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abdomen review Flashcards

1
Q 
all of the following are associated with echinococcal cysts except;
a. cyst within a cyst presentation
b. Casoni skin test
c. ascites
d, anaphalatic shock
e. water lilly sign
A

c. ascites

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2
Q

which fetal circulation pathway connects the left portal vein to the IVC?

A

ductus venosum

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3
Q

The ligamentum venosum is all of the following except;

a. a remnant of the umbilical vein
b. a remnant of the ductus venosum
c. a remnant of the fetal circulation which shunts blood from the left portal vein to the IVC bypassing the liver
d. divides caudate lobe from left lobe of the liver

A

a. remnant of the umbilical vein

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4
Q

the caudate lobe is located on the

A

posterosuperior surface of the liver

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5
Q

the ligamentum teres

a. resides in the left intersegmental fissure
b. is a remnant of the umbilical vein
c. recannalizes in severe cirrhosis
d. is an echogenic spot on transverse liver images
e. all of the above

A

e. all of the above

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6
Q

cystic lesion within the liver include all except;

a. congenital cysts
b. polycystic liver disease
c. caroli’s disease
d. hemangiomas

A

d. hemangiomas

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7
Q

Which is decreasing order of echogenicity?

a. pancreas> renal sinus> liver> renal parenchyma
b. renal sinus> pancreas> liver> renal parenchyma
c. renal sinus> renal parenchyma> pancreas> liver
d. pancreas> renal sinus> renal parenchyma> liver

A

b. renal sinus> pancreas> liver> renal parenchyma

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8
Q

which part of the liver is affected least by Budd Chiari?

a. right anterior
b. right posterior
c. left medial
d. left lateral
e. caudate

A

e. caudate

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9
Q

all of the following mass lesions are benign except?

a. hematoma
b. hemartoma
c. hepatic adenoma
d. hepatoma
e. hemangioma

A

d. hepatoma

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10
Q

a parasitic disease of the liver causing portal hypertension and occlusion of the portal veins is:

A

Schistosomiasis

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11
Q

if on sonographic examination, one finds a patient with intrahepatic dilated ducts and a small gallbladder, this may indicate that the lever of obstruction is

A

above the cystic duct

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12
Q

dilatation of the intrahepatic biliary tree without dilatation of the extrahepatic duct includes all of the following except;

a. Klatskin tumor
b. enlarged portal lymph nodes
c. cholangiocarcinoma
d. pancreatic carcinoma

A

d. pancreatic carcinoma

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13
Q

a 48-year old female presents post cholecystectomy with right upper quadrant pain, an elevated serum bilirubin (mainly conjugated), and bilirubin in her urine, it is true that:

a. she probably has hepatitis
b. she probably has a stone, tumor, or stricture obstructing the bile duct
c. the common duct will probably be less than 5 mm in diameter
d. alkaline phosphatase will be normal

A

b. she probably has a stone, tumor, or stricture obstructing the bile duct

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14
Q

increased levels of alkaline phosphatase are expected with

a. biliary obstruction
b. children
c. hepatocellular disease
d. pregnancy
e. all of the above

A

e. all of the above

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15
Q

a Phrygian cap is

A

a fold at the gallbladder fundus

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16
Q

the causes of a large gallbladder include all of the following except:

a. adenomyomatosis
b. cystic duct obstruction
c. pancreatic carcinoma
d. diabetes mellitus
e. a fasting patient
f. common duct obstruction

A

a. adenomyomatosis

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17
Q

Which of the following is associated with Caroli disease?

a. dilated intrahepatic bile ducts
b. dilated extrahepatic bile ducts
c. Courvoisier gallbladder
d. diffuse thickening of the common duct

A

a. dilated intrahepatic bile ducts

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18
Q

Thickening of the gallbladder wall is a common feature in

a. hypoalbuminemia
b. cholecystitis
c. adenomyomatosis
d. carcinoma of the gallbladder
e. all of the above

