Abdomen review

Question 1

1. What structure releases adrenocorticosteroid hormone?
   a) Thyroid gland
   b) Hypothalamus
   c) Adrenal gland
   d) Gerota fascia
   e) Anterior pituitary gland

Answer 1

e) Anterior pituitary gland
The anterior pituitary gland releases adrenocorticosteroid hormone.

Question 2

Which of the following would be the most likely confused for pericholecystic fluid?
a) Focal fatty sparing adjacent to the gallbladder
b) Focal fatty infiltration adjacent to the gallbladder
c) Hepatic lipoma adjacent to the gallbladder
d) Adenomyomatosis of the gallbladder

Answer 2

a) Focal fatty sparing adjacent to the gallbladder
An area of focal fatty sparing can appear much like a solid, hypoechoic mass or possibly even fluid, and, therefore, when seen adjacent to the gallbladder, it can mimic pericholecystic
Fluid.

Question 3

What is the buildup of fibrous tissue within the penis, resulting in a painful curvature?
a) Zinner syndrome
b) Peyronie disease
c) Buck disease
d) Ecchymosis

Answer 3

b) Peyronie disease
Peyronie disease is the buildup of fibrous tissue within the penis, resulting in a painful curvature.

Question 4

.Which of the following would be described as a benign tumor that consists of all three germ cell layers?
a) Teratoma
b) Hamartoma
c) Angiomyolipoma
d) Pheochromocytoma

Answer 4

a) Teratoma
The teratoma is a benign tumor that includes components from all three germ cell layers.

Question 5

The abdominal aorta:
a) Is retroperitoneal in location, and positioned anterior to the spine, just left of the midline.
b) Is intraperitoneal in location and positioned anterior to the spine, just left of the midline.
c) Is retroperitoneal in location and positioned anterior to the spine, just right of the midline.
d) Is intraperitoneal in location and positioned anterior to the spine, just left of the midline.

Answer 5

a) Is retroperitoneal in location, and positioned anterior to the spine, just left of the midline.
The abdominal aorta is retroperitoneal in location, and positioned anterior to the spine, just left of the midline.

Question 6

Which of the following abdominal abnormalities is not typically associated with ascites?
a) Cirrhosis
b) Portal hypertension
c) Acute cholecystitis
d) Cavernous hemangioma

Answer 6

d) Cavernous hemangioma
Explanation: The cavernous hemangioma is not typically associated with ascites.

Question 7

What is the most common malignancy of the urinary bladder?
a) Renal cell carcinoma
b) Lymphoma
c) Transitional cell carcinoma
d) Cystadenocarcinoma

Answer 7

c) Transitional cell carcinoma
Explanation: Transitional cell carcinoma is the most common malignancy of the urinary bladder.

Question 8

The kidneys initially develop within the pelvis and ascend into their normal position by as early as:
a) 9 weeks gestation
b) 4 weeks gestation
c) 6 weeks gestation
d) 18 weeks gestation

Answer 8

a) 9 weeks gestation
Explanation: The kidneys initially develop within the pelvis and ascend into their normal position by 9 weeks gestation.

Question 9

What structure travels through the bare area of the liver?
a) Falciform ligament
b) Ligamentum teres ‘
c) Abdominal aorta
d) Inferior vena cava

Answer 9

d) Inferior vena cava
Explanation: The inferior vena cava courses through the bare area of the liver.

Question 10

Which of the following is considered to be a function of the spleen during fetal development?
a) Erythropoiesis
b) Maintaining equilibrium
c) Production of nanocytes
d) Production of hepatocytes

Answer 10

a) Erythropoiesis
Explanation: In the fetus, the spleen is responsible for erythropoiesis (the process of making red blood cells). In childhood, it plays an important role in the defense against infection, while in the adult, it produces lymphocytes and monocytes.

Question 11

What is the clinical condition when a patient presents with jaundice, pain, and fever secondary to a lodged stone in the cystic duct?
a) Mirizzi syndrome
b) Kawasaki syndrome
c) Courvoisier syndrome
d) Klatskin syndrome

Answer 11

a) Mirizzi syndrome
Explanation: Mirizzi syndrome is the clinical condition when a patient presents with jaundice, pain, and fever secondary to a lodged stone in the cystic duct.

Question 12

What is the bowl-shaped surface of the pelvis where the head of femur normally rests?
a) Acetabulum
b) Iliac fossa
c) Natal cleft
d) Lesser trochanter

Answer 12

a) Acetabulum
Explanation: The acetabulum is the bowl-shaped surface of the pelvis where the head of femur normally rests.

