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[PBR] Pediatric Imaging > Abdomen > Flashcards

Abdomen Flashcards

1
Q

Level of obstruction can be either proximal or distal, in relation to what structure

A

Ampulla of Vater

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2
Q

Most common cause of congenital esophageal obstruction

A

Esophageal atresia

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3
Q

It is the result of abnormal development of the foregut early in gestation, which leads to discontinuity of the esophagus and frequently an associated fistulous connection between the esophagus and the trachea

A

Esophageal atresia

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4
Q

Most common subtype of esophageal atresia/TEF

A

Complete esophageal atresia with a blind-ending esophageal pouch and distal fistulous connection between the lower portion of the trachea and distal segment of esophagus

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5
Q

Occurs due to failure of the normal sequence of rotation of the bowel and mesentery during development

A

Malrotation

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6
Q

Ligament of treitz is normally fixed on what side

A

Left of midline, at similar level of duodenal bulb

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7
Q

Condition in which the base of the mesentery is relatively short and is thus prone to twisting (volvulus)

A

Malrotation

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8
Q

If VOLvulus occurs, the resulting obstruction is typically seen in the

A

3rd portion of the duodenum

VOL = 3

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9
Q

Midgut volvulus can be catastrophic as it involves the

A

Mesenteric vessels which can result to venous and arterial ischemia of bowel

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10
Q

Normally, the 3rd portion of duodenum in the AP view is seen on _______, and on the lateral view it is seen on ______

A

Cross midline to the left on AP view, located posteriorly just in front of the spine on the lateral view

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11
Q

In malrotation, the 3rd portion of duodenum appears

A

It does not cross the midline and extend anteriorly in the lateral view

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12
Q

In malrotation, the ligament of Treitz is located where

A

Right of midline or may be abnormally low

normally nasa left = edi ngayon nasa right

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13
Q

In malrotation, cecum is located where

A

Either in midline or high in the right upper quadrant

RLQ → RUQ

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14
Q

On ct/mri or ultrasound, the 3rd portion of duodenum in malrotation appears

A

Not passing between the SMA and aorta

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15
Q

Small bowel loops and colon in malrotation appears where

A

Small bowel loops primarily appear on the right side and colon on the left side

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16
Q

In malrotation, SMA appears where, and SMV is located where

A

SMA is in the right

SMV to the left

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17
Q

Normally, SMA and SMV are located where

A

Mimics position of aorta and IVC, SMA on the left and IVC on the right

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18
Q

The 3rd portion of duodenum in malrotation with volvulus appears as

A

Corkscrew appearance or beaking

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19
Q

Corrective procedure in malrotation with midgut volvulus

A

Ladd procedure

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20
Q

Etiology of duodenal atresia

A

During embryologic development, duodenal lumen undergoes occlusion due to normal cellular proliferation and subsequent recanalization. Failure to recanalize is results in duodenal atresia

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21
Q

DUOdenal atresia most commonly occurs on what part of the duodenum

A

Second

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22
Q

Treatment for duodenal atresia

A

Duodenoduodenostomy bypassing the atretic segment

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23
Q

Cause of obstruction of the 2nd portion of duodenum when there is abnormal rotation and fusion of the dorsal and ventral bud of pancreas, causing circumferential narrowing of duodenum due to extrinsic compression

A

Annular pancreas

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24
Q

Treatment for annular pancreas

A

Surgical bypass of the narrowed segment of duodenum

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25
Q

Caused by the redundancy of the duodenal mucosa which may result in a circumferential area of relative narrowing or a pouch-like structure (Windsock deformity) that can cause partial duodenal obstruction

A

Duodenal web

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26
Q

3 Treatment for duodenal web

A

Resection of redundant tissue,
bypass of involved segment, or
endoscopic balloon dilation

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27
Q

Appears as a wedge shaped mesenteric defect associated with the atretic segment of small bowel