A

e. all of the above

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19
Q

Gallbladder wall thickening may be due to all of the following except:

a. ascites
b. hypoproteinemia
c. right sided congestive cardiac failure
d. fatty liver
e. acute cholecystitis

A

d. fatty liver

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20
Q

Courvoisier’s sign is associated with all of the following except:

a. pancreatic carcinoma
b. dilated gallbladder
c. hepatocellular carcinoma
d. biliary duct dilatation
e. painless jaudice

A

c. hepatocellular carcinoma

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21
Q

Throughout its course the splenic vein is located on the

A

posterior surface of the pancreatic body and tail

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22
Q

The most common primary neoplasm of the pancreas is adenocarcinoma. This:

a. is usually found in the head of the pancreas
b. is accompanied by weight loss and painless jaudice
c. is accompanied by a dilated gallbladder
d. causes dilatation of the common bile duct
e. all of the above

A

e. all of the above

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23
Q

The portion of the pancreas that lies posterior to the superior mesenteric artery and vein is the:

A

uncinate process

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24
Q

the pancreas is located in the

A

retroperitoneum

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25
Q

Occasionally a pseudocyst may have internal echoes and

be confused with an abscess. To distiguish the two, one should look for

A

gas

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26
Q

Chronic pancreatitis may be associated with which of the following sonographic patterns?

a. increased echogenicity
b. decrease in pancreas size
c. calcifications
d. dilated pancreatic duct
e. all of the above

A

e. all of the above

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27
Q

Islet cell tumors of the pancreas are most likely to be located :

A

rarely in the head, frequently in the body or tail

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28
Q

the gastroduodenal artery

a. is the first branch of the common hepatic artery
b. proceeds caudally along the anterolateral margin of the pancreatic head
c. is seen in the transverse views directly anterior to the common bile duct
d. is the point where the common hepatic artery becomes the hepatic artery proper
e. all of the above

A

e. all of the above

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29
Q

the common bile duct is joined with the pancreatic duct before entering the

A

second part of the duodenum

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30
Q

Which of the following is correct?

a. the lesser sac is located anterior and superior to the pancreas
b. the greater sac is within the retroperitoneum
c. the perirenal space is within the peritoneum
d. the lesser sac contains bowel
e. the lesser sac is within the retroperitoneum

A

a. the lesser sac is located anterior and superior to the pancreas

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31
Q

which of the following will displace the superior mesenteric artery anteriorly?

a. common bile duct stone
b. pancreatic head mass
c. left renal vein thrombosis
d. rectus shealth hematoma

A

c. left renal vein thrombosis

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32
Q

what is the correct path of a red blood cell returning to the heart?

A

d. splenic vein, portal vein, right portal vein, emissary veins, IVC, right atrium

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33
Q

which of the following are associated with splenomegaly

a. polycythemia vera
b. lymphoma
c. portal vein thrombosis
d. schistosomiasis
e. all of the above

A

e. all of the above

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34
Q

which of the following diseases would result in splenic atrophy (autosplenectomy)?

a. infectuous mononucleosis
b. typhoid fever
c. splenitis
d. sickle-cell anemia
e. HIV

A

d, sickle-cell anemia

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35
Q

the congenital absence of the spleen is associated with

A

visceral heterotaxy

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36
Q

the most common cause of splenomegaly is

A

portal hypertension

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37
Q

a wedge-shaped lesion within the spleen is associated with

A

splenic infarct

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38
Q

which of the following is not associated with splenic traume

a. decreasing hematocrit
b. perisplenic fluid collection
c. subcapsular fluid collection
d. pelvic fluid collection
e. perinephric fluid collection

A

e. perinephric fluid collection

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39
Q

which of the following is not a cause of splenomegaly?

a. lymphoma
b. portal hypertension
c. pancreatitis
d. mononucleosis
e. cirrhosis

A

c. pancreatitis

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40
Q

what is the most common newborn abdominal mass associated with a decrease in hematocrit?