Question 13

Which peritoneal cavity space is located posterior to the uterus and anterior to the rectum?
a) Vesicouterine pouch
b) Anterior cul-de-sac
c) Morrison’s pouch
d) Pouch of Douglas

Answer 13

d) Pouch of Douglas
Explanation: The pouch of Douglas, also referred to as the posterior cul-de-sac and rectouterine pouch, is located between the uterus and rectum. It is considered to be the most dependant portion of the peritoneum.

Question 14

Which of the following best describes the term chyme?
a) Partially digested food
b) Inflammation of the bile ducts
c) Sever itchiness of the skin
d) Excessive fat surrounding the pancreas

Answer 14

a) Partially digested food
Explanation: Chyme is partially digested food.

Question 15

The outermost layer of the wall of the abdominal aorta is referred to as the:
a) Tunica media
b) Tunica intima
c) Tunica geratia
d) Tunica adventitia

Answer 15

d) Tunica adventitia
Explanation: The innermost layer, closest to the flowing blood, is the tunica intima. The middle layer, or muscular layer, is referred to as the tunica media. The outermost layer is the tunica adventitia.

Question 16

While scanning the epigastric region to visualize the pancreas in the transverse scan plane, you visualize a round vascular structure posterior to the splenic vein and anterior to the abdominal aorta, just left of the midline. Which of the following would this structure most likely be?
a) Common hepatic artery
b) Superior mesenteric artery
c) Celica artery
d) Left renal artery

Answer 16

b) Superior mesenteric artery Explanation: The superior mesenteric artery can be noted between the splenic vein and the abdominal aorta.

Question 17

What is the process the spleen uses to clean red blood cells of unwanted material?
a) Hematopoiesis
b) Pitting
c) Culling
d) Erythropoiesis

Answer 17

b) Pitting
Explanation: Pitting is the process the spleen uses to clean red blood cells of unwanted material.

Question 18

Which of the following groups of signs and symptoms establish Charcot triad and may be noted with cholangitis?
a) Nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea
b) Fever, right upper quadrant pain, and jaundice
c) Epigastric pain, gallbladder hydrops, and bloody stool
d) Tar-like stool, right upper quadrant pain, and vomiting of bile

Answer 18

b) Fever, right upper quadrant pain, and jaundice Explanation: Charcot triad includes fever, right upper quadrant pain, and jaundice.

Question 19

Which of the following parts of the pancreas is located posterior to the superior mesenteric vein?
a) Uncinate process
b) Tail
c) Body
d) Neck

Answer 19

a) Uncinate process
Explanation: The uncinate process of the pancreas is located posterior to the superior mesenteric vein.

Question 20

Prominent walls of the biliary tree that measure greater than 5 mm is sonographically suggestive of:
a) Cholangitis
b) Adenomyomatosis
c) Cholecystitis
d) Choledocholithiasis

Answer 20

a) Cholangitis
Explanation: Inflammation of the biliary ducts is termed cholangitis. When the bile duct walls thicken greater than 5 mm, one should suspect some form of cholangitis.

Question 21

What may be noted between the left lobe of the liver and the abdominal aorta in the sagittal imaging plane?
a) Caudate lobe
b) Gastroesophageal junction
c) Left portal vein
d) Pancreas

Answer 21

b) Gastroesophageal junction Explanation: The gastroesophageal junction may be noted between the left lobe of the liver and the abdominal aorta in the sagittal imaging plane.

Question 22

Which of the following gallbladder sections is the location of Hartman’s pouch?
a) Gallbladder neck
b) Gallbladder fundus
c) Gallbladder body
d) Phrygian cap

Answer 22

a) Gallbladder neck
Explanation: Hartmann’s pouch is an outpouching of the gallbladder neck.

Question 23

Which of the following laboratory values is typically not elevated in the presence of acute cholecystitis?
a) Bilirubin
b) Alpha-fetoprotein
c) Aminotransferase
d) Alkaline phosphatase

Answer 23

b) Alpha-fetoprotein
Explanation: Right upper quadrant pain and leukocytosis are often associated with acute cholecystitis. Other laboratory findings may include an elevation in alkaline phosphatase and aminotransferase. Bilirubin may also be elevated if obstruction to the ducts occurs.

