Abdomen 2 Final Exam Flashcards
1
Q
Contrast enhancement lasts longest when administering the ultrasound contrast agent by:
A
Slow infusion
2
Q
Currently in the United States, which of the following contrast agents are available and approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) for use in echocardiography?
A
Definity, Optison, Imagent
3
Q
Depending on the clinical application, vascular UCAs may be administered via:
A
Intravenous infusion
4
Q
Evaluation of a patient with known cirrhosis often demonstrates a(n):
A
Reduced portal venous flow with an increase in hepatic artery flow.
5
Q
For a vascular ultrasound contrast agent to be clinically useful, it should:
A
Have all of the above
6
Q
Hepatic cavernous hemangioma demonstrate peripheral enhancement only during the:
A
Arterial phase
7
Q
In harmonic-imaging mode, the echoes from the oscillating microbubbles have a:
A
High signal-to-noise ratio
8
Q
In the early arterial phase, using tissue-specific contrast agents, focal nodular hyperplasia can have a similar appearance to a:
A
Hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC)
9
Q
Induced acoustic-emission effects are independent of:
A
Contrast motion
10
Q
Most of the research and development of ultrasound contrast agents (UCAs) has centered on creating agents that can:
A
Be administered intravenously
11
Q
Several reports have described the contrast-enhanced sonographic appearance of hepatocellular carcinoma as having intense enhancement in the _____________ phase.
A
Early arterial
12
Q
The detection of flow in the hepatic capillaries is identified in the ___________ phase.
A
Late vascular
13
Q
The first ultrasound contrast agent to receive FDA approval was used in:
A
Echocardiography
14
Q
The mechanical index (MI) uses:
A
Low acoustic output power
15
Q
The microbubble of a first-generation UCA contains which one of the following types of substance?
A
Room air
16
Q
The microbubbles of tissue-specific UCAs are:
A
Taken up by or have an affinity for specific tissues
17
Q
The rupture of microbubbles results in random:
A
Doppler shifts
18
Q
Tissue-specific ultrasound contrast agents can be considered to be:
A
Molecular-imaging agents
19
Q
To aid in contrast-enhanced imaging equipment, manufacturers have begun to incorporate into their systems:
A
Intermittent imaging capabilities
20
Q
Ultrasound contrast agents have shown the potential to improve the accuracy of hepatic sonography including:
A
All of the above
21
Q
Vascular ultrasound agents enhance Doppler flow signals by:
A
Adding more and better acoustic scatterers to the bloodstream
22
Q
When insonating microbubble-based UCAs, the energy present within the acoustic field:
A
Can have a detrimental effect on the contrast microbubbles
23
Q
When the microbubble is destroyed:
A
Contrast enhancement is no longer provided.
24
Q
When using ultrasound contrast agents, a lesion that gets progressively echogenic over time is most likely:
A
Hemangioma
25
Which of the following vessels are the first to demonstrate contrast enhancement in the liver?
Hepatic arteries
26
A hernia in the bowel that cannot be reduced is a(n) ______________ hernia.
Incarcerated
27
A hernia with vascular compromise is ________________.
Strangulated
28
A pseudodissection demonstrates which one of the following?
Turbulent blood flow pattern
29
Approximately 70% of aortic dissections occur in the:
Ascending aorta
30
For years, which one of the following techniques has been used as a surgical tool for the diagnosis of hemoperitoneum?
Peritoneal lavage
31
In reproductive-age women, free fluid isolated to the posterior cul-de-sac is likely which one of the following?
Physiologic
32
In the early stages of testicular torsion, the echogenicity of the testis appears _____________.
Normal
33
In the trauma setting, the most common finding of free fluid in the abdomen or pelvis is:
Hemoperitoneum
34
Midepigastric pain radiating to the back is characteristic of:
Acute pancreatitis
35
One of the most common conditions that necessitate emergent surgery is:
Acute appendicitis
36
Paraumbilical hernia occurs more often in which one of the following?
Female adults
37
People go to the emergency department for all of the following frequent reasons except:
Ear pain
38
Posttrauma, the most common location for fluid to accumulate is in the ___________.
Morison's pouch
39
Sonographic findings in acute pancreatitis may include which one of the following?
Normal-appearing parenchyma
40
Sonographic findings of acute cholecystitis include all of the following except:
Small gallbladder
41
Stones as small as _____ millimeters (mm) may be visualized with ultrasound.
0.5 mm
42
The complications of peritoneal lavage include all of the following except:
Pneumothorax
43
The initial survey of a FAST scan is directed to the:
Pericardium
44
The most common cause of acute cholecystitis is:
Obstruction of the cystic duct
45
The most common sonographic finding of a hernia is:
Peristalsis of the bowel during a Valsalva maneuver
46
The sonographic finding in aortic dissection includes all of the following except:
Laminar blood flow pattern
47
The traditional modality of choice for evaluating urolithiasis is:
Intravenous urography
48
Three types of abdominal hernias include all of the following except:
Carcerated hernia
49
Torsion of the spermatic cord occurs as a result of which one of the following?
Abnormal mobility of the testis
50
Which one of the following is nearly always associated with aortic dissection?
Hypertension
51
Neck muscles located anterolateral to the thyroid gland include all of the following except the
longus colli muscle (LCM)
52
The average weight of the thyroid gland is approximately
25 g
53
The high resolution sonography recommended for evaluation of parathyroid adenomas is
7.5 to 15 MHz
54
The mathematical method for calculating thyroid volume is based on the ellipsoid formula with a correction factor, which is:
Length x Width x Thickness x 0.52 for each lobe
55
The secretion of triiodothyronine (T3), thyroxine (T4), and calcitonin is regulated by the
hypothalamus and pituitary gland
56
The sonographic appearance of the normal parathyroid glands generally is
hypoechoic compared with the thyroid gland.
57
The sonographic appearance of the normal thyroid gland is uniformly
echogenic with medium level echoes, similar to the testes and liver.
58
The superior and inferior parathyroid glands are supplied by the
separate small branches of the superior and inferior thyroid arteries and by branches from the longitudinal anastomoses between these vessels.
59
The superior thyroid artery is a branch of the :
external carotid artery
60
The thyroid gland is composed of follicles filled with a substance called
colloid.
61
The thyroid is an endocrine gland that secretes three hormones, which are
thyroxine (T4), triiodothyronine (T3), and calcitonin.
62
When ultrasound fails to identify abnormal parathyroid glands preoperatively, and in patients considered for repeat surgery, which test(s) is/are commonly used?
Scintigraphy, SPECT, and MRI
63
Which neck muscle(s) is/are located posterior to the thyroid gland?
Longus colli muscle
64
Which statement is NOT true about imaging of the parathyroid glands?
Sonography routinely is performed on patients with normal calcium levels
65
Which statement is NOT true about parathyroid gland physiology?
When serum calcium levels are low, PTH raises serum calcium by releasing calcium from the bone and decreasing calcium absorption in the liver.
66
Which statement is NOT true about the adult thyroid gland?
| d.
The thyroid parenchyma is composed of connective tissue and masses of chief cells
67
Which statement is NOT true about the parathyroid glands and parathyroid adenomas?
Approximately 35% of parathyroid glands are ectopic
68
Which statement is NOT true about the parathyroid glands?
The parathyroid glands generally are situated anterior to the thyroid gland
69
Which statement is NOT true about the parathyroid glands?
They generally have a multilobulated shape
70
Which statement is NOT true about the parathyroid glands?
Normal parathyroid glands almost always can be seen, especially in young patients.
71
Which statement is NOT true about the parathyroid glands?
| a.
The typical sonographic appearance of a parathyroid adenoma is an oval, hyperechoic, structure without through transmission.
72
Which statement is NOT true about the size and shape of the thyroid gland?
Shorter, obese patients tend to have oval lateral lobes measuring less than 3.5 cm.
73
Which statement is NOT true about the sonographic appearance of the neck muscles and the esophagus?
The longus colli muscle is hyperechoic compared with the thyroid gland.
74
Which statement is NOT true about the sonographic appearance of the normal thyroid gland?
It is more uniformly hypoechoic than contiguous muscles and vascular structures.
75
Which statement is NOT true about the thyroid gland?
It is composed of right and left lobes only
76
Which statement is NOT true about the thyroid gland?
In cross-section, it is outlined anteriorly by the longus colli muscle and the internal jugular vein.
77
Which statement is NOT true about the thyroid gland?
It is an exocrine gland that secretes triiodothyronine (T3), thyroxine (T4), and iron.
78
Which statement is NOT true about the thyroid gland?
In cross-section, it is outlined posterolaterally by the common carotid artery (CCA) and internal jugular vein (IJV), and anteriorly by the longus colli muscle.
79
True or False:
Most parathyroid adenomas appear in the area of an anatomic "triangle" formed by the thyroid gland, longus colli muscle, common carotid artery, and internal jugular vein. ____
True
80
True or False:
| Patients with secondary hyperparathyroidism develop hypercalcemia. ____
True
81
True or False:
The major neurovascular bundle is located posterolateral to the thyroid gland and consists of the common carotid artery, internal jugular vein, and vagus nerve. ____
True
82
True or False:
The presence of an extrathyroidal artery leading to an abnormal parathyroid gland aids the detection of an otherwise inconspicuous parathyroid adenoma ____
True
83
A cystic formation lateral to the thyroid gland is typically which one of the following?
Brachial cleft cyst
84
A solitary thyroid nodule in the presence of ipsilateral lymphadenopathy suggests which one of the following?
Malignancy
85
A ___________ is a palpable midline mass between the hyoid bone and the isthmus of the thyroid gland.
Thyroglossal duct cyst
86
All of the following structures form neighboring structures for the thyroid gland except the:
Parotid muscle
87
An abnormal lymph node demonstrates which one of the following?
Round contour
88
Approximately 20% of solitary thyroid nodules are ___________.
Cystic
89
Common disorders associated with hyperthyroidism include all of the following except:
Acute thyroiditis
90
Hyperfunction of all parathyroid glands with no apparent cause occurs with which one of the following?
Primary hyperplasia of the parathyroid glands
91
Increased vascularity with color Doppler, termed the thyroid inferno, is observed in ___________________.
Graves' disease
92
Sonographically, the normal thyroid gland may be described as having all of the following characteristics except:
Diffusely homogenous
93
The approximate dimensions of the thyroid gland are:
5 cm length, 2 cm width, 2 cm depth
94
The lobes of the thyroid gland are connected by:
The isthmus
95
The most common cause of primary hyperparathyroidism is which one of the following?
Parathyroid adenoma
96
The most common cause of thyroid disorders worldwide is which one of the following?
Iodine deficiency
97
The most common cause of thyroid malignancy is _____________ carcinoma.
Papillary
98
The normal parathyroid glands measure less than _______ millimeters (mm).
4
99
The parathyroid glands lie between the ____________ borders of the ____________ lobes of the thyroid gland.
Posterior; medial
100
The parathyroid glands produce a hormone that