A

adrenal hemorrhage

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41
Q

while performing an ultrasound examination the sonographer finds that both kidneys measure 5cm in length. They are very echogenic. All of the following are possible except?

a. Chronic glomerulonephritis
b. Chronic pyelonephritis
c. Bilateral renal artery disease
d. Renal vein thrombosis

A

d, renal vein thrombosis

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42
Q

a 3 year old boy presents with hematuria and a palpable left flank mass. Sonography depicts a solid renal mass. This finding would most likely represent

A

Wilm’s tumor

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43
Q

Which statement about the kidney is false:

a. the kidneys are mobile within the retroperitoneum
b. the kidneys consist of an internal medulla and external cortex
c. the kidneys rest on the psoas laterally and quadratus lumborum medially
d. renal pyramids are found within the medullary region

A

c. the kidneys rest on the psoas laterally and quadratus lumborum medially

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44
Q

anechoic masses that occur around a renal transplant include all of the following except:

a. urinoma
b. lymphocele
c. hematoma
d. corpus luteal cyst
e. Baker’s cyst

A

e. Baker’s cyst

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45
Q

Which of the following represents the most commonly reported causes of a palpable abdominal mass in the newborn?

a. neuroblastoma
b. hydronephrosis
c. multicystic dysplastic kidney
d. Wilm’s tumor
e. hepatoblastoma

A

c. multicystic dysplastic kidney

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46
Q

Ectopic ureterocele is associated with which complication?

A

upper pole hydronephrosis

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47
Q

Which organ is most likely to be affected in adult polycystic kidney disease?

A

Liver

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48
Q

Bilateral echogenic kidneys in newborns most likely represent?

A

Autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease

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49
Q

the most common cause of acute renal failure is

A

acute tubular necrosis

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50
Q

a hypernephroma is a solid renal mass. It is known all all of the following except;

a. von Grawitz tumor
b. renal cell carcinoma
c. adenocarcinoma of the kidney
d. transitional cell carcinoma

A

d. transitional cell carcinoma

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51
Q

all of the following laboratory values may be elevated in renal failure except;

a. protein
b. creatinine
c. alkaline phosphatase
d. BUN

A

c. alkaline phosphatase

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52
Q

Elevated serum amylase may be secondary to all of the following except?

a. pancreatic duct obstruction
b. acute pancreatitis
c. liver disease
d. obstruction of the ampulla of vater

A

c. liver disease

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53
Q

Which laboratory value is associated with prostate carcinoma?

a. alkaline phosphatase
b. PCK
c. acid phosphatase
d. BUN

A

c. acid phosphatase

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54
Q

Which of the following laboratory values is elevated with liver metastases?

a. alkaline phosphatase
b. BUN
c. PSA
d. alpha-fetoprotein

A

d. alpha-fetoprotein

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55
Q

Which laboratory value is the most sensitive indicator of hepatocellular disease?

A

alanine aminotransferase (ALT)

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56
Q

Which laboratory value is specific for obstructive jaundice?

A

Direct bilirubin

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57
Q

All of the following increase with hepatocellular disease except?

a. AST
b. SGOT
c. SGPT
d. PSA
e. ALT

A

d. PSA

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58
Q

Alkaline phosphatase increased without elevation of
ALT may be seen in all of the following except?
a. Mirizzin syndrome
b. pancreatic carcinoma
c. acute hepatitis
d. choledocholithiasis

A

c. acute hepatitis

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59
Q

Choledocholithiasis may result in

A

an increase in direct bilirubin and a slight increase in indirect bilirubin

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60
Q

Hemolytic disorders may result in

A

a predominant increase in indirect bilirubin

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61
Q

a patient presents with hypertension, urinary epinephrine and norepinephrine and an adrenal mass. Name the adrenal mass

A

Pheochromocytoma

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62
Q

What is the most common neonatal adrenal mass?

A

adrenal hemorrhage

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63
Q

What is the most common childhood adrenal mass?

A

Neuroblastoma

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64
Q

What is the most common primary carcinoma associated with adrenal metastases?

A

Lung

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65
Q

an adrenal mass which causes a propagation speed artifact is a

A

Myelolipoma

66
Q

The adrenal glands lie within the

A

Perirenal space

67
Q

Which vessel is interlobar and which is intersegmental?

a. portal vein, hepatic vein
b. portal vein, hepatic artery
c. hepatic vein, common hepatic artery
d. hepatic vein portal vein

A

d, hepatic vein, portal vein

68
Q

Addison’s disease is a syndrome that results from

A

chronic adrenal hypofunction

69
Q

What structure lies directly medial to both adrenal glands?

A

Crus of the diaphragm

70
Q

Which of the following syndrome are associated with an adrenal mass?

a. Grave’s syndrome
b. Cushing syndrome
c. Frohlich’s syndrome
d. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

A

b. Cushing syndrome

71
Q

The IVC and aorta are located in which retroperitoneum space?

A

anterior pararenal space

72
Q

Which of the following is not retroperitoneal?

a. kidney
b. prostate
c. aorta
d. colon
e. spleen

A

e. spleen

73
Q

The retroperitoneal space is defined as the area between the :

A

posterior parietal peritoneum and the posterior abdominal wall muscles

74
Q

Which is spread through a fecal-oral route?

a. Hepatitis A
b. Hepatitis B
c. Hepatitis C
d. Hepatitis F

A

a. Hepatitis A

75
Q

If retroperitoneal fibrosis is suspected, what is the most common secondary finding?

A

Hydronephrosis

76
Q

The inferior mesenteric vein drains into the

A

Splenic vein

77
Q

Which vessel is imaged between the SMA and the aorta?

A

Left renal vein

78
Q

Which vessel does not drain directly into the IVC?

A

Left gonadal vein

79
Q

The Azygous vein

A

connects the proximal abdominal IVC to the superior vena cava

80
Q

Which of the following is a branch of the celiac axis?

a. left gastric artery
b. gastroduodenal artery
c. right gastric artery
d. proper hepatic artery

A

a. left gastric artery

81
Q 
Which of the following is not a correct anatomic landmark in relation to the thyroid?
a. sternocleidomastoid - anteriolateral
b, Longus colli muscle - posterior
c. Internal jugular - vein
d. Trachea - medial
e. Minor neurovascular bundle- lateral
A

e. Minor neurovascular bundle- lateral

82
Q

All of the following can mimic a parathyroid adenoma except?

a. Minor neurovascular bundle
b. esophagus
c. intrathyroidal adenoma
d. thyroglossal cyst

A

d. Thyroglossal cyst

83
Q

The halo sign is defined as a sonolucent rim surrounding a thyroid mass. It is commonly seen in

A

adenomas

84
Q

Grave’s disease is associated with all of the following except;

a. Hypothyroidism
b. Audible bruit
c. Diffusely enlarged thyroid
d. Prominent eyes (exophthalmos)
e. Cardiovascular symptoms

A

a. Hypothyroidism

85
Q

Parathyroid adenomas may be associated with;

A

Hypercalcemia

86
Q

What is the most common primary thyroid cancer?

A

Papillary carcinoma

87
Q

Peripheral or eggshell-like calcifications are indicative of a;

A

Benign nodule

88
Q

Which of the following lab values would reflect a patient with Grave’s disease?

a. increased TSH, increased T3, increased T4
b. increased TSH, increased T3, decreased T4
c. decreased TSH, Decreased T3, decreased T4
d. Decreased TSH, increased T3, increased T4

A

d. Decreased TSH, increased T3, increased T4

89
Q

Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is characterized by all of the following except

a. Glandular enlargement
b. Coarse echotexture
c. Hyperechogenicity
d. Hypothyroidism

A

c. Hyperechogenicity

90
Q

Thyroglossal duct cysts are usually located

A

anterior to the trachea

91
Q

Which of the following is true about the thyroid;

a. Longus colli muscle is posterior to the thyroid
b. Strap muscles are posterior to the thyroid
c. Stercledomastoid muscle is lateral to the thyroid
d. Parathyroid gland is lateral to the thyroid

A

a. Longus colli muscle is posterior to the thyroid

92
Q

The most common testicular tumor is a

A

seminoma

93
Q

To better image flow in a testicle for evaluating a torsion, you should

A

decrease PRF

94
Q

Anechoic lesions associated with the epididymis are

a. epididymal cysts
b. varicoceles
c. Hydroceles
d. Spermatoceles
e. a and d.

A

e. a and d

95
Q

Which of the following is not a part of the spermatic cord?

a. Cremasteric artery
b. Vas deferens
c. Pampiniform plexus
d. epididymis
e. Deferential artery

A

e. epididymis

96
Q

The most common cause of an acute scrotum in postpubertal males is

A

Epididymitis

97
Q

a complication of cryptorchidism/ orchioplexy is

A

increased risk of malignancy

98
Q

Hydroceles can be defined as serous fluid accumulated between the

A

two layers of the tunica vaginalis

99
Q

Which of the following statements are false?

a. Varicoceles are more commonly found in the left scrotum than the right
b. Most extratesticular masses are benign
c. The tunica vaginalis is an extension of the retroperitoneum
d. Most intratesticular masses are malignant

A

c. The tunica vaginalis is an extension of the retroperitoneum

100
Q

Which is the correct pathway of sperm from the testicle

a. Seminiferous tubules, tubuli recti, rete testes, epididymis, efferent ductules, vas deferens
b. Rete testes, seminiferous tubules, tubuli recti, efferent ductules, epididymis, vas deferens
c. seminiferous tubules, rete testes, efferent ductules, tubuli recti, epididymis, vas deferens
d. seminiferous tubules, tubuli recti, rete testes, efferent ductules, epididymis, vas deferens

A

d. seminiferous tubules, tubuli recti, rete testes, efferent ductules, epididymis, vas deferens

101
Q

Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis is characterized by all of the following except:

a. an increase in pyloric channel length
b. a decrease in pyloric channel length
c. an increase in cross sectional diameter
d. an increase in pyloric muscle thickness

A

b. a decrease in pyloric channel length

102
Q

acute diverticulitis is characterized by all of the following except

a. left lower quadrant pain
b. fever
c. leukocytosis
d. thickened bowel
e. fluid filled bowel

A

e. fluid filled bowel

103
Q

Sonographically, the gastroesophageal junction can be visualized

A

anterior to the aorta and posterior to the left lobe of the liver

104
Q

Name the space that is a recess of the peritoneum located between the uterus and the rectum

A

pouch of Douglas

105
Q

a 4 month old infant presents with abdominal pain, rectal bleeding, and a palpable abdominal mass, What is the most likely pathology?

A

Intussusception

106
Q

Which of the following is a component of coagulation?

a. Vitamin E
b. Vitamin C
c. Vitamin A
d. Vitamin K
e. folic acid

A

d. Vitamin K

107
Q

What is the most likely diagnosis in patient with elevation of CEA, alkaline phosphatase, and GGT?

A

Liver metastasis

108
Q

Elevation of both GGT and ALP would most likely represent

A

Biliary obstruction

109
Q

A rigth adrenal mass will displace the superior pole of the kidney

A

laterally

110
Q

SGPT is the same laboratory value as

A

Alanine aminotransferase

111
Q

Calcifications of the prostate are termed

A

Corpora amylacea

112
Q

The largest percentage of cancers originate from which area of the prostate

A

Peripheral zone

113
Q

The most common location for a pseudocyst is

A

lesser sac

114
Q

What is the classical appearance for prostate cancer?

A

Peripherally located, hypoechoic lesion

115
Q

All of the following statements are true pertaining to PSA except;

a. PSA levels increase as prostate volume increases
b. PSA levels increase with age
c. Prostate cancer will increase PSA levels higher than that of BPH
d. Benign prostatic hyperplasia does not increase PSA levels

A

d. Benign prostatic hyperplasia does not increase PSA levels

116
Q

Benign prostatic hyperplasia originates from the

A

Transition zone

117
Q

Which of the following statements pertaining to the prostate is false?

a. The prostatic apex is the caudad portion of the gland
b. the ejaculatory ducts pass through the central zone of the prostate
c. the surgical capsule is the division between the inner gland and the peripheral zone
d. the prostate is positioned inferior to the bladder in the peritoneum
e. the fibromuscular stroma is a nongladular anterior portion of the prostate

A

d. the prostate is positioned inferior to the bladder in the peritoneum

118
Q

What structure marks the mid point of the prostatic urethra by a small elevation of the urethral crest?

A

Verumontanum

119
Q

The seminal vesicles are located on which surface of the prostate?

A

the posterior/superior surface

120
Q

What is the most likely diagnosis in a patient with elevated AST and ALT?

A

Hepatitis

121
Q

Which of the following most accurately describes the location of the caudate lobe:

a. posterior to the IVC
b. medial to the lesser sac
c. posterior to porta hepatis
d. lateral to IVC
e. anterior to the ligamentum venosum

A

c. posterior to porta hepatis

122
Q

Which of the following ligaments attaches the liver to the anterior abdominal wall?

a. venosum
b. falciform
c. triangular
d. hepatorenal
e. right coronary ligament

A

b. falciform ligament

123
Q

on spectral Doppler, the hepatic veins are characterized by which of the following flow types?

a. Monophasic
b. Parabolic
c. Multiphasic
d. Laminar
e. Turbulent

A

c. Multiphasic

124
Q

Enlargement of the caudate lobe is most commonly associated with which of the following pathologies?

a. Cirrhosis
b. Candidiasis
c. Fatty infiltration
d. Liver metastases
e. Polycystic disease

A

a. Cirrhosis

125
Q

Which of the following spaces is located superior to the liver and inferior to the diaphragm?

a. lesser sac
b. pleural space
c. subhepatic space
d. subphrenic space
e. morison pouch

A

d. subphrenic space

126
Q

Which of the following conditions describes a congenital extension of the liver anterior and inferior to the right kidney?

a. sinus inversus
b. hepatomegaly
c. Reidel lobe
d. Left lobe variant
e. hyperplastic caudate lobe

A

c. Reidel lobe

127
Q

The umbilical vein courses from the umbilicus to the

A

left portal vein

128
Q

a transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS) is most commonly placed between the

A

Right hepatic vein and right portal vein

129
Q

Prominence of the portal veins (starry night sign or periportal cuffing) is most commonly associated with which of the following pathologies?

a. Cirrhosis
b. acute hepatitis
c. Polycystic disease
d. fatty infiltration
e. glycogen storage disease

A

b acute hepatitis

130
Q

Von Gierke disease is most commonly associated with

A

Glycogen storage disease

131
Q

Which of the following liver pathologies is associated with immune-suppressed patients?

a. adenoma
b. Candidiasis
c. Cavernous hemangioma
d. Polycystic disease
e. Echinoccal cyst

A

e. Echinoccal cyst

132
Q

Which of the following hepatic structures is interlobar in location?

a. hepatic artery
b. portal vein
c. hepatic vein
d. biliary duct
e. sinusoids

A

c. hepatic vein

133
Q

Patients with a history of hepatitis B have a predisposing risk factor for developing a :

a. adenoma
b. abscess
c. hepatoma
d. focal nodular disease
e. cavernous hemangioma

A

c. hepatoma

134
Q

The right lobe of the liver is divided into anterior and posterior segments by the

A

right hepatic vein

135
Q

The left lobe of the liver is separated from the right lobe by which of the following structures?

a. right hepatic vein and right intersegmental fissure
b. middle hepatic vein and ligamentum venosum
c. left hepatic vein and main lobar fissure
d. left hepatic vein and right intersegmental fissure
e. middle hepatic vein and main lobar fissure

A

e. middle hepatic vein and main lobar fissure

136
Q

The ductus venosum drains into the

A

Inferior vena cava

137
Q

a cavernous hemangioma most commonly appear on ultrasound as a;

A

Homogeneous hyperechoic mass

138
Q

Organs associated with polycystic disease include all of the following except;

a. liver
b. kidney
c. spleen
d. pancreas
e. adrenal gland

A

e. adrenal gland

139
Q

Which of the following landmarks is not used to divide the liver into right and left lobes?

a. ligamentum teres
b. Gallbladder fossa
c. Main lobar fissure
d. Middle hepatic vein
e. Inferior vena cava

A

a. ligamentum teres

140
Q 
Which of the following describes diffuse foci within the liver, with or without shadowing, most often associated with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome? 
a. granulomas
b. Pneumocystis (carinii) jiroveci
c, Pnumobilia
d. Pneumatosis intesinalis
e. sarcoidosis
A

b. Pneumocystis (carinii) jiroveci

141
Q

Which of the following is not associated with an increase in incidence in renal cell carcinoma?

a. Tuberous sclerosis
b. Multiple sclerosis
c. Long term hemodialysis
d. von Hippel Lindau syndrome

A

b. Multiple sclerosis

142
Q

Which of the following more commonly invades the inferior vena cava?

a. transitional cell carcinoma
b. colon cancer
c. malignant melanoma
d. renal cell carcinoma

A

d. renal cell carcinoma

143
Q

Which of the following is a type of hemartoma?

a. Angiomyolipoma
b. Renal cell carcinoma
c. Hepatocellular carcinoma
d. lipoma

A

a. Angiomyolipoma

144
Q

What is the most common cause of a hepatic abscess?

A

Biliary tract disease

145
Q

What is the most common location of a hepatic pyogenic abscess?

A

Right lobe

146
Q

A “Daughter cyst” are associated with which of the following pathologies?

a. hepatic adenoma
b. cystadenoma
c. Fungal abscess
d. Hydatid cyst

A

d. Hydatid cyst

147
Q

Marked elevation in which of the following labratory tests is associated with obstructive Jaundice?

a. Serum albumin
b. Alanine-aminotransference
c. Alpha-fetoprotein
d. Alkaline phosphatase

A

d. Alkaline phosphatase

148
Q

Where is the location of a Klatskin tumor?

A

Porta hepatis

149
Q

What is the most common form of glycogen storage disease?

A

von Gierke’s disease

150
Q

Which of the following is considered a “stealth lesion”?

a. Hepatic adenoma
b. Cavernous hemangioma
c. Focal nodular hyperplasia
d. Oncocytoma

A

c. Focal nodular hyperplasia

151
Q

Which of the following pharmacologic agents have been postulated to promote cavernous hemangioma growth?

a. Progesterone
b. Estrogen
c. Testosterone
d. Aldosterone

A

b. Estrogen

152
Q 
Which of the following is not associated with pneumobilia? 
a Sphincter of Odi incompentecy
b. Emphysematous cholecystitis
c. ERCP
d. Ascending cholangitis
A

d. Ascending cholangitis

153
Q

Choledochal cysts are more commonly associated with which ethnic group?

A

Japanese

154
Q

What portion of the pancreas is perpendicular to the sound beam?

A

Body

155
Q

Which of the following is not a tributary of the main portal vein?

a. right gastric vein
b. Coronary vein
c. cystic vein
d. right gastroepiploic vein

A

d. right gastroepiploic vein

156
Q 
Which of the following is a branch of the proper hepatic artery? 
a Gastroduodenal artery 
b. Right gastroepiploic artery 
c. Right gastric artery 
d. Left gastric artery
A

c. Right gastric artery

157
Q

What is the most common cause of a hyperechoic pancreas in a child?

A

Cystic fibrosis

158
Q

What is the single most common cause of acute pancreatitis?

A

Gallstones

159
Q

What is the single most common cause of chronic pancreatitis?

A

Alcohol abuse

160
Q

What is the most common cause of a pseudocyst in a child?

A

Abdominal trauma

notes (2 decks)

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