Question 24

Caroli disease is a congenital disorder characterized by segmental dilation of the intrahepatic ducts. What is the sonographic sign associated with Caroli disease?
a) Murphy sign
b) Central dot sign
c) Double-duct sign
d) Double-barrel shotgun sign

Answer 24

b) Central dot sign
Explanation: The “central dot” sign, which is seen with Caroli disease, is the presence of echogenic dots in the nondependent part of the dilated duct representing small fibrovascular bundles.

Question 25

Which of the following is defined as hepatocyte death, fibrosis and necrosis of the liver, and the subsequent development of regenerating nodules? a) Cirrhosis b) Hepatitis c) Hepatocellular carcinoma d) Portal hypertension

Answer 25

a) Cirrhosis Explanation: Cirrhosis is a devastating liver disorder that is defined as hepatocyte death, fibrosis and necrosis of the liver, and the subsequent development of regenerating nodules.

Question 26

Which of the following is associated with azotomia and a distant throat infection? a) Glomerulonephritis b) Acute renal failure c) Renal cell adenoma d) Renal hamartoma

Answer 26

a) Glomerulonephritis Explanation: Patients with glomerulonephritis typically present with smoky urine, fever, proteinuria, hematuria, hypertension, and azotemia. Glomerulonephritis can be caused by a distant infection such as a throat infection or an autoimmune reaction.

Question 27

Which of the following is an inherited disorder characterized by tumors of the central nervous system and orbits and also renal cystic disease? a) Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome b) Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome c) Thompson syndrome d) Klinefelter syndrome

Answer 27

b) Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome Explanation: Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome is an inherited disorder characterized by tumors of the central nervous system and orbits.

Question 28

Which small segments of the renal arteries travel between the renal pyramids? a) Arcuate b) Interlobar c) Segmental d) Interlobular

Answer 28

b) Interlobar Explanation: Oxygenated blood travels through the renal arteries, which enter the renal hilum, and then into the segmental branches and subsequently the interlobar arteries, which can be noted traveling between the renal pyramids.

Question 29

Which of the following would be the least likely to have an anechoic appearance within the spleen? a) Hydatid cysts b) Granuloma c) Pancreatic pseudocysts d) Splenic cyst

Answer 29

b) Granuloma Explanation:Granulomas of the spleen typically appear hyperechoic and may produce a shadow. Complex appearing cysts could be displaced pancreatic pseudocysts, congenital cysts, hydatid cysts, or cystic metastasis

Question 30

What is an autoimmune disorder characterized by periods of inflammation of the gastrointestinal tract? a) Colitis b) Crohn disease c) Appendicitis d) Diverticulitis

Answer 30

b) Crohn disease Explanation: Crohn disease is an autoimmune disorder characterized by periods of inflammation of the gastrointestinal tract.

Question 31

Which of the following renal disorders is thought to be caused by an early first trimester obstruction of the ureter? a) Tuberous sclerosis b) Autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease c) Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease d) Multicystic dysplastic kidney disease (MCDK)

Answer 31

d) Multicystic dysplastic kidney disease (MCDK) Explanation: MCDK is thought to be caused by an early, first trimester obstruction of the ureter.

Question 32

Which of the following is the collecting place for urine before it enters the ureter? a) Renal major calyx b) Renal cortex c) Renal pyramid d) Renal pelvis

Answer 32

d) Renal pelvis Explanation: The renal pelvis is a funnel-shaped structure that collects the urine before it moves into the ureter.

Question 33

In what structure is the penile urethra housed? a) Corpus spongiosum b) Buck fascia c) Corpus cavernosum d) Tunica albugenia

Answer 33

a) Corpus spongiosum Explanation: The penile urethra travels through the corpus spongiosum.

Question 34

Which vessel travels posterior to the inferior vena cava? a) Left renal artery b) Superior mesenteric artery c) Right renal artery d) Left renal vein

Answer 34

c) Right renal artery Explanation;The right renal artery travels posterior to the inferior vena cava.

Question 35

Bile travels from the common bile duct toward the duodenum, where it meets the main pancreatic duct at the: a) Ampulla of Vater b) Sphincter of Oddi c) Duct of Wirsung d) Duct of Santorini

Answer 35

a) Ampulla of Vater Explanation: Bile travels from the common bile duct toward the duodenum, where it meets the main pancreatic duct at the ampulla of Vater or hepatopancreatic ampulla.