A

Small bowel atresia

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28
Q

This finding indicates that there has been an in utero bowel perforation, with spillage of meconium into the peritoneal cavity, resulting in inflammation and resultant calcification (meconium peritonitis). Occasionally, a discrete peripherally calcified cystic mass called a meconium pseudocyst may be present

A

Peritoneal calcifications

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29
Q

In distal ileal atresia, colon appears

A

Small in caliber “microcolon” due to lack of contiguity of the GI tract in utero which prevents normal colonic development by obstructing the normal flow of intestinal secretions into the colon

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30
Q

If small bowel atresia is present in the more proximal jenunal or ileal segment, the appearance of the colon is

A

Normal

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31
Q

Treatment for bowel atresia

A

Surgical bypass or resection of the affected segment

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32
Q

Neonatal obstruction of the distal ileum by retained meconium is termed

A

Meconium ileus

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33
Q

Meconium ileus is strongly associated with

A

Cystic fibrosis

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34
Q

Meconium ileus is likely secondary to what pathophysiology

A

Abnormally viscous intestinal secretions and meconium, resulting in obstruction at the ileocecal valve

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35
Q

In contrast enema, it demonstrate diffuse microcolon, with contrast refluxing into a dilated terminal/distal ileum containing multiple filling defects representing the retained meconium

A

Meconium ileus

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36
Q

Why a hyperosmotic water-soluble contrast is the contrast of choice in the enema for suspected meconium ileus

A

It causes shift of water into the bowel lumen, loosening up the tenacious meconium and allowing it to pass through the colon

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37
Q

This condition, which is also called “functional immaturity of the colon” and “meconium plug syndrome” occurs in infants of diabetic mothers and in infants whose mothers received tocolytics during pregnancy

A

Small left colon

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38
Q

Treatment of small left colon

A

Contrast enema is both diagnostic and therapeutic

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39
Q

Why is colonic atresia less common than small bowel atresia

A

Due to redundant blood supply of colon

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40
Q

Atretic segment in colonic atresia is usually located where

A

Junction of the descending and sigmoid colon

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41
Q

Treatment of choice for colonic atresia

A

Surgical bypass or resection

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42
Q

Occurs due to lack of normal ganglion cells innervating the colon which leads to abnormal colonic peristalsis and varying degrees of obstruction. Rectum is always involved and extend of proximal involvement varies

A

Hirschsprung disease

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43
Q

Common symptom of Hirschsprung disease

A

Chronic refractory constipation

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44
Q

Diagnostic measure for Hirschsprung disease

A

Rectosigmoid ratio

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45
Q

In normal colon, rectum is smaller or larger in diameter than the more proximal colon?

A

Rectum is larger

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46
Q

In Hirschsprung, rectum is smaller or larger in caliber than the more proximal, unaffected colon?

A

Smaller or contracted

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47
Q

Additional finding in Hirschsprung that may also be helpful; it is caused by abnormal peristalsis and spasm

A

Irregular “sawtooth” appearance of the rectal wall on the lateral view

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48
Q

Rare form of Hirschsprung disease that involves the entire colon

A

Total colonic aganglionosis

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49
Q

Definitive diagnosis of Hirscsprung

A

Rectal suction biopsy

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50
Q

Caused by failure of normal development of the hindgut, resulting in a distal colonic obstruction

A

Imperforate anus/anorectal malformation

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51
Q

Associated with imperforate anus or anorectal malformations

A

Rectovesical or rectourethral fistula in boys and cloaca in girls

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52
Q

High or low anorectal malformations are related to what line

A

Pubococcygeal line

• The “M” line of Cremin has been utilized to determine the level at which the blind pouch ends on lateral radiographs (Fig. 51.24).
o This line is drawn perpendicular to the long axis of the ischia on lateral view and passes through the junction between the middle
and lower third of the ischia.
o If the blind pouch and fistula end above the line, the fistula is considered high
o If they end below the line, it is considered low

