-valent pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (PCV13) and 23-valent pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine (PPSV23) are recommended for patients with

A

Chronic renal failure

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162
Q

How to CONFIRM diagnose Cushing’s syndrome

A

24 hr urinary free cortisol

Dexamethasone test is only for screening

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163
Q

Current criteria for obesity hypoventilation syndrome (OHS) include:

A

hypoventilation leading to carbon dioxide retention (PaCO2 >45 mm Hg) in an individual with a BMI > 30 kg/m2 when other causes of chronic alveolar hypoventilation have been ruled out

These patients retain bicarbonate to compensate for respiratory acidosis

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164
Q

A 42-year-old female presents with shortness of breath that has slowly worsened over the past 6 months. She can now walk only 10 feet without becoming short of breath. She does not have a cough or chest pain. Her history is significant only for obesity. She smoked one pack of cigarettes per day for 20 years and quit smoking 6 years ago. Her blood pressure is 138/88 mm Hg, pulse rate 92 beats/min, respiratory rate 18/min, and oxygen saturation 92% on room air. Her BMI is 42 kg/m2.

Her heart has a regular rate and rhythm with no murmurs and her lungs are clear to auscultation. Her lower extremities have bilateral 1+ edema. A chest radiograph is normal. Spirometry reveals a decreased FVC with a normal FEV1/FVC ratio. A CBC, a TSH level, and a basic metabolic panel are all normal except for a serum bicarbonate level of 35 mEq/L (N 22–29).

These findings are most consistent with:

A

Obesity hypoventilation syndrome

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165
Q

Management of systolic heart failure without exacerbation whose EF is 35% and they cannot tolerate ace/arb due to angioedema in African American patient

A

a combination of direct-acting vasodilators such as isorbide and hydralazine is preferred

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166
Q

A young man with weight loss, oral thrush, lymphadenopathy, and ulcerative esophagitis is likely to have:

A

HIV infection (IV drug use)

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167
Q

The most common pathogens causing esophageal ulceration in HIV-positive patients include:

A

Candida, herpes simplex virus, and cytomegalovirus

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168
Q

The majority of cases of viral conjunctivitis are caused by

A

Adenovirus

(which cause pharyngeal conjunctival fever and epidemic keratoconjunctivitis. Pharyngeal conjunctival fever is characterized by high fever, pharyngitis, and bilateral eye inflammation. Keratoconjunctivitis occurs in epidemics, and is associated with a watery discharge, hyperemia, and ipsilateral lymphadenopathy in >50% of cases)

Viral, no treatment

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169
Q

47-year-old female presents to your office with a complaint of hair loss. On examination she has a localized 2-cm round area of complete hair loss on the top of her scalp

A

Alopecia areata (thought to be caused by a localized autoimmune reaction to hair follicles)

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170
Q

The initial treatment of choice for patients older than 10 years of age, in cases where alopecia areata affects less than 50% of the scalp, is:

A

Intralesional corticosteroid injections

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171
Q

_____ is an alternative for children younger than 10 years of age or for patients in whom alopecia areata affects more than 50% of the scalp.

A

Minoxidil

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172
Q

In a patient with CAP and history of AAA, what antibiotic should be avoided?

A

Fluoroquinolones because they cause increased risk of aortic dissection in patients who already have aortic aneurysm or increased risk of aortic aneurysm

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173
Q

In a young adult with community-acquired pneumonia who is not sick enough to be hospitalized, the current recommendation is to empirically treat with

A

macrolide antibiotic such as azithromycin. This covers the atypical organism Mycoplasma pneumoniae, which is one of the most common causes of community-acquired pneumonia. Certain fluoroquinolones such as levofloxacin also cover atypical causes, but ciprofloxacin does not

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174
Q

Nonprolactin-secreting adenomas, especially those >10 mm in size (macroadenomas), require

A

Neurosurgical evaluation

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175
Q

Microadenomas <10 mm in size that are secreting prolactin are treated with

A

Dopaminertic agent such as bromocriptine

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176
Q

Indications for an adult patient with acute bronchitis to have a chest radiograph include:

A

bloody sputum, rusty-colored sputum, or dyspnea; a pulse rate >100 beats/min; a respiratory rate >24/min; or a temperature >37.8°C (100.0°F). A chest radiograph is also indicated if there are abnormal findings on a chest examination such as fremitus, egophony, or focal consolidation.

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177
Q

Risk factors for septic arthritis include

A

underlying joint disease such as rheumatoid arthritis or osteoarthritis, and immunosuppressive states such as HIV infection, diabetes mellitus, and taking immunosuppressive medications

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178
Q

Leser-Trelat sign

A

Sudden onset of seborrheic keratosis means adenocarcinoma of stomach

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179
Q

What causes falsely elevated A1c

A

Vitamin B12 def bc of decreased erythropoiesis

Iron def anemia bc of decreased erythropoiesis

CKD may increased RBC glycation through liquid peroxidaxe and extends erythrocytes lifespan due to do erythropoietin levels

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180
Q

What falsely lowers A1c

A

Hemolytic anemia bc if decreased RBC lifespan

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181
Q

Most common cause of neonatal sepsis

A

E. Coli, GBS

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182
Q

Lichen nitidus

A

Benign but uncommon.

Discreet pinhead sized hypopigmented papules that are asymptomatic

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183
Q

Lichen sclerosis

A

Common, appear as hypoigmented lesions with texture of cellophane, on glans or prepuce

Atrophy, erosions and bullae are common

Patients present with itching, pain , bleeding, possibly phimosis or obstructed voiding

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184
Q

Angiokeratomas

A

Asymptomatic, circumscribed, red or blueish papules

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185
Q

Brown sputum plug in asthma patients with multiple exacerbation

A

Aspergillosis

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186
Q

the most common cause of polyhydramnios

A

Anencephaly due to transudation from the exposed meninges

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187
Q

Treatment of cocaine-associated chest pain is similar to that of acute coronary syndrome, unstable angina, or acute myocardial infarction, but there are exceptions. The hypertension, tachycardia, and chest pain will often respond to

A

IV Benzos

BB contraindicated in cocaine induced ischemia bc they can exacerbate coronary artery spasm

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188
Q

herpes zoster ophthalmicus (four vesicles on upper eyelid)

A

In addition to treatment with a systemic antiviral agent, it is important that the patient see an ophthalmologist to be evaluated for corneal disease and iritis, as vision can be lost. This is a viral infection, so corticosteroids could worsen the infection.

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189
Q

Hepatotoxicity resulting from timed-release formulations of _____ have been reported in the elderly

A

Niacin

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190
Q

postpartum urinary retention risk factors

A

more likely to occur in patients who are primiparous, have a prolonged first or second stage of labor, have instrumented vaginal deliveries, or require a cesarean section for failure to progress

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191
Q

Postpartum urinary retention

A

defined as a post-void bladder residual of at least 150 cc that is present 6 hours or more after delivery

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192
Q

Nausea in pregnancy

methylprednisolone is also effective
but should be avoided in the first trimester as it is associated with

A

with an increased risk of cleft palate if used before 10 weeks of gestation

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193
Q

Scopolamine is effective for nausea and vomiting of pregnancy but should be avoided in the first trimester
due to

A

possibility of causing trunk and limb deformities

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194
Q

First line therapy for nausea in pregnancy

A

Vitamin B6

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195
Q

All causes of polyhydraminos

A

Anencephaly, esophageal atresia, heart failure, and maternal α-thalassemia

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196
Q

Intrauterine heart failure, whether due to dysrhythmias, structural defects, or severe anemia, often leads to

A

Fetal hydrops which is associated with polyhydraminos

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197
Q

α-Thalassemia, relatively common in Asians, can also cause

A

Fetal hydrops and polyhydraminos

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198
Q

Most commonly associated with oligonydraminos

A

Posterior urethral valves

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199
Q

In many normally developing infants there may be imperfect coordination of eye movements and alignment during the early days and weeks of life, but proper coordination should be achieved by

A

Age 4-6 months

Less than 3 month olds is normal, otherwise kid is at risk of developing amblyopia

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200
Q

Primary ovarian failure is defined as:

A

This is defined as menopause before the age of 40 due to ovarian follicular depletion. Laboratory findings will usually reveal a low serum estradiol and elevated FSH and LH levels.

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201
Q

Intrauterine synechiae

A

Patients present with abnormal uterine bleeding, recurrent pregnancy loss, dysmenorrhea, and infertility. FSH and LH levels are usually normal

Characterized by scarring in the uterus

202
Q

Risk factors for intrauterine syncheciae

A

Risk factors include intrauterine procedures, pregnancy, inflammation, and infection

(Scar tissue inside the uterus)

203
Q

The most common cause of hypercalcemia is

A

Hyperparathyroidism

204
Q

An infant appears nontoxic and is afebrile, but is tachypneic with a prominent cough. Physical examination reveals diffuse rales with few wheezes. Conjunctivitis is present in about 50% of cases

The chest film shows hyperinflation and diffuse interstitial or patchy infiltrates.

A

Chlamydial pneumonia

205
Q

Focal wheezing in a pediatric pt with no asthma

A

Mycoplasma pneumonia

206
Q

Has a sudden onset, and infant appears very ill and has a fever. At the time of onset there may be an expiratory wheeze simulating bronchiolitis. Signs of abdominal distress, tachypnea, dyspnea, and localized or diffuse bronchopneumonia or lobar disease may be present. The WBC count shows a prominent leukocytosis.

A

Staphylococcal pneumonia

207
Q

start with rhinorrhea and pharyngitis, followed in 1–3 days by cough and wheezing. Auscultation reveals diffuse rhonchi, fine rales, and wheezes. The chest film is often normal, but if the illness progresses, cough and wheezing increase, air hunger and intercostal retractions develop, and evidence of hyperexpansion of the chest is seen

A

Respiratory syncytial virus

208
Q

presents with typical cold symptoms. Eight percent of infections affect the upper respiratory tract. In children hospitalized for severe respiratory illness, this virus account for about 50% of the cases of laryngotracheitis and about 15% each of the cases of bronchitis, bronchiolitis, and pneumonia.

A

Parainfluenza virus

209
Q

Bone age would be expected to be at least ___ standard deviations below the mean for agematched peers of the same chronologic age

A

2.5

210
Q

According to the American Heart Association’s 2007 guidelines, prophylaxis to prevent bacterial endocarditis associated with dental, gastrointestinal, or genitourinary procedures is now indicated only for

A

high-risk patients with prosthetic valves, a previous history of endocarditis, unrepaired cyanotic congenital heart disease (CHD), or CHD repaired with prosthetic material, and for cardiac transplant recipients who develop valvular disease.

211
Q

Hyperthyroidism can be caused by

A

Amiodarone

212
Q

preferred initial test for a patient with painless postmenopausal bleeding

A

Transvaginal ultrasound

213
Q

Polymyalgia rheumatica is usually associated with an elevated

A

ESR

214
Q

drug-induced myopathy caused by the simvastatin, which is associated with elevated

A

Creatine kinase

215
Q

Low urine 24-hour calcium levels or a low urine calcium to urine creatinine ratio is not characteristic of hyperparathyroidism. This finding should suggest

A

familial hypocalciuric hypercalcemia

216
Q

Akathisia

A

a syndrome marked by motor restlessness. Affected patients commonly complain of being inexplicably anxious, of being unable to sit still or concentrate, and of feeling comfortable only when moving

Side effect of antipsychotics

217
Q

a result of pelvic relaxation and is manifested as involuntary loss of urine with increases in abdominal pressure such as that which occurs with laughing, sneezing, or coughing

A

Urinary stress incontinence

218
Q

when the urge to urinate is quickly followed by loss of urine, usually a large volume

A

Detrusor instability and overactive bladder

219
Q

marked by constant leakage of small amounts of urine

A

Neurogenic bladder

220
Q

pulmonary hemorrhage, glomerulonephritis, and antiglomerular basement membrane antibodies

A

Goodpasture’s syndrome

221
Q

Neurogenic bladder

A

can be caused by diabetes mellitus, multiple sclerosis, or spinal cord injury, and is usually initially treated with a strict voluntary urination schedule, which may be coupled with Crede’s maneuver. It can be treated further by adding bethanechol to the regimen. Many patients have to be taught intermittent self-catheterization of the bladder. Ultimately, the patient may require resection of the internal sphincter of the bladder neck.

222
Q

herpes zoster ophthalmicus (four vesicles on eyelid)

A

In addition to treatment with a systemic antiviral agent, it is important that the patient see an ophthalmologist to be evaluated for corneal disease and iritis, as vision can be lost. This is a viral infection, so corticosteroids could worsen the infection

223
Q

Hepatotoxicity resulting from timed-release formulations of ___ has been reported in elderly individuals.

A

Niacin

224
Q

What imaging procedure for hematuria?

A

CT urography or intravenous pyelography

225
Q

What lab to check for duchenne muscular dystrophy?

A

Creatinine kinase (will be elevated)

226
Q

Postpartum urinary retention

A

defined as a post-void bladder residual of at least 150 cc that is present 6 hours or more after delivery

227
Q

Risk factors for postpartum urinary retention

A

primiparous, have a prolonged first or second stage of labor, have instrumented vaginal deliveries, or require a cesarean section for failure to progress

228
Q

The most common pathogen for nonpurulent cellulitis

A

Group B strep

229
Q

How to treat nausea in pregnancy

A

Vitamin B6

230
Q

Avoid what med for nausea in pregnancy bc if first trimester defects?

A

Scopolamine is effective for nausea and vomiting of pregnancy but should be avoided in the first trimester due to the possibility of causing trunk and limb deformities. Likewise, methylprednisolone is also effective
but should be avoided in the first trimester as it is associated with an increased risk of cleft palate if used
before 10 weeks of gestation.

231
Q

It presents as palpable purpura of the lower extremities without thrombocytopenia or coagulopathy. It is often associated with arthralgias and arthritis, abdominal pain, and renal dysfunction. It is self-limited and treatment is supportive only

A

Henoch-Schönlein purpura is an IgA vasculitis

232
Q

erythematous rash on the cheeks and a lacy reticular rash on the extremities

A

Fifths disease (Erythema infectiosum)

233
Q

sudden papular or papulovesicular eruption on the extensor surfaces of the arms, legs, buttocks, and face, and it is not purpuric, usually after illness

A

Gianotti-Crosti syndrome

234
Q

classic triad of hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, and kidney injury

A

Hemolytic uremia syndrome

235
Q

most useful predictors of the severity of pancreatitis, reflecting the degree of intravascular volume depletion

A

Hematocrit, BUN, creatinine

236
Q

Causes of AIN

A

various antibiotics (particularly cephalosporins, penicillins, sulfonamides, aminoglycosides, and rifampin), diuretics, and miscellaneous medications such as allopurinol, NSAIDs

237
Q

Effective treatments for chronic orthostatic hypotension include

A

fludrocortisone, midodrine, and physostigmine

238
Q

Risk factors for progression from latent to active tuberculosis include

A

lung cancer, diabetes mellitus,
alcoholism, recent contact with a person who has an active tuberculosis infection, any condition treated with immunosuppressive therapy, and lung parenchymal diseases such as COPD, silicosis, or lung cancer

239
Q

In patients with renal failure, the risk for death and serious cardiovascular events is increased with higher hemoglobin levels (≥13.5 g/dL), and it is therefore recommended that levels be maintained at

A

10-12

240
Q

severe pruritus in the third trimester of pregnancy

A

Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy

241
Q

Characteristic findings of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy

A

absence of primary skin lesions and elevation of serum levels of total bile acids

242
Q

ipsilateral ptosis, miosis, and decreased facial sweating-suggests?

A

Horner’s syndrome

decreased sympathetic innervation due to involvement of the stellate ganglion, a complication of Pancoast’s superior sulcus tumors of the lung

243
Q

responsible for more than 50% of hearing impairments in children?

A

Genetic disorders (e.g., Waardenburg syndrome, Usher’s syndrome, Alport syndrome, and Turner’s syndrome)

244
Q

What is associated with testosterone supplementation in men with hypogonadism

A

Testosterone increases hematocrit and can cause polycythemia. In patients receiving testosterone supplementation, hematocrit should be monitored every 6 months for the first 18 months, then annually. Testosterone should be discontinued if there is more than a 50% rise in hematocrit

245
Q

Oral iron is absorbed better with

A

with an acidic gastric environment, which can be accomplished with the concomitant administration of vitamin C. Agents that raise gastric pH, such as antacids, proton pump inhibitors, and H2 blockers, should be avoided if possible. Oral iron absorption is improved if the iron is taken on an empty stomach, but this may not be well tolerated because gastric irritation is a frequent side effect

246
Q

Anemia of chronic disease is characterized by the underproduction of red cells, due to low serum iron caused by

A

the uptake of iron by the reticuloendothelial system

Total-body iron stores are increased but the iron in storage is not available for red cell production

247
Q

normochromic and normocytic, and is associated with a reduction in iron, transferrin, and transferrin saturation, and increased total iron stores, ferritin is normal or increased

A

Anemia of chronic disease

248
Q

total-body iron levels are low, leading to hypochromia and microcytosis, low iron levels, increased transferrin levels, and reduced ferritin levels

A

Iron def anemia

249
Q

The ophthalmopathy of Grave’s disease may initially flare and worsen when treated with

A

Radioactive iodine

250
Q

Streptococcus bovis bacteremia or endocarditis is associated with a high incidence of

A

occult colorectal malignancies. It may also occur with upper gastrointestinal cancers

251
Q

Calcium chloride or gluconate has no effect on the plasma potassium level, but it should be given first in Hypercalcemia bc

A

rapidly stabilizes the membranes of cardiac myocytes, reducing the risk of cardiac dysrhythmias

252
Q

Patients who have had preeclampsia have a fourfold increased risk of

A

HTN

253
Q

Risk factors for age associated macular degeneration

A

Smoking and HTN

254
Q

evanescent salmon-pink rash

A

Systemic juvenile-onset rheumatoid arthritis

255
Q

pink maculopapules, progresses to petechiae or purpura, which are clinically palpable, and changes in color from red to dusty brown before fading. Arthritis, usually involving the knees and ankles, is present in two-thirds of cases, and gastrointestinal tract involvement results in heme-positive stools in 50% of cases

A

Henoch-Schonlein purpura typically follows an upper respiratory tract infection, and presents with low-grade fever, fatigue, arthralgia, and colicky abdominal pain

256
Q

While prednisone is used to treat other forms of vasculitis, it is considered unsafe in Kawasaki disease, as a previous study showed

A

Coronary artery aneurysm with it’s use

257
Q

child, between 4 and 24 months of age with impaired growth, diarrhea, and abdominal distention. An iron deficiency anemia can occur with impairment of iron absorption from the small intestine.

A

Celiac sprue

258
Q

This illness is due to an uncontrolled proliferation of lymphocytes and plasma cells, which produce IgM proteins with kappa light chains

Weakness, fatigue, weight loss, bleeding, and recurrent infections

A

Waldenström’s macroglobulinemia

259
Q

persistent groin pain, and limited hip flexion and internal rotation

A

Stress fractures of the femoral neck are most commonly seen in military recruits and runners

260
Q

Thalamotomy and pallidotomy, contralateral to the side of the body that is most affected, are most effective for the treatment of

A

disabling unilateral tremor and dyskinesia from Parkinson’s disease

261
Q

Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis, if allowed to be left untreated, can lead to:

A

malnutrition, constipation, oliguria, and profound hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis

262
Q

What medication is contraindicated in older patients who take statins?

A

clarithromycin or erythromycin

263
Q

HELLP

A

hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets

Severe preeclampsia

264
Q

The most common cause of pneumonia in children age 4 months to 4 years

A

RSV

265
Q

accounts for up to 60% of all cases of asymptomatic proteinuria reported in children, with an even higher incidence in adolescents

A

Orthostatic proteinuria

266
Q

When to treat acute rhinosinusitis

A

After 7 days

267
Q

PPIs adverse effects

A

C diff infection, Vit B12 def, iron def anemia, AIN, fractures

268
Q

Cross legged posturing, neck stiffness, hyper reflexia

A

Cerebral palsy, central cause of motor delay

269
Q

Classic early finding of muscular dystrophy

A

Head lag during neck muscle weakness

270
Q

Myelodysplastic anemia has which lab finding

A

High serum ferritin

271
Q

Hemolysis would reticulocyte count be low or high

A

High

272
Q

SCFE

A

obesity and limited internal rotation of hip

273
Q

Nightmares and PTSD, use which med?

A

Prazosin

274
Q

Donepezil causes what side effect

A

Prolonged PR interval bc of cholingeric vasovagal response, bradycardia

275
Q

provides pain relief within a few days in many patients with osteoporotic vertebral compression fractures

A

Calcitonin

276
Q

Overt hyperthyroidism during pregnancy is associated with adverse effects to the mother and fetus, so treatment is required. In first trimester treat with?

A

Since methimazole is associated with birth defects when used in the first trimester, propylthiouracil is preferred

277
Q

Overt hyperthyroidism during pregnancy is associated with adverse effects to the mother and fetus, so treatment is required. What therapy after the first trimester?

A

Methimazole should be considered after the first trimester because the risk of congenital anomalies is less than the risk of liver failure associated with propylthiouracil

278
Q

Which one of the following agents used for tocolysis has the unique adverse effect of respiratory depression?

A

Magnesium sulfate

Magnesium sulfate infusions must be carefully monitored because respiratory depression is a potential lethal side effect. Reflexes are usually lost first.

279
Q

Which one of the following agents used for tocolysis has the unique adverse effect of pulmonary edema?

A

Terbutaline and ritodrine have the potential to cause respiratory distress in the form of pulmonary edema. They do not cause respiratory depression.

280
Q

numerous manifestations, including night sweats, fatigue, weight loss, myalgia, and arthritis. Later findings may include hypertension, skin lesions, and cardiac disorders.

A

Takayasu arteritis

281
Q

conjunctival injection, mucosal erythema, rash, and lymphadenopathy

A

Kawasaki

282
Q

constitutional symptoms also, including weight loss and fatigue, with later findings including respiratory problems, ophthalmologic lesions, neuropathies, glomerulonephritis, and skin lesions

A

Wegenar granulomatosis

283
Q

constitutional symptoms such as fatigue, fever, and myalgias. It also causes skin lesions, gastrointestinal symptoms such as postprandial abdominal pain, and cardiac lesions.

A

Polyatyeritis nodosa

284
Q

IgA-mediated small-vessel vasculitis that classically presents with the triad of nonthrombocytopenic palpable purpura, colicky abdominal pain, and arthritis.

A

Henoch-Schonlein purpura

285
Q

Causes of SIADH

A

CNS tumors, various infections such as meningitis, and pneumonia. Several drugs can cause this condition, including amiodarone, carbamazepine, SSRIs, and chlorpromazine

286
Q

Both ectopic pregnancy and spontaneous or therapeutic abortion pose a significant risk for fetomaternal hemorrhage. Thus, administration of RHO immune globulin (RhoGAM) is recommended in any Rh-negative patient who is unsensitized (D antibody screen–negative prior to administration of RhoGAM). If the estimated gestational age is 12 weeks or less,

A

50 mcg of RhoGAM is recommended

287
Q

Both ectopic pregnancy and spontaneous or therapeutic abortion pose a significant risk for fetomaternal hemorrhage. Thus, administration of RHO immune globulin (RhoGAM) is recommended in any Rh-negative patient who is unsensitized (D antibody screen–negative prior to administration of RhoGAM). If the estimated gestational age is greater than 12 weeks

A

If the estimated gestational age is greater than 12 weeks, 300 µg of RhoGAM is recommended.

288
Q

Contraindications to treatment with electrosurgery include

A

the use of a pacemaker and the treatment of melanoma

289
Q

Contraindications to zoledronic acid (bisphosphonate) include

A

hypocalcemia and a creatinine clearance <35 mL/min or other evidence of acute renal impairment

290
Q

In patients with stage 4 chronic kidney disease, current guidelines recommend monitoring of

A

serum calcium and phosphate levels every 3–6 months and bone-specific alkaline phosphatase activity every 6–12 months with the goal of normalizing these values

291
Q

Which one of the following cardiac rhythm abnormalities is most common in patients with anorexia nervosa?

A

Sinus Brady

Sinus tachy may occur with refeeding of anorexia pts

292
Q

by large ears, an elongated face, macrocephaly, or frontal bossing

A

Fragile X syndrome

293
Q

microbrachycephaly, maxillary hypoplasia, a large mouth, and prognathism

A

Angelman syndrome

294
Q

narrow distance between the temples, almond-shaped eyes, and a thin upper lip.

A

Prader-Willi syndrome

295
Q

When draining a felon (acute hand infection), which one of the following incisions is recommended?

A

a volar longitudinal incision or a high lateral incision is recommended. Incisions that are not recommended are the “fish-mouth” incision, the “hockey stick” (or “J”) incision, and the transverse palmar incision.

296
Q

erythroderma accompanied by fever, lymphadenopathy, elevation of liver enzymes, and eosinophilia

A

DRESS syndrome

Drug Reaction with Eosinophilia and Systemic Symptoms

297
Q

What meds cause DRESS syndrome?

A

Seizure medications such as carbamazepine, phenytoin, lamotrigine, and phenobarbital are responsible for approximately one-third of cases. Allopurinol-associated DRESS syndrome has the highest mortality rate.

298
Q

vesiculobullous rash with mucocutaneous involvement, and erysipelas is a painful localized rash with well-demarcated borders

A

Stevens-Johnson syndrome

299
Q

Red man syndrome

A

Vancomycin

300
Q

Which one of the following agents can be used as part of a test for diagnosing renovascular hypertension, but would also increase the risk for azotemia if used for treatment

A

Captopril

301
Q

should be performed prior to initiating TFN-inhibitor therapy

A

PPD

potential for developing primary tuberculosis or reactivating latent tuberculosis. These drugs are
also associated with an increased risk for invasive fungal infections and opportunistic bacterial and viral
diseases. The FDA also warns of reports of lymphomas and other malignancies in children and adolescents
taking these drugs.

302
Q

dry, scaling, dark red rash in the groin, with an active border and central clearing

A

Times cruris

303
Q

diffuse eruption with clear vesicles surrounded by reddish macules

A

Varicella

304
Q

MOA of Metformin

A

inhibition of gluconeogenesis in the liver

305
Q

Reduced FEV1 and a decreased FEV1/FVC ratio

A

Asthma

306
Q

An abandoned infant is brought to the hospital for evaluation. Based on the presence of a dried umbilical cord remnant and her overall appearance, you believe her to be no more than 5 days of age. A thorough examination is normal except for a finding of bilateral conjunctival erythema and exudate. A Gram stain of the exudate is remarkable for numerous WBCs, very few of which are noted to contain gram-negative diplococci.

A

Infantile gonococcal infection is usually the result of exposure to infected cervical exudate during delivery and manifests 2–5 days after birth. Ophthalmia neonatorum and sepsis are the most severe gonococcal infections in newborns and immediate treatment is warranted based on the presumptive diagnosis

Tx with single dose of 25–50 mg/kg of ceftriaxone administered intravenously or intramuscularly

307
Q

Sevelamer MOA

A

Blocking intestinal absorption of phosphate, which lowers parathyroid hormone secretion

308
Q

tight Achilles tendon then pulls on its insertion site at the posterior calcaneus with repetitive running or jumping activities, causing microtrauma to the area. There may be swelling and tenderness in this area and passive dorsiflexion may increase the pain

A

Calcaneal apophysitis

309
Q

Endometriosis is caused by

A

menstrual tissue in the pelvic peritoneal cavity. Infertility, dysmenorrhea, and
dyspareunia with postcoital bleeding are common.

310
Q

complication of Graves disease, whether it presents as hypo-or hyperthyroidism. It is a dermopathy that most often occurs in the lower legs and results from increased deposition of mucin due to the endocrine abnormality

A

Pretibial myxedema

311
Q

What causes necrobiosis lipoidica, a lesion on the lower extremities

A

DM

312
Q

Laryngoscopy should be performed to visualize the larynx and evaluate for vocal cord pathology in a patient whose hoarseness does not resolve within

A

3 months

313
Q

Emphysema and chronic bronchitis, forms of COPD, also cause a decreased FEV1/FVC ratio, but the sputum is generally

A

mucoid and luminal dilation of bronchi is not characteristically present

314
Q

illness of the bronchi and bronchioles involving obstructive and infectious processes that injure airways and cause luminal dilation. In addition to daily viscid, often purulent sputum production with occasional hemoptysis, wheezing and dyspnea occur in 75% of patients

A

Bronchiectasis

315
Q

During the treatment of severe preeclampsia with intravenous magnesium, the occurrence of apnea and areflexia is most consistent with magnesium toxicity. In addition to hemodynamic support, what else do you do?

A

calcium infusion is recommended as an antidote. Calcium chloride can be used if a central line has been established. Calcium gluconate would be safer with a peripheral intravenous site.

316
Q

When epiglottitis is suspected based on findings such as hoarseness, dysphagia, stridor, drooling, fever, chills, and respiratory distress, what treatment should be instituted immediately?

A

intravenous antibiotic treatment should be instituted immediately, ideally with a $-lactam drug that exhibits activity against methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus.

317
Q

fever over 100.4°F, tonsillar exudates, anterior cervical lymphadenopathy, and absence of cough

A

Streptococcal pharyngitis

318
Q

Although patients with chronic mild liver disease may take NSAIDs, they should be avoided in all patients with cirrhosis, due to the risk of

A

Precipitating hepatorenal syndrome

319
Q

Coral-red fluorescence on Wood’s light examination is typical of infection with

A

Corynebacterium

320
Q

The inhalation of asbestos fibers may lead to a number of respiratory diseases, including

A

ung cancer, asbestosis, pleural plaques, benign pleural effusion, and malignant mesothelioma

321
Q

individuals who worked in construction trades or as boilermakers, shipyard workers, or railroad workers, as well as U.S. Navy veterans are at risk for?

A

Asbestos

322
Q

cardiovascular changes that is a recognized age-related effect

A

decreased maximal heart rate with exercise

Myocardial collagen and mass both increase with age. The increase in collagen may play a role in decreasing left ventricular compliance. The resting heart rate, like the maximal exercising heart rate, decreases with normal aging. Tachycardia at rest may suggest a pathologic state.

323
Q

medication that reduces all-cause mortality and improves ejection fractions in systolic HF

A

Spironolactone

324
Q

Verapamil, due to its negative inotropic effect, is associated with

A

worsening heart failure and increased risk of adverse CV events

325
Q

pseudogynecomastia

A

increases in subareolar fat secondary to obesity

clinical findings of symmetric adipose tissue in the breast region bilaterally and a lack of firm, palpable glandular tissue in the nipple and areolar region

326
Q

palpable, firm glandular tissue in a concentric mass around the nipple-areola complex.

A

gynecomastia

327
Q

Hard, immobile masses, masses associated with skin changes, nipple retraction, nipple discharge, or enlarged lymph nodes would suggest

A

possible malignancy

328
Q

Fat necrosis of breast

A

would involve a history of breast region trauma and would generally be asymmetric

329
Q

caused by reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus (VZV) in the geniculate ganglion of the facial nerve

A

Ramsey-Hunt syndrome (herpes zoster oticus)

330
Q

e painful vesicles on one side of the palate and the ipsilateral ear. When the reactivation involves other branches of the facial nerve it can result in a unilateral facial herpetiform rash that may also involve the anterior two-thirds of the tongue, taste disturbance, and reduced lacrimation

A

Ramsey-Hunt syndrome (herpes zoster oticus)

331
Q

oral vesicles and ulcers, but the distribution of vesicles in the ear and the mouth is not typical of this virus

A

HSV

332
Q

leukoplakia of the mouth but not vesicles and is typically associated with systemic signs of illness

A

EBV

333
Q

throat pain and fever, not vesicles

A

Group A Strep

334
Q

oral vesicles and ulcers but is usually associated with fever and does not typically involve the ear

A

Coxsackie virus

335
Q

The drug most often recommended as first-line therapy for hypertension in pregnancy is

A

Labetalol

336
Q

Metoprolol is contraindicated in pregnancy because?

A

Reports of an association of metoprolol with fetal growth restriction have given rise to the recommendation to avoid its use in pregnancy.

337
Q

ACE/ARB are contraindicated in pregnancy because?

A

risk of birth defects and fetal or neonatal renal failure

338
Q

The appropriate management of a thrombosed hemorrhoid presenting within 72 hours of the onset of symptoms is

A

elliptical excision of the hemorrhoid and overlying skin under local anesthesia, such as 0.5% bupivacaine hydrochloride in 1:200,000 epinephrine, infiltrated slowly with a 27-gauge needle

339
Q

constipation predominant IBS?

A

neomycin

340
Q

diarrhea predominant IBS?

A

celexa (citalopram)

341
Q

cute, transient, febrile reaction that occurs within the first few hours after treatment for syphilis. The condition peaks at 6–8 hours and disappears within 12–24 hours after therapy. The temperature elevation is usually low grade, and there is often associated myalgia, headache, and malaise.

A

Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction

342
Q

According to the American Diabetes Association, screening for diabetes mellitus in the asymptomatic patient with no risk factors should begin at which age?

A

45

343
Q

Which one of the following is more likely to occur with an aromatase inhibitor such as letrozole (Femara) than with tamoxifen (Soltamox)

A

Myalgias

Myalgias and noninflammatory arthralgias are more likely with aromatase inhibitors.

344
Q

Myelodysplastic syndrome is a hematologic malignancy with a predisposition to leukemic transformation. It can present with findings of

A

nemia, thrombocytopenia, neutropenia, or any combination of these. Anemia occurs in 80%–85% of patients and is typically macrocytic.

345
Q

asthma type:

Symptoms less than or equal to twice weekly, nighttime awakenings ≤2 times/month, short-acting β-agonist usage ≤2 days/week, no interference with daily activities, and normal FEV1 and FEV1/FVC ratio at baseline

A

intermittent asthma

346
Q

asthma type:

symptoms >2 days/week but not daily, nighttime awakenings 3–4 times/month, short-acting β-agonist usage >2 days/week but not more than once daily, minor limitation to daily activities, FEV1 ≥80% predicted, and normal FEV1/FVC ratio

A

mild persistent asthma

347
Q

asthma type:

Daily symptoms, nighttime awakenings greater than once weekly but not nightly, daily use of a short-acting β-agonist, some limitation to daily activity, FEV1 >60% but <80% of predicted, and FEV1/FVC ratio reduced by 5%

A

moderate persistent asthma

348
Q

asthma type:

Symptoms throughout the day, nighttime awakenings nightly, short-acting β-agonist usage several times daily, extremely limited daily activities, FEV1 <60% of predicted, and FEV1/FVC ratio reduced by >5%

A

severe persistent asthma

349
Q

asthma type:

medical emergency and requires emergent treatment in a hospital setting

A

Status asthmaticus

350
Q

the one SSRI that is thought to carry an increased risk of congenital malformations with first-trimester exposure and should be avoided

A

Paroxetine

351
Q

Tricyclic antidepressants are class __ in pregnancy.

A

D

352
Q

Are MAOi’s contraindicated in pregnancy?

A

yes

353
Q

However, the rotavirus series should not be started at what age?

A

past 15 weeks of age, or continued past 8 months of age

354
Q

When compared with an occiput anterior fetal position, a persistent occiput posterior fetal position is LESS likely to result in?

A

Spontaneous vaginal delivery

A persistent occiput posterior position is associated with a higher risk of cesarean delivery and assisted vaginal delivery, and a lower chance of spontaneous vaginal delivery.

355
Q

increased pain with overhead shoulder activity, popping or grinding, loss of strength, and trouble locating a specific point of pain.

A

Tear of the labrum

356
Q

enerally occurs with a fall on an outstretched arm or direct blow to the lateral side of the arm. Generally there is pain or bruising over the fracture site. Movement will be restricted by pain, but there should not be any weakness.

A

fracture of the humeral head

357
Q

not generally caused by acute trauma, but by irritation and microtrauma due to repetitive elevation or abduction of the shoulder, causing an inflammatory reaction in the synovial sheath. Patients generally present with a complaint of pain in the anterior shoulder that radiates into the upper arm. It is more painful with activity and is worse at night. Abduction and external rotation of the arm exacerbates the pain. On examination there should be point tenderness in the bicipital groove. Active range of motion will be limited by pain but passive range of motion will be intact. There should not be any weakness.

A

Bicipital tendinitis

358
Q

usually caused by a fall or a direct blow to the point of the shoulder with the shoulder abducted. The pain associated with this injury is over the acromioclavicular joint margin and there may be swelling. Depending on the severity of the injury there may be full range of motion but it may be restricted due to pain. There should not be any weakness associated with this injury.

A

acromioclavicular separation

359
Q

The most appropriate treatment of a mallet fracture is to

A

splint the DIP joint in extension for 8 weeks

360
Q

There is good evidence that psychostimulants reduce symptoms of depression within?

A

days

Methylphenidate (Ritalin)

good for depression in end of life patients who only have 2-3 weeks to live

361
Q

Clindamycin has broader coverage against both pulmonary anaerobes and facultative aerobes such as

A

Staphylococcus aureus and Klebsiella, which are often seen with lung abscesses

362
Q

A 42-year-old male sees you for help to quit smoking. His sister had excellent results with bupropion (Zyban) and he asks if he could try using it. When you review his medical history, which one of the following would be a contraindication to bupropion?

A

Seizure disorder; bupropion lowers the seizure threshold and should not be used in patient’s with seizure disorder or alcoholism

363
Q

MOA of renal side effect of ACE inhibitors

A

Impaired autoregulation of glomerular blood flow

Blood flow to the kidney is autoregulated so as to sustain pressure within the glomerulus. This is influenced by angiotensin II–related vasoconstriction. ACE inhibitors can impair the kidney’s autoregulatory function, resulting in a decreased glomerular filtration rate and possibly acute renal injury. This is usually reversible if it is recognized and the offending agent stopped.

364
Q

MOA of renal side effects of statins, haloperidol, and drugs of abuse (cocaine, heroin)

A

can cause rhabdomyolysis with the release of myoglobin, which causes acute renal injury.

365
Q

MOA of renal side effects of clopidogrel, quinine, or certain chemotherapeutic agents

A

Thrombotic microangiopathy is a rare mechanism of injury to the kidney

366
Q

treatment of choice for menorrhagia due to endometrial hyperplasia without atypia

A

progestational drugs

Progestins convert the proliferative endometrium to a secretory one, causing withdrawal bleeding and the regression of hyperplasia. The most commonly used form is cyclic oral medroxyprogesterone, given 14 days per month, but implanted intrauterine levonorgestrel is the most effective (SOR A) and also provides contraception.

367
Q

Maternal varicella infection is particularly problematic during weeks 13–20 of pregnancy (resulting in a…)

A

2% risk of congenital varicella in the newborn

neonatal varicella infection

368
Q

Maternal varicella infection is particularly problematic during

A

during weeks 13–20 of pregnancy (resulting in a 2% risk of congenital varicella in the newborn) and when the onset of maternal symptoms occurs from 5 days before until 2 days after delivery

369
Q

The ACIP also recommends that term infants born within the 7-day window described above (maternal symptoms 5 days before until 2 days after delivery), as well as all preterm infants, receive

A

receive varicella immune globulin, and that those who develop any signs of varicella infection also be given intravenous acyclovir

370
Q

Term infants delivered more than 5 days after the onset of maternal varicella…

A

are thought to have adequate passive immunity for protection and the expected benign course generally requires only observation

371
Q

pain in the medial knee distal to the joint space, at the conjoined tendon of the sartorius, gracilis, and semitendinosus

A

Pes anserine bursitis

372
Q

tenderness of the tibial tubercle at the distal insertion of the patellar ligament

A

Osgood-Schlatter disease

373
Q

most common between 8 months and 4 years of age and the child is most likely to have a history of the sudden onset of wheezing associated with choking

A

Foreign body aspiration

374
Q

American Academy of Pediatrics now recommends screening for ___ between 8 and 11 yrs old

A

Dyslipidemia

375
Q

American Academy of Pediatrics now recommends screening for ___ between 11 and 21

A

Depression

376
Q

Peds:

Universal screening for iron deficiency anemia is recommended at

A

recommended at 12 months of age and

again at 15–30 months of age if the patient is determined to be high risk

377
Q

Community-acquired pneumonia in children over the age of 5 is most commonly due to

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae, Chlamydophila pneumoniae, and Streptococcus pneumoniae

(Treat with Azithromycin)

378
Q

Primary hyperaldosteronism is the most common cause of secondary hypertension in the middle-aged population, and can be diagnosed from

A

renin/aldosterone ratio

379
Q

vertigo lasting for 20–120 minutes, accompanied by a fluctuating hearing loss, tinnitus, and a sense of aural fullness

A

Meniere disease

380
Q

In young children with bilious emesis, anorexia, and lack of fever, the most likely diagnosis is

A

Intestinal malrotation with volvulus

381
Q

intestinal malrotation with volvulus, how to diagnose

A

Upper GI series

382
Q

pneumococcal vaccine is recommended once at age 65, or as soon afterward as possible. Persons that should be immunized before age 65 include patients with

A

chronic lung disease, cardiovascular disease, diabetes mellitus, chronic liver disease, cerebrospinal fluid leaks, cochlear implants, immunocompromising conditions, or asplenia, and residents of nursing homes and long-term care facilities

383
Q

Early recognition and prompt treatment with intubation and mechanical ventilation is necessary to improve chances for survival in patients with ARDS.

What ventilator settings?

A

Patients with ARDS should be started at lower tidal volumes (6 mL/kg) instead of the traditional volumes (10–15 mL/kg). These patients also often require higher positive end-expiratory pressure settings (SOR B).

384
Q

hypotonia, a flat face, upward and slanted palpebral fissures and epicanthic folds, and speckled irises (Brushfield spots); varying degrees of mental and growth retardation; dysplasia of the pelvis; cardiac malformations; a simian crease; short, broad hands; hypoplasia of the middle phalanx of the 5th finger; and a high, arched palate.

A

Down syndrome

385
Q

widely separated eyes with epicanthic folds, low-set ears, a broad and flat nose, a receding chin, and limb anomalies, bilateral renal agenesis

A

Potter syndrome

386
Q

Children with diabetes mellitus are at increased risk for

A

Retinopathy, nephropathy and hypertension

387
Q

Children with DM1 are likely to have more immune mediated disorders such as?

A

celiac disease and hypothyroidism

388
Q

For several years, a hypertensive 65-year-old female has been treated with hydrochlorothiazide, 25 mg/day; atenolol (Tenormin), 100 mg/day; and hydralazine, 50 mg 4 times/day. Her blood pressure has been well controlled on this regimen. Over the past 2 months she has experienced malaise, along with diffuse joint pains that involve symmetric sites in the fingers, hands, elbows, and knees. A pleural friction rub is noted on examination. Laboratory testing shows that the patient has mild anemia and leukopenia, with a negative rheumatoid factor and a positive antinuclear antibody (ANA) titer of 1:640

What med to stop?

A

Hydralazine

Drug induced SLE, procainamide and hydralazine

389
Q

Patients with disorders in this group exhibit odd or eccentric personalities, and the group
includes paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal personality disorders

A

Cluster A personalities

390
Q

characterized by dramatic, emotional, or erratic personalities, and include
antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic personality disorders

A

Cluster B personality disorders

391
Q

include avoidant, obsessive-compulsive, and dependent personality disorders. Patients with disorders in this group exhibit mainly anxious or fearful behaviors.

A

Cluster C personality disorders

392
Q

The etiologic agent that causes erysipelas is?

A

Strep pyogenes (group A strep)

393
Q

Which one of the following is an appropriate treatment for tinea capitis?

A

Oral griseofulvin

It has the fewest drug interactions, a good safety record, and anti-inflammatory properties. Terbinafine has equal effectiveness and requires a significantly shorter duration of therapy, but it is only available in tablet form. Since tinea capitis most commonly occurs in children, tablets would have to be cut and/or crushed prior to administration. Oral itraconazole, fluconazole, and ketoconazole have significant side effects. Topical antifungals such as ketoconazole and miconazole are ineffective against tinea capitis. Topical acyclovir is used in the treatment of herpesvirus infections, and oral cephalosporins are used in the treatment of bacterial skin infections.

394
Q

Which one of the following organisms is the most common cause of cutaneous infections associated with intertrigo?

A

Candida

It is facilitated by moisture trapped in deep skinfolds where air circulation is limited. When intertrigo does not respond to usual conservative measures, including keeping the skin clean and dry, evaluation for infection is recommended. A Wood’s light examination, KOH preparation, and exudate culture can assist in identifying causative organisms.

395
Q

Intertrigo in interdigital spaces is most often caused by

A

dermatophytes (e.g., Trichophyton rubrum, Trichophyton mentagrophytes, Epidermophyton floccosum) are more common

396
Q

Drugs that dilate the internal sphincter, including ___, ____, ____ have proven to be beneficial in healing acute fissures

A

diltiazem, nifedipine, and nitroglycerin ointment

397
Q

characterized by tremor, anxiety, nausea, vomiting, and/or insomnia 6–24 hours after the patient’s last drink

A

Minor alcohol withdrawal

398
Q

occurs 10–72 hours after the last drink and can include the signs and symptoms of minor withdrawal, as well as visual and auditory hallucinations, diaphoresis, tachycardia, and elevated blood pressure

A

Major alcohol withdrawal

399
Q

generally occurs within 2 days of the last drink and may be the only sign of withdrawal, although approximately one-third of these patients will progress to delirium tremens

A

Alcoholic seizure

400
Q

can occur anytime within 3–10 days following the last drink. The defining clinical finding is delirium, but the findings seen in milder forms of alcohol withdrawal can also be present, and may be more severe. Fever is most often seen with this

A

Delirium tremens

401
Q

A heroin overdose is most likely to cause acute?

A

Pulmonary edema

Overdose is manifested by CNS depression and hypoventilation. Clinical clues include pupillary miosis and a decreasing respiratory rate in the presence of a semi-wakeful state. In addition to hypoventilation, a multifactorial acute lung injury occurs within 2–4 hours of the overdose and is associated with hypoxemia and a hypersensitivity reaction, resulting in noncardiogenic pulmonary edema

402
Q

The only FDA-approved oral treatment for acne rosacea is

A

Doxycycline

403
Q

diabetes insipidus, which is caused by

A

a deficiency in the secretion or renal action of arginine vasopressin (AVP). AVP, also known as antidiuretic hormone, is produced in the posterior pituitary gland and the route of secretion is generally regulated by the osmolality of body fluid stores, including intravascular volume. Its chief action is the concentration of urine in the distal tubules of the kidney. Both low secretion of AVP from the pituitary and reduced antidiuretic action on the kidney can be primary or secondary, and the causes are numerous.

404
Q

A reduction of the pain caused by abdominal palpation when the abdominal muscles are tightened is known as

A

Carnett’s sign

If the cause of the pain is visceral, the taut abdominal muscles may protect the locus of pain. In contrast, intensification of pain with this maneuver points to a source of pain within the abdominal wall itself.

405
Q

Centor criteria

A

tonsillar exudates, tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy, absence of cough, and history of fever

Strep throat

406
Q

Patients with repeated EKGs showing a QTc interval >480 ms with a syncopal episode, or >500 ms in the absence of symptoms, are diagnosed with long QT syndrome if no secondary cause such as medication use is present. This syndrome occurs in 1 in 2000 people and consists of cardiac repolarization defects. It is associated with

A

polymorphic ventricular tachycardia, including torsades de pointes, and sudden cardiac death. It may be treated with p-blockers and implanted cardioverter defibrillators.

407
Q

effective treatments for mild psoriasis

A

Topical corticosteroids, vitamin D analogs, and tazarotene

408
Q

Bacterial conjunctivitis is associated with

A

Mattering and adherence to the eyelid

409
Q

The majority of cases of viral conjunctivitis are caused

A

Adenovirus, which cause pharyngeal conjunctival fever and epidemic keratoconjunctivitis

Pharyngeal conjunctival fever is characterized by high fever, pharyngitis, and bilateral eye inflammation. Keratoconjunctivitis occurs in epidemics, and is associated with a watery discharge, hyperemia, and ipsilateral lymphadenopathy in >50% of cases.

410
Q

Pharyngeal conjunctival fever is characterized by

A

high fever, pharyngitis, and bilateral eye inflammation

Adenovirus

411
Q

Keratoconjunctivitis occurs in epidemics, and is associated with

A

watery discharge, hyperemia, and ipsilateral lymphadenopathy in >50% of cases.

412
Q

Common features of acute adrenal insufficiency include

A

fatigue and lack of energy, weight loss, hypotension, loss of appetite, nausea, and vomiting. Other features such as dry skin, hyperpigmentation, and abdominal pain are seen to varying degrees. Common laboratory findings include electrolyte disturbances, hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, hypercalcemia, azotemia, anemia, and eosinophilia. Patients can also have unexplained hypoglycemia. Patients with advanced-stage cancer (especially of the lung or breast) may develop acute adrenal insufficiency from metastatic infiltration of the adrenal glands

413
Q

treatment of choice in the management of adrenal crisis

A

IV hydrocortisone

414
Q

A 25-year-old gravida 1 para 1 presents for insertion of a levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine device (Mirena). She is on the last day of her menses, which began 5 days ago. A urine pregnancy test in the office is negative. You insert the device without complications and she asks how long she needs to use backup contraception.

A

Backup contraception not necessary if inserted within 7 days after menstrual bleeding started.

If IUD inserted more than 7 days after menses started, then contraceptive protection for 7 days.

415
Q

Reduced FVC and increased FEV1/FVC ratio

A

Restrictive lung disease (intrinsic lung disease, chest wall deformities, neuromuscular disorders)

416
Q

Reduced FVC1 and decreased FEV1/FVC ratio

A

Obstructive lung disease (asthma, COPD)

417
Q

Reduced DLCO (diffuse capacity of the lung for carbon monoxide)

A
  • interstitial fibrosis is extensive
  • when capillary surface is compromised by vascular obstruction or non perfusion
  • emphysema (destroyed)
418
Q

typical circumscribed, raised, erythematous lesion with central pallor.

A

chronic uticaria

419
Q

small, erythematous papules that are frequently excoriated

A

scabies

420
Q

lichenified plaques and excoriations that result from excessive scratching

A

lichen simplex chronicus

421
Q

strong 3A4 inhibitor that can slow the metabolism of calcium channel blockers metabolized by this enzyme, thus increasing their levels

A

Clarithomycin

Amlodipine and CCB metabolized by cytochrome P450 3A4 enzyme; do not use together

422
Q

In pt with CAD, what antibiotic should you avoid and why?

A

Azithromycin, causes fatal arrhythmias and prolonged QT

423
Q

treatment of allergic rhinitis

A

topical intranasal glucocorticoids

424
Q

numbness involving the digital nerve in the area, and usually is caused by the nerve being pinched between metatarsal heads in the center of the foot

A

Morton’s neuroma

425
Q

an extremely tender right testis with some tenderness extending to the epididymis. A preliminary report from a stat ultrasound examination shows an enlarged, heterogeneous right testis with increased color flow

A

acute epididymitis, give anbx

426
Q

Crohn’s disease is associated with many extragastrointestinal conditions such as

A

rythema nodosum (as with this patient), anemia, inflammatory arthropathies, uveitis, and venous thromboembolism

427
Q

A decrease in which one of the following could be expected from long-term use of postmenopausal estrogen plus progesterone?

A

hip fracture

428
Q

Bisphosphonates should not be used in patients with

A

creatinine clearance <35

429
Q

if cannot use bisphosphonate in pt with creatinine clearance <35, what can you use instead?

A

denosumab bc it is not cleared by the kidneys

430
Q

most common causes of serious bacterial infection in children 3-36 months of age are?

A

PNA and UTI

431
Q

side effects with long term chronic use of opioids?

A

hypogonadism, constipation, hyperalgesia and allodynia

432
Q

esotropia

A

red reflex will be over the lateral portion of the iris in the affected eye

433
Q

exotropia

A

the light reflex will be over the medial iris

434
Q

hypertropia

A

the light reflex will be over the inferior iris

435
Q

hypotropia

A

the light reflex will be over the superior iris

436
Q

hypertropia is associated with?

A

congenital palsy involving the superior oblique muscle, which is innervated by CN 4

437
Q

syncope related to changes in position, such as bending, lying down from a seated position, or turning over in bed

A

atrial myxoma

438
Q

syncope from changing from a sitting or lying position to an upright position

A

orthostatic hypotension

439
Q

syncope from unpleasant stimuli or physiologic conditions, including sights, sounds, smells, sudden pain, sustained upright posture, heat, hunger, and acute blood loss

A

vasovagal syncope

440
Q

What support a diagnosis of subacute granulomatous thyroiditis?

A

Low radioactive iodine uptake

441
Q

Multiple nodules on thyroid US suggest?

A

multi nodular goiter

442
Q

RAIU in Grave’s?

A

High uptake

443
Q

A 53-year-old white female with chronic hepatitis C is concerned about ulcers in her mouth. She is not currently receiving therapy. Your examination reveals several ulcers involving the buccal mucosa. The patient also points out a number of pruritic, reddish-purple plaques on her wrists, ankles, and back. Laboratory studies are within normal limits except for mildly elevated transaminases.

A

Lichen planus

444
Q

The use of bisphosphonates is associated with a small increase in the risk of

A

atypical femoral shaft fractures, osteonecrosis of jaw, esophagitis, esophageal ulceration, hypocalcemia

445
Q

Developmental dysplasia of the hip is associated with

A

firstborns, females, breech presentation, oligohydraminos, pts with FH of developmental dysplasia

446
Q

codeine, hydrocodone and morphine should be avoided in patients with?

A

ESRD

447
Q

fentanyl is absorbed through the?

A

liver

448
Q

why should paroxetine be avoided in the elderly?

A

it has a long half life

449
Q

low DLCO and obstructive pattern on PFTs

A

Emphysema

450
Q

Low DLCO and restrictive pattern on PFTs

A

Interstitial lung disease and hypersensitivity pneumonitis

451
Q

High DLCO with obstructive PFTs with reversibility after bronchodilator administration

A

asthma

452
Q

Low DLCO with normal PFTs

A

chronic pulmonary embolism

453
Q

Medical conditions that decrease responsiveness to warfarin and reduce the INR include

A

hypothyroidism, visceral carcinoma, increased vitamin K intake, diabetes mellitus, and hyperlipidemia

454
Q

Conditions that increase responsiveness to warfarin, the INR, and the risk of bleeding include

A

vitamin K deficiency caused by decreased dietary intake, malabsorption, scurvy, malnutrition, cachexia, small body size, hepatic dysfunction, moderate to severe renal impairment, hypermetabolic states, fever, hyperthyroidism, infectious disease, heart failure, and biliary obstruction

455
Q

The differential diagnosis of multiple small scaling plaques includes

A

drug eruptions, secondary syphilis, guttate psoriasis, and erythema migrans. If the diagnosis cannot be made conclusively by clinical examination, a test for syphilis should be ordered. The rash of secondary syphilis may be indistinguishable from pityriasis rosea on initial examination, particularly when no herald patch is noted

456
Q

Due to the increasing incidence of pertussis, the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention recommends that all pregnant women receive Tdap vaccine during every pregnancy regardless of when their last dose was. It is ideally administered between

A

27 and 36 weeks gestation to maximize the maternal antibody response and passive antibody transfer to the infant

457
Q

The most common bacterial organisms in this age group (less than 29 days) are

A

group B Streptococcus and Escherichia coli

458
Q

Uveitis is inflammation of the uveal tract and can affect any or all of its components, including the iris. It is the most common extra-articular manifestation of

A

Ankylosis spondylitis

459
Q

painful red eye with conjunctival injection, photophobia, and a sluggishly reacting pupil

A

Iritis

460
Q

Reduced anterior spine flexion (a positive modified Schober test) results from the skeletal manifestations of

A

Ankylosis spondylitis

461
Q

rhinorrhea is clear and often has a sweet or salty taste. The drainage can be continuous or intermittent, and is often associated with a gush when changing from a recumbent to an upright position

A

Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) rhinorrhea is not that rare, and has both surgical and nonsurgical causes. It results from a direct communication between the subarachnoid space and the paranasal sinuses. Accidental trauma causes 70%–80% of CSF rhinorrhea cases, with 2%–4% of acute head injuries resulting in CSF rhinorrhea. Nontraumatic CSF rhinorrhea includes high-pressure and normopressure leaks from causes including tumors, processes including boney erosion, empty sella syndrome, and congenital defects including meningoceles.

462
Q

An 18-month-old previously healthy infant is admitted to the hospital with bronchiolitis. Pulse
oximetry on admission is 92% on room air.

What should be included in the management of this patient?

A

Nasal suction to clear the upper airway

463
Q

Somatic complaints are seen in up to two-thirds of primary care patients with depression, and are more likely in certain groups, including

A

pregnant women, children, the elderly, and low-income groups

464
Q

Which one of the following EKG abnormalities would dictate the use of a pharmacologic stress test as opposed to an exercise stress test?

A

Left bundle branch block

Left bundle branch block makes the EKG uninterpretable during an exercise stress test, and can also interfere with nuclear imaging performed during the test. It is associated with transient positive defects in the anteroseptal and septal regions in the absence of a lesion within the left anterior descending coronary artery. This leads to a high rate of false-positive tests and low specificity. Pharmacologic stress tests using vasodilators such as adenosine with nuclear imaging have a much higher specificity and positive predictive value for LAD lesions, and the same is true for dobutamine stress echocardiography, which is why these are the preferred methods for evaluating patients with left bundle branch block.

465
Q

clinical presentation in patients without HIV/AIDS is typically an acute onset of hypoxia and respiratory failure, associated with a dry cough and fever. Characteristic radiographic findings include diffuse bilateral interstitial infiltrates.

A

Pneumocystis pneumonia. Initially named Pneumocystis carinii, the causative organism has been reclassified and renamed Pneumocystis jiroveci. It causes disease in immunocompromised patients. In non–HIV-infected patients, the most significant risk factors are defects in cell-mediated immunity, glucocorticoid therapy, use of immunosuppressive agents (especially when dosages are being lowered), hematopoietic stem cell or solid organ transplant, cancer, primary immunodeficiencies, and severe malnutrition.

466
Q

fever, chills, cough, and pleuritic chest pain. A sudden onset of severe hypoxia is less common. Radiologic findings typically include lobar infiltrates or bronchopneumonia (with a segmental pattern of infiltrate), whereas diffuse bilateral infiltrates are much less common

A

Pneumococcal PNA

467
Q

radiologic findings of focal, multiple infiltrates or cavitary lesions.

A

Staphylococcal PNA

468
Q

presents most commonly with pleuritic or retrosternal chest pain. Fever is present in about 25% of patients. Cough is actually less common, and a sudden onset of acute hypoxia would be a very rare presentation. Radiographs typically reveal hilar adenopathy and pleural effusion

A

Pulmonary tuberculosis

469
Q

Patients with a CD4+ count <200 cells/mm3 should receive

A

trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole for prevention of Pneumocystis pneumonia, and prophylaxis against Toxoplasma gondii should also be given if the CD4+ level is <100 cells/mm3.

470
Q

Azithromycin is used to prevent infection with Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare complex when CD4+ counts are

A

<50

471
Q

Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease results from

A

interruption of the blood supply to the still-growing femoral head

472
Q

In the hospital setting, the use of atypical antipsychotics is most appropriate for which one of the following conditions?

A

ICU associated delirium

473
Q

This class of drugs has been found to reduce all-cause mortality and cardiac death when initiated after a myocardial infarction in patients with a low left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) and signs of heart failure

A

Spironolactone

474
Q

Guidelines from the American College of Cardiology and the American Heart Association recommend the use of aldosterone blockers in patients who have

A

heart failure or diabetes mellitus, have an LVEF :40%, are receiving ACE inhibitors and p-blockers, and have a serum potassium level <5.0 mEq/L (5.0 mmol/L) and a creatinine level >2.5 mg/dL in men or >2.0 mg/dL in women

475
Q

A 24-year-old gravida 4 para 2 with mild chronic hypertension and an uncomplicated pregnancy has just delivered a vigorous male by spontaneous vaginal delivery. She is noted to have heavy vaginal bleeding and a bimanual examination reveals a soft, poorly contracted uterus. Her temperature is 37.1°C (98.8°F), blood pressure 158/92 mm Hg, pulse rate 105 beats/min, and oxygen saturation 95% on room air.

Which one of the following uterotonic agents is CONTRAINDICATED in the management of this patient’s postpartum hemorrhage?

A

Methylergonovine

Uterotonics are the first-line treatment for postpartum hemorrhage in patients with decreased uterine tone. While all of the uterotonic agents listed are options for the management of postpartum hemorrhage, methylergonovine should be avoided if the patient is hypertensive.

476
Q

It is an ergot alkaloid that causes generalized smooth muscle contraction and can raise blood pressure and shouldn’t be given in post partum hemorrhage in a patient with HTN

A

Methylergonovine

477
Q

Used for post partum hemorrhage, but should be avoided in asthmatic patients and is relatively contraindicated if the patient has hepatic, renal, or cardiac disease

A

Carboprost tromethamine

478
Q

Medications for post partum hemorrhage

A

Oxytocin (Pitocin), Methylergonovine, Carboprost tromethamine (Hemabate), Misoprostol (Cytotec)

479
Q

Tramadol (Ultram) should be avoided in patients with a history of

A

Seizures (lowers the seizure threshold)

480
Q

For patients on lithium monotherapy for bipolar disease, monitoring should include periodic blood levels of

A

Lithium, creatinine and TSH

481
Q

Tortuous retinal veins on funduscopic examination

A

retinal vein occlusion

482
Q

When to avoid stimulants for ADHD

A

Avoid in the following, psychosis, tics, or hypertension

483
Q

___ is the greatest risk factor for group B streptococcal infection

A

prematurity

484
Q

Positive anti-GAD antibodies and low C-peptide at the time of the initial diagnosis are also consistent with type…

A

type 1 diabetes

485
Q

Which one of the following does the American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists recommend as first-line treatment for nausea and vomiting in pregnancy?

A

Doxylamine (Unisom) and pyridoxine (vitamin B6)

486
Q

A 56-year-old female with a history of poorly controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus presents with a complaint of progressive loss of sensation and weakness in both legs over the past 2 days and low back pain that is nonradiating. She also reports that she is unable to feel bowel movements or urination. She says she has not had any fever or chills.

On examination she has a low-grade fever with a blood pressure of 142/84 mm Hg. She has no sensation to pinprick or vibration from the T9 level down, bilaterally. She is unable to move her legs voluntarily or resist gravity, and no reflexes are elicited in the lower extremities. Her WBC count is 12,700/mm3 (N 4000–10,000) and her erythrocyte sedimentation rate is 127 mm/hr (N 1–25).

What test is most appropriate?

A

MRI thoracic spine

487
Q

With rapidly progressing symptoms of paraparesis and sensory abnormalities in a diabetic patient, you should suspect

A

Spinal cord lesion with epidural abscess

488
Q

Treatments to reduce awareness of tinnitus and tinnitus-related distress

A

cognitive-behavioral therapy, acoustic stimulation, and educational counseling

489
Q

indicated for dyspareunia related to vulvar and vaginal atrophy due to menopause

A

Ospemifene

490
Q

a safe alternative for treating menopausal vasomotor symptoms, but not for treating sexual arousal dysfunction in women who are premenopausal

A

Black cohosh

491
Q

A 62-year-old female with stage 3 chronic kidney disease and an estimated glomerular filtration rate of 37 mL/min/1.73 m2 is found to have a mildly low ionized calcium level. Which one of the following would you expect to see if her hypocalcemia is secondary to her chronic kidney disease?

A

In patients with CKD, phosphate is not appropriately excreted and the subsequent hyperphosphatemia leads to secondary hyperparathyroidism and binding of calcium. Decreased production of calcitriol in patients with CKD also leads to hypocalcemic hyperparathyroidism

492
Q

transient or persistent thyroid dysfunction that occurs within 1 year of childbirth, miscarriage, or medical abortion

A

Postpartum thyroiditis

493
Q

How to confirm diagnosis of postpartum thyroiditis

A

Release of preformed thyroid hormone in the bloodstream initially results in hyperthyroidism. During the hyperthyroid phase, radio iodine uptake will be low which confirms the diagnosis

Pregnancy and breastfeeding are contraindications to radionuclide imaging

494
Q

Koilonychia, also known as spoon nail, is a finding that can be associated with multiple systemic conditions

A

iron deficiency, hypothyroidism, and SLE

495
Q

Meds also with osteoporosis and increased fracture risk

A

antiepileptic drugs, long-term heparin, cyclosporine, tacrolimus, aromatase inhibitors, glucocorticoids, gonadotropin-releasing hormone agonists, thiazolidinediones, excessive doses of levothyroxine, proton pump inhibitors, SSRIs, parenteral nutrients, medroxyprogesterone contraceptives, methotrexate, and aluminum antacids.

496
Q

associated with higher risks of endometrial cancer, celiac disease, and structural heart defects

A

Turner syndrome

497
Q

Pt has hypercalcemia with a normal albumin level

A

Stop HCTZ

498
Q

You are administering a mental status examination to a 92-year-old male with suspected dementia. You give the patient a pencil and ask him to show how it is used. He gives you a bewildered look and eventually puts the pencil in his mouth and demonstrates using it as a toothbrush.
This task assesses

A

Praxis

499
Q

the ability to carry out intentional motor acts and is commonly assessed by giving the patient a common object such as a hairbrush or pencil and asking the patient to show how it is used

A

Praxis

500
Q

Meds that most commonly cause hyponatremia

A

SSRIs and thiazide diuretics

501
Q

Present in the Midwest, symptoms are mild

A

Histoplasmosis

502
Q

Present in the Midwest but symptoms include sudden onset of fever chills pleuritic chest pain arthralgias and myalgias

A

Blastomycosis