Question 36

The left gonadal vein attaches directly to the: a) Superior mesenteric vein b) Anterior aspect of the inferior vena cava c) Posterior aspect of the inferior vena cava d) Left renal vein

Answer 36

d) Left renal vein Explanation: The left gonadal vein drains into the left renal vein.

Question 37

Which of the following describes the body's ability to maintain normal equilibrium? a) Homogeneity b) Homeostasis c) Leukocytosis d) Homeopathy

Answer 37

b) Homeostasis Explanation: Homeostasis describes the body's ability to maintain normal equilibrium.

Question 38

Which of the following would not be a typical sonographic feature of cirrhosis? a) Splenomegaly b) Shrunken caudate lobe c) Monophasic flow within the hepatic veins d) Hepatofugal flow within the portal veins

Answer 38

b) Shrunken caudate lobe Explanation: Sonographic findings of cirrhosis include an echogenic, small right lobe, an enlarged caudate and left lobe, nodular surface irregularity, coarse echo texture, ascites, and splenomegaly.

Question 39

What is another name for suppurative cholecystitis? a) Chronic cholecystitis b) Emphysematous cholecystitis c) Gangrenous cholecystitis d) Empyema of the gallbladder

Answer 39

d) Empyema of the gallbladder Explanation: Suppurative cholecystitis, which is a pus-filled gallbladder, may also be referred to as empyema of the gallbladder.

Question 40

Which of the following terms describes the presence of gallstones within the bile ducts? a) Pneumobilia b) Cholangitis c) Acute cholecystitis d) Choledocholithiasis

Answer 40

d) Choledocholithiasis Explanation: Choledocholithiasis describes the presence of gallstones within the bile ducts.

Question 41

Which of the following sections of the pancreas would be considered the most common location of pancreatic carcinoma? a) Body b) Head c) Tail d) Neck

Answer 41

b) Head Explanation: The most common location of a pancreatic adenocarcinoma is within the pancreatic head, though they may be seen in other parts of the pancreas.

Question 42

What sonographically identifiable abnormality will occur to the coronary vein with portal hypertension? a) It will be enlarged and will anastomose with the hepatic artery. b) It will not be seen, though it will be surrounded by ascites. c) Flow will be toward the esophagus and the vessel will measure greater than 6 mm. d) The lumen will fill with clot and the flow will be hepatorenal in direction.

Answer 42

c) Flow will be toward the esophagus and the vessel will measure greater than 6 mm. Explanation: With portal hypertension, the coronary vein flow will be toward the esophagus and the vessel will measure greater than 6 mm.

Question 43

With color Doppler analysis, abnormal bowel will often produce evidence of: a) Ischemia b) Torsion c) Hyperemia d) Hypoxia

Answer 43

c) Hyperemia Explanation: A normal bowel wall segment produces little to no color Doppler. Consequently, color Doppler can be beneficial, as inflammatory changes and neoplasms within the gastrointestinal tract will often reveal evidence of hyperemia.

Question 44

Which of the following is another name for the posterior subhepatic space? a) Pouch of Douglas b) Murphy's pouch c) Lesser sac d) Morrison's pouch

Answer 44

d) Morrison's pouch Explanation: The posterior subhepatic space is also referred to as Morrison's pouch.

Question 45

Which of the following is a true statement concerning the adrenal glands? a) The adrenal glands are readily identified in the adult. b) The left suprarenal vein is attached to the inferior vena cava. c) The right suprarenal vein drains directly into the superior mesenteric vein. d) The left adrenal gland is located medial to the upper pole of the left kidney.

Answer 45

d) The left adrenal gland is located medial to the upper pole of the left kidney. Explanation: The left adrenal gland is located medial to the upper pole of the left kidney.

Question 46

Which of the following would typically be considered a benign abdominal mass? a) Cholangiocarcinoma b) Hepatoma c) Gastrinoma d) Angiosarcoma

Answer 46

c) Gastrinoma Explanation: The gastrinoma is typically a benign pancreatic tumor that secretes gastrin.

Question 47

The main lobar fissure can be used to separate the: a) Anterior segment of the right lobe from the medial segment of the left lobe b) Medial segment of the left lobe from the lateral segment of the left lobe c) Posterior segment of the right lobe from the anterior segment of the right lobe d) Anterior segment of the right lobe from the lateral segment of the right lobe

Answer 47

a) Anterior segment of the right lobe from the medial segment of the left lobe Explanation: The (anterior) right lobe can be separated from the (medial) left lobe by the middle hepatic vein, which lies within the main lobar fissure. The right and left lobes can also be separated by the gallbladder fossa.