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53
Q

Skeletal abnormalities related to imperforate anus/anorectal malformation

A

Dysplasia/hypoplasia of sacrum

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54
Q

It is an allergic inflammatory condition that occurs in susceptible patients, often in patients with asthma and other forms of atopy. The resultant inflammatory response can cause esophageal dysmotility, focal strictures or diffuse esophageal narrowing

A

Eosinophilic esophagitis

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55
Q

Esophagram findings in eosinophilic esophagitis

A

Focal strictures which are typically located relatively high in the esophagus

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56
Q

Caused by abnormal hypertrophy of the pyloric muscle, resulting in gastric outlet obstruction

A

Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis

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57
Q

Exact etiology of hypertrophic pyloric stenosis is not known, but may be related to

A

Abnormal innervation or nitric oxide synthase activity leading to prolonged pylorospasm and ultimately hypertrophy of the muscle and gastric outlet obstruction

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58
Q

Imaging test of choice for HPS

A

Ultrasound

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59
Q

Diagnostic cut off measurements to diagnose HPS

A

Pyloric wall thickness of greater than 3mm, pyloric channel length of greater than 14 mm

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60
Q

True or false, diagnosis of HPS depends on the peristent abnormal morphology of the pylorus, not whether contents pass through the pylorus

A

True

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61
Q

Treatment of HPS

A

Pyloromyotomy

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62
Q

6 Commonly acquired cause of small bowel obstruction in children

A

AAIIMM

Adhesions, 
appendicitis, 
inguinal hernia, 
intussusception, 
midgut volvulus, 
meckel diverticulum
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63
Q

Aside from prior intra-abdominal infections or other inflammatory processes as a cause for having adhesions, what else can cause this condition

A

Those with omphalomesenteric duct remnant

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64
Q

Decreased mural enhancement, bowel wall thickening, pneumatosis, and extensive mesenteric edema/ascites are signs of

A

Bowel ischemia

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65
Q

One of the most common causes of bowel obstruction in a previously healthy older child

A

Perforated appendicitis

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66
Q

Relatively common cause of obstruction in infants under 6 months of age and are common in boys

A

Incarcerated inguinal hernia

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67
Q

This is caused by failure of the normal closure of processus vaginalis, resulting in persistent communication between peritoneal cavity and the scrotum

A

Indirect hernias

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68
Q

Common cause of obstruction after 6 months of age

A

Ileocolic intussusception

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69
Q

Why is the ileocolic segment prone to intussusceptions

A

Idiopathic, but likely related to reactive lymph nodes

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70
Q

4 Pathologic lead points of intussusceptions

A

Tumor,
polyps,
diverticula,
inflammatory bowel wall thickening (henoch-schonlein purpura)

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71
Q

Imaging signs that may say the intussusception may be difficult to reduce

A

Diminished blood flow due to venous ischemia and trapped fluid between the layers of the bowel wall

72
Q

What are the common ultrasound findings in ileocolic intussusception

A

Mesenteric fat and lymph nodes

73
Q

Most cases of intussusception are treated with

A

Fluoroscopic air enema reduction

74
Q

Intraluminal pressure below ____ mmHg are maintained to prevent bowel perforation in fluoroscopic air enema reduction

A

Below 120 mmHg

75
Q

Contraindications for air enema in treatment of intussusception

A

Pneumoperitoneum and peritoneal signs

76
Q

Results from persistence of normal embryologic structure, vitelline duct. This results in varying degrees of abnormality from a fibrous band connecting the umbilicus to the distal ileum (omphalomesenteric band) to a true diverticulum

A

Meckel diverticulum

77
Q

A true Meckel diverticulum usually arises from

A

Distal ileum, typically located approximately 2 ft from ileocecal valve

78
Q

An inflammatory process of the small and large bowel seen in infants that were born prematurely, or in infants with a history of underlying congenital heart disease

A

Necrotizing enterocolitis

79
Q

Presents usually in infants 2 weeks to 4 months, prolonged hospitalization, with nonspecific ileus, often with associated bowel wall thickening visible as separation of bowel loops and an elongated, tubular appearance of the bowel lumen. Associated with portal venous gas

A

Necrotizing enterocolitis

80
Q

NEC is treated with surgical intervention or with percutaneous drain placement if the ff is present

A

Pneumoperitoneum

81
Q

If perforation is not suspected, NEC is treated

A

Medically with bowel rest and antibiotics

82
Q

At what age does appendicitis become common

A

2 years and above

83
Q

Diameter of appendix for it to be considered dilated

A

More than 6 mm

84
Q

IBD that causes transmural inflammation and can affect any portion of the GI tract from the mouth to the anus and can affect the skin of the perineum and perioral region. Younger patients present often with more extensive proximal small bowel disease affecting the jejunum, while older children typically present with involvement of the terminal ileum and/or colon

A

Crohn disease

85
Q

One important association with UC is _____, which typically manifests as irregular biliary dilation with beading of the bile ducts, representing areas of alternation strictures and dilation

A

Increased frequency of sclerosing cholangitis

86
Q

2 Imaging modalities of choice when evaluating known or suspected CD

A

CT enterography and MR enterography

87
Q

IBD that presents as discontinuous involvement, with intervening bowel between inflamed segments. Other findings include fibrofatty proliferation, engorgement of vasa recta, ulceration of bowel wall and localized bowel wall thinning (pseudosacculation)

A

Crohn disease

88
Q

Manifest as fixed luminal narrowing with upstream dilation (often over 3cm un diameter)

A

Strictures

89
Q

Penetrating Crohn disease includes both (2)

A

Fistulae and sinus tracts

90
Q

Connects two epithelialized surfaces

A

Fistulae

91
Q

Does not connect two epithelialized surfaces and typically appears as a linear enhancement arising from the bowel wall, extending into the adjacent fat

A

Sinus

92
Q

IBD that involves the colon in a contiguous fashion. The degree of wall thickening may be relatively mild compared to the crohn disease

A

Ulcerative colitis

93
Q

In the setting of pancolitis, this condition may present with mild thickening and hyperenhancement of the terminal ileum due to reflux if inflammatory secretions from the cecum, termed “backwash ileitis”

A

Ulcerative colitis

94
Q

Most common cause of neonatal cholestasis and is the result of an obliterative cholangiopathy in which the central intrahepatic bile duct and extrahepatic bile ducts become atretic due to a poorly understood inflammatory process

A

Biliary atresia

95
Q

Patients present with jaundice and acholic stools at the time of birth or shortly thereafter

A

Biliary atresia

96
Q

Treatment for biliary atresia

A

Kasai procedure or portoenterostomy, where a loop of bowel is brought up to the liver and anastomosed to the liver hilum, with resection of more distal bile ducts

97
Q

In ultrasound, this condition shows a lack of a visible common hepatic duct. Instead there is a triangular echogenic tissue, the so-called “triangular cord” sign

A

Biliary atresia

98
Q

What happens during hepatobiliary scintigraphy in patients with biliary atresia

A

There is uptake of the tracer but there is no biliary excretion into bowel on delayed post 24 hr images

99
Q

Characterized by focal or diffuse dilation of intra-and/or extrahepatic bile ducts

A

Choledochal cysts

100
Q

Most widely accepted theory for choledochal cysts

A

Anomalous pancreaticobiliary junction, with a common channel draining the common bile duct and pancreatic duct, which allows reflux of pancreatic enzymes into the common bile duct and causes inflammation and mural damage

101
Q

Todani classification of choledochal cyst, with diffuse dilation of the extrahepatic bile ducts and is the most common

A

Type 1

102
Q

Imaging modality of choice for choledochal cyst to fully characterize a suspected choledochal cyst and identify an anomalous pancreaticobiliary junction

A

MRI with MRCP

103
Q

Todani type of choledochal cyst wherein there is saccular diverticulum from the common bile duct

A

Type 2

104
Q

Todani type of choledochal cyst that presents as saccular dilation (choledochocele) that herniates into the duodenum

A

Type 3

105
Q

Todani type of choledochal cyst that presents as fusiform dilation of both intra and extrahepatic bile ducts

A

Type 4

106
Q

Treatment of choledochal cyst to improve biliary drainage and reduce the risk of development of cholangiocarcinoma in adulthood

A

Surgical resection

107
Q

Caused by a congenital ductal plate malformation involving the intrahepatic bile ducts. The end result is cystic dilation of multiple intrahepatic biliary ducts. The extrahepatic bule ducts are typically normal

A

Caroli disease

108
Q

In US, CT and MRI, Caroli disease will all present with a ______ which represents a portal vein branch completely surrounded by the dilated intrahepatic bile duct

A

Central dot sign

109
Q

Other pathologies associated with Caroli disease

A

Other ciliopathies, including polycystic kidney disease

110
Q

Reflects complete or segmental renal dysplasia as a result of abnormal development of the kidney. Postnatally, it can be diffusely or segmentally small, but can rarely be enlarged. Renal parenchyma will be replaced by multiple cysts of varying sized with little or no recognizable renal tissue

A

Multicystic dysplastic kidney

111
Q

Multicystic dysplasia of kidneys can be differentiated with a very dilated collecting system by

A

Cysts of MCDK do not communicate

112
Q

Bilateral MCDK is associated with these conditions

A

Oligohydramnios and its associated effects (Potter sequence: specific facies, pulmonary hypoplasia, clubbed feet)

113
Q

Unilateral renal dysplasia is often asymptomatic and is generally associated with (3)

A

Compensatory hypertrophy of the contralateral kidney,
vesicoureteral reflux and
ureteropelvic junction obstruction

114
Q

5 Imaging modalities of MCDK

A

Ultrasound for anatomy,
scintigraphy for function,
rule out abnormalities of the contralateral kidney (ultrasound, voiding cystourethrography or nuclear cystography)

115
Q

Most common finding in collecting system duplication of any type is

A

Asymmetry in renal size (>1 cm)

116
Q

What is the Weigert-Meyer rule in renal collecting system duplication

A

In a duplicated collecting system, the upper moeity collecting system is typically obstructed with ectopic insertion of the draining ureter which terminates in a ureterocele. The lower moeity ureter typically inserts orthotopically but allows VUR. Not all ureters in the context of collecting system duplication insert into the bladder

117
Q

Imaging test of choice for identification of distant ectopic ureters and can assist in surgical planning

A

MRU and scintigraphy

118
Q

Hydronephrosis that persist after birth suggests either collecting system obstruction, most commonly a

A

Ureteropelvic junction obstruction or VUR

119
Q

Reflects incompetence of the ureterovesical junction, allowing retrograde flow of urine from the bladder into the ureters and up to the kidney

A

VUR

120
Q

VUR is likely the result of

A

An abnormally perpendicular ureteral insertion angle, which allows the UVJ to remain open during bladder contraction and voiding

121
Q

3 Goal of imaging in febrile urinary tract infection

A

Assess for anatomic abnormalities,
to document the presence of VUR, and
to assess for uncommon complications (renal abscess)

122
Q

4 Primary imaging modalities utilized in the assessment of the child with febrile UTI are

A

Ultrasound,
voiding cystourethrography,
nuclear cystography and
potentially renal cortical scintigraphy

123
Q

AP diameter of renal pelvis is measured on what plane and position

A

Transverse plain, preferably prone

124
Q

Segmental or geographic areas of increased renal parenchymal echogenicity and decreased perfusion are imaging signs of

A

Pyelonephritis

125
Q

Image of urethra during voiding in both boys and girls should be made in what position

A

Frontal for girls, oblique for boys

126
Q

True or false: any retrograde flow of contrast into the ureters or renal collecting system during voiding cystourethrography is considered abnormal

A

True

127
Q

Initial test of choice in boys with febrile UTI

A

Fluoroscopic VCUG

128
Q

Acceptable as a first test in a girl with febrile UTI but otherwise is primarily used for follow-up of children with previously identified VUR in whom anatomic assessment is no longer necessary

A

Nuclear cystography

129
Q

Important differential diagnosis in male infants and neonates with renal collecting system dilation

A

Posterior urethral valve

130
Q

It is a thin membrane of tissue at the level of the prostatic urethra partially or completely obstructs the outflow of the urinary tract, leading to upstream dilation

A

Posterior urethral valves

131
Q

Treatment of posterior urethral valve

A

Ablation and additional medical and surgical treatment due to extensive damage to the kidneys and bladder in utero

132
Q

Posterior urethral valve is suspected in utero in a male baby presenting with (2)

A

Oligohydramnios and bilateral collecting system dilation

133
Q

Two studies that are generally performed in the setting of suspected posterior urethral valves

A

Ultrasound and voiding cystourethrography

134
Q

Occurs when there is inadequate fixation of the gonad, allowing the gonad to twist on its vascular pedicle. This twisting initially results in impaired venous drainage and progresses to compromised arterial flow as the number of twists increases

A

Gonadal torsion

135
Q

Appearance of testicular torsion in ultrasound

A

Decreased or absent flow, larger, more heterogeneous, with associated swirling/twisting of the spermatic cord above the level of the testicle

136
Q

True or false: assessment of blood flow is not as helpful in evaluating ovarian torsion

A

True

137
Q

Appearance of a torsed ovary

A

Larger, increased heterogeneity and peripheral follicles

138
Q

Suggested specific findings for ovarian torsion

A

Cutoffs of 20cc ovarian volume and a 15x size discrepancy from the other normal ovary

139
Q

A tumor or neural crest origin, one of the most common abdominal tumors in children

A

Neuroblastoma

140
Q

Most common site of origin of neuroblastoma, but tumors can arise anywhere along the sympathetic chain, from the skull base to pelvis

A

Adrenal gland

141
Q

True or false: growth pattern of neuroblastoma is frequently more infiltrative than the other common abdominal tumor (wilms tumor), with tumors commonly encasing vessels and capable of invading adjacent solid organs and extending into the spinal canal

A

True

142
Q

Assessment for metastatic neuroblastoma is via

A

Radioiodine (123I) labeled metaiodibenzylguanidine (MIBG) scanning

143
Q

Most common primary renal mass in children. It arises from persistent immature metanephric blastemas which are embryologic precursors to normal renal tissue

A

Wilms tumor

144
Q

Presence of these tissue that persists beyond 4 months of age increases the risk for development of Wilms tumor

A

Nephrogenic rests

145
Q

Presence of extensive nephrogenic rests is termed

A

Nephroblastomatosis

146
Q

Wilms typically presents in children of what age

A

1 and 6 years

147
Q

Most common clinical presentation of wilms tumor

A

Palpable abdominal mass

148
Q

Local spread of wilms tumor

A

Retroperitoneal lymph nodes and contiguous tumor extension into blood vessels, including renal vein and IVC

149
Q

Most common solid renal mass in children under 6 months of age. It is a hamartomatous lesion that can appear identical to wilms tumor at imaging

A

Mesoblastic nephroma

150
Q

Typically occurs in older children and is often associated with genetic translocations, most commonly the Xp11 translocation

A

Renal cell carcinoma

151
Q

True or false: pediatric RCC typically presents with hematuria, abdominal pain, and occassionally a palpable abdominal mass. It is smaller in presentation than Wilms tumor

A

True

152
Q

Pretext staging of hepatoblastoma: either left lateral or right posterior sections are involved

A

Pretext 1

153
Q

Pretext staging of hepatoblastoma: either the right anterior or left medial sections are involved by tumor and half of the liver (entire right lobe or entire left lobe) will need ti be resected

A

Pretext 2

154
Q

Pretext staging of hepatoblastoma: means either 3 adjacent sections are all involved by tumor or the right anterior and left medial sections are involved by tumor. Trisectionectomy will need to be performed

A

Pretext 3

155
Q

Pretext staging of hepatoblastoma: either a large tumor involves all sections of the liver or multifocal tumor involves all sections

A

Pretext 4

156
Q

Renal mass that occurs on the same age as Wilms tumor and appears identical to Wilms at imaging, with the exception that calcifications and bone metastasis are relatively more frequent

A

Clear cell sarcoma

157
Q

Aggressive renal neoplasm with a poor prognosis that typically occurs in younger children. It manifests as a large, aggressive-appearung mass. Crescentic subcapsular fluid is characteristic but not always present

A

Rhabdoid tumor

158
Q

Rhabdoid tumor is usually associated with

A

Synchronous brain tumors, often in posterior fossa

159
Q

Aggressive renal neoplasm with a very poor prognosis that occurs in teenagers and young adults with sickle cell trait

A

Renal medullary carcinoma

160
Q

Most common primary liver tumor in young children

A

Hepatoblastoma

161
Q

Hepatoblastoma are common in what condition and age

A

Premature, 6 months to 4 years

162
Q

Tumor marker elevated in hepatoblastoma

A

Serum alpha fetoprotein

163
Q

Other than serum AFP, what else is elevated in the blood in patients with hepatoblastoma

A

Platelets as a paraneoplastic effect

164
Q

Liver mass that appears as a large, heterogeneous mass, generally hypoenhancing relative to the normal liver. Areas of hemorrhage and dystrophic calcifications are common. Tumor also has propensity for vascular invasion, often into hepatic veins and IVC, but also into the portal vein

A

Hepatoblastoma

165
Q

Treatment for hepatoblastoma

A

Neoadjuvant chemotherapy and subsequent surgical resection, liver transplant

166
Q

Liver tumor that presents with loss of signal on out phase images indicating intracellular lipid, mild T2 hyperintensity and restricted diffusion. Arterially enhance and demonstrate venous phase washout.

A

Hepatocellular carcinoma

167
Q

Appearance of HCC on mri using hepatocyte specific contrast agent

A

Hypoenhancing relative to the rest of the liver

168
Q

4 Treatment for HCC

A

Chemotherapy and surgery,
liver transplantation,
percutaneous ablation or
transarterial chemoembolization (TACE)

169
Q

Variant of HCC in older children and young adults. Tumors are often well circumscribed and have exuberant fibrosis, interspersed with parallel sheets of tumor cells. They do not produce or excrete AFP. Demonstrates a central fibrous scar

A

Fibrolamellar HCC

170
Q

Common lymphoma in children

A

Non hodgkin lymphoma

171
Q

More common location for non hodgkin lymphoma in children

A

Abdomen

172
Q

Intestinal masses in this condition can present with intussusception, either outside of the typical age range or that recurs or fails to reduce

A

Lymphoma

173
Q

Type of lymphoma that is highly FDG avid and thus 18F-FDG PET is typically used in staging and follow-up. Its doubling times can be short as 24 hours, meaning these masses can grow rapidly, causing acute symptoms

A

Burkitt lymphoma

174
Q

Treatment for lymphoma

A

Chemotherapy with surgical resection reserved for tumors causing intestinal obstruction

175
Q

One of the tumors in children that is known to spread to the peritoneum

A

Burkitt lymphoma

[PBR] Pediatric Imaging (5 decks)

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