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ABFM Boards > ABFM Boards > Flashcards

ABFM Boards Flashcards

1
Q

Why no anticholinergics with breastfeeding?

A

Long term, anticholinergic effects inhibit oxytocin and GH release

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2
Q

What class does meclizine belong to?

A

Antihistamine

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3
Q

How does progesterone affect breastfeeding?

A

Interferes with prolactin binding to alveolar breast cells

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4
Q

How can reglan affect breastfeeding?

A

Reglan is a galactogogue. Will increase prolactin levels.

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5
Q

X-linked ichthyosis is associated with what?

A

low/undetectable estriol level

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6
Q

MOA of Alzheimer’s

A

reduced choline acetyl transferase leading to decreased ACh and cortical function

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7
Q

Class of agents for initial tx. mild Alzheimer’s

Give examples (4).

A

Cholinesterase inhibitors (reduce progression and improve symptoms of disease)

Donepezil [Aricept]
Rivastigmine [Exelon]
Galantamine [Reminyl]
Tacrine [Cognex]”

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8
Q

Why was Tacrine discontinued in 2012?

A

Hepatotoxicity, GI side effects

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9
Q

What is treatment for MGUS?

A

Watchful waiting

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10
Q

What is an indication for Rhogam in the FIRST trimester?

A

Rh negative mom with vaginal bleeding

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11
Q

When is Rhogam usually given?

A

28 weeks

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12
Q

erythema annularea centriguam. Description and key info?

A

can be fungi-related, can be cancer related

have a “trailing” scale

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13
Q

What causes erythema chronicum migrans?

A

Lyme Disease

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14
Q

What disease is erythema marginatum seen?

A

Rheumatic fever

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15
Q

How long should sutures below the knee be left in place?

A

10-14 days

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16
Q

At what age: rolling over back to front and crawling/creeping?

A

by 7 months

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17
Q

At what age: pincer grasp (2)?

A

immature: 6-8 months
mature: 10-11 months

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18
Q

At what age: pull to stand?

A

9 months

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19
Q

At what age: 10 word vocab, mama, dada, 1-step commands, separation anxiety at bedtime, object permanence, beginning of self-conscious awareness?

A

18 months

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20
Q

At what age: broad jump

A

36 months

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21
Q

Difference between ectopic pregnancy and spontaneous abortion?

A

ectopic is painful and first trimester, whereas spontaneous is painLESS

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22
Q

Addison’s Disease v. Cushing’s Disease

A

Addisons: adrenal insufficiency. Cortisol and aldosterone are decreased, but ACTH is increased.

Cushing’s: pituitary ACTH excess leading to excess cortisol. And suppression by dexamethasone.

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23
Q

At what age: laugh responsively?

A

4 months

24
Q

If woman has a clot, what would be best tx. of menorrhagia?

A

Progesterone-only modality: Mirena, Depo. (No estrogen-containing products/OCPs)

25
Q

What antibiotics are contraindicated in pregnancy (5 categories)?

A

Fluoroquinolones: harm to fetus
TMP (1st trimester): neural tube defects
Nitrofurantoin (3rd trimester): hemolytic anemia
Sulfa (3rd trimester): jaundice
Tetracyclines (all trimesters): tooth discoloration

26
Q

What class of medications can commonly cause abnormal uterine bleeding/anovulation?

A

Antipsychotics (e.g. Haldol)

27
Q

Sensitivity

A

TP/(TP+FN)

If a person has a disease, how often will the test be positive.

If highly sensitive, and the test result is negative, person does NOT have the disease.

Helps rule out disease “SNOUT”

28
Q

Specificity

A

TN/(TN+FP)

If a person DOES NOT have the disease, how often will the test be negative?

If test is positive, they likely have the disease.

Rules in diagnosis “SPIN”

29
Q

Positive Predictive Value

A

TP/(TP + FP)

What is the chance that an individual with a positive test has the disease?

30
Q

Negative Predictive Value

A

TN/(TN + FN)

If the test result is negative, what are the chances that the person DOES NOT have the disease?

e.g. D-Dimer (negative D-Dimer reliably excludes PE)

31
Q

Give an example of what p value and confidence interval mean in relation to each other?

A

for example: if p = 0.012, and the confidence interval is a range, THEN: there is a 1.2% probability of achieving the same study outcome if the null hypothesis is true

32
Q

If Lachman test has sensitivity of 85% and specificity of 94%, what does that mean? What is it good to test for?

A

Specificity: if a person has a positive Lachman test, then chances are they have the condition.

Tests for ACL tears.

33
Q

Common cause of meningitis in children 1+ mo.

A

S. Pneumonia, N. meningitidis

34
Q

What are some of the mainstay drugs to treat bipolar disease?

A

Valproic acid [Depakote]

Llithium

35
Q

What is the most common US finding of ovarian torsion?

A

Ovarian enlargement.

Abnormal flow is suggestive but not confirmatory.

36
Q

What are risk factors for asthma-related death?

A 
comorbidities
illicit drug use
low socioeconomic status
psych problems
previous intubation
2+ hospitalizations/3+ ER visits in past year
37
Q

What PEF value indicates a severe asthma exacerbation?

A

<40%

38
Q

An oral corticosteroid given within ____ of admission to the ER has been shown to decrease the risk of hospitalization?

A

1 hr

39
Q

Over ____ % of patients with COPD have high bacterial concentrations in the lower airways

A

50

40
Q

Granulomatosis with polyangitis: kidney biopsy pattern

A

crescentic glomerulonephritis, no immune deposits (pauci-immune)

41
Q

Anti-glomerular basement membrane: kidney biopsy pattern

A

linear immune complex (Ab to Type IV collagen)

42
Q

What is the preferred anticoagulant to use in renal failure?

A

Warfarin

43
Q

What is the diagnosis and treatment for sclerodermal renal crisis?

A

DX:
CBC with smear
Serum Cr
Estimate GFR/test urine protein:creatinine ratio

Tx:
ACEi

44
Q

What makes up Killian’s triangle of Zenker diverticulum?

A

inferior constrictor muscles
posterior hypopharynx
cricopharyngeus mm

45
Q

True or false: HIV infection is not an indication for inpatient management of Pelvic Inflammatory Disease?

A

TRUE. HIV infection is NOT an indication for inpatient management of PID.

46
Q

True or false: IgE-based food allergy tests coincide with trigger foods all the time.

A

FALSE: Even if test is + for a food and you eliminate it, it might not achieve disease remission. In contrast, food elimination diet in negative allergy test patients was found to be effective.

47
Q

When does teething begin?

A

6-8 mo.

48
Q

Why should you start thyroxine 50-100 pg/day in maternal hypothyroid patients?

A

Higher risk of pre-eclampsia, abruption, lower IQ

49
Q

What is pseudohypertension?

A

Loss of elasticity/compliance of vessels prevents collapse via blood pressure cuff, so Korotkoff sounds are heard immediately and BP appears grossly elevated. Happens often in ICU settings. Often older pts.

50
Q

True or False: Breastfeeding provides adequate levels of vitamin D.

A

False. Breastfeeding does NOT provide adequate levels of Vitamin D.

51
Q

What is recommended suggestion of Vitamin D supplementation for breastfed infant? When should it start?

A

400 IU Vitamin D daily started within first 2 months

52
Q

Posterior sternoclavicular joint dislocations are a life-threatening emergency. Why?

A

Dyspnea
Dysphagia
Hoarseness (recurrent laryngeal n. injury)
Upper extremity paresthesias

53
Q

What is commotio cordis?

A

arrhythmia caused by blow to the chest

54
Q

Sudden onset SOB in teenager who was playing sports?

A

vocal cord dysfunction

55
Q

What are the 4 Centor criteria? And what is it used for?

A

Fever
Tender neck adenopathy
Exudative tonsillitis
NO cough

Centor criteria is used to determine the likelihood of a bacterial infection in a person who complains of a sore throat.

56
Q

S&S of Kawasaki Dz.

Most concerning complication of it?

A 
"5+ day fever
conjunctivitis
cervical lymphadenopathy
red lips/strawberry tongue/edema
erythema/edema of hands and feet
polymorphous rash
ESR elevated
medium-sized vessel vasculitis

Coronary Artery Disease”

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