Question 48

Which hormone, produced by the adrenal gland, is responsible for regulating blood pressure by controlling the amount of sodium and water in the body? a) Cortislim b) Cortisol c) Epinephrine d) Aldosterone

Answer 48

d) Aldosterone Explanation: Aldosterone is responsible for regulating blood pressure by controlling the amount of sodium and water in the body.

Question 49

Which of the following testicular lesions is typically benign? a) Yolk sac tumor b) Seminoma c) Spermatocele d) Embryonal cell carcinoma

Answer 49

c) Spermatocele Explanation: A spermatocele is a common cyst found most often in the head of the epididymis. It is composed of nonviable sperm, fat, cellular debris, and lymphocytes

Question 50

Which of the following is not typically associated with the development of portal vein thrombosis? a) Fatty liver disease b) Oral contraceptive use c) Portal hypertension d) Hepatocellular carcinoma

Answer 50

a) Fatty liver disease Explanation: Hepatocellular carcinoma, portal hypertension, pancreatitis, cholecystitis, pregnancy, oral contraceptive use, and surgery are all conditions associated with the development of portal vein thrombosis.

Question 51

Which of the following hormones may actually cause a cavernous hemangioma of the liver to increase in size? a) Aldosterone b) Estrogen c) Luteinizing hormone d) Testosterone

Answer 51

b) Estrogen Explanation: Hemangiomas in the liver may grow as a result of estrogen stimulation during pregnancy.

Question 52

The production of gas secondary to bacterial invasion within the gallbladder wall best describes: a) Chronic cholecystitis b) Courvoisier gallbladder c) Emphysematous cholecystitis d) Acute cholecystitis

Answer 52

c) Emphysematous cholecystitis Explanation: Bacterial invasion within the gallbladder wall describes emphysematous cholecystitis.

Question 53

Which of the following is a milk-filled breast cyst that may be painful? a) Ganglion cyst b) Gynecomastia c) Galactocele d) Lactocyst

Answer 53

c) Galactocele Explanation: The galactocele is a milk-filled breast cyst that may be painful

Question 54

Which of the following is best described as having two kidneys fused on one side of the body? a) Polyrenia b) Compensatory hypertrophy c) Crossed fused ectopia d) Horseshoe kidneys

Answer 54

c) Crossed fused ectopia Explanation: Crossed fused ectopia is a type of renal ectopia when both kidneys are fused and are on the same side of the body.

Question 55

What specialized tissue of the spleen contains red blood cells and macrophages? a) White pulp b) Erythrocytic pulp c) Red pulp d) Leukocytic pulp

Answer 55

c) Red pulp Explanation: The red pulp is the specialized tissue of the spleen that contains red blood cells and macrophages.

Question 56

Which of the following is another name for the pouch of Douglas? a) Anterior cul-de-sac b) Posterior cul-de-sac c) Paracolic gutter d) Vesicouterine pouch

Answer 56

b) Posterior cul-de-sac Explanation: The pouch of Douglas may also be referred to as the posterior cul-de-sac.

Question 57

Which of the following is another name for Morrison pouch? a) Right subhepatic space b) Retropubic space c) Posterior cul-de-sac d) Left subphrenic space

Answer 57

a) Right subhepatic space Explanation: Another name for Morrison pouch is the right subhepatic space.

Question 58

Cancer of the biliary tree is termed as : a) Cystadenocarcinoma b) Transitional cell carcinoma c) Cholangiocarcinoma d) Choriocarcinoma

Answer 58

c) Cholangiocarcinoma Explanation: Cholangiocarcinoma is cancer of the biliary tree.

Question 59

. Which of the following is not true of hepatic cysts? a) Clusters of hepatic cysts may appear as a single complex cyst. b) Elevated liver function tests are often caused by hepatic cysts. c) Hepatic cysts are often asymptomatic. d) Hepatic cysts are often seen in the presence of renal cysts.

Answer 59

b) Elevated liver function tests are often caused by hepatic cysts. Explanation: Clinically, hepatic cysts are asymptomatic and they do not alter liver function tests.

Question 60

Which of the following is associated with Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome? a) Hepatoblastoma b) Hemangioendothelioma c) Hepatocellular adenoma d) Hepatic candidiasis

Answer 60

a) Hepatoblastoma Explanation: The hepatoblastoma is associated with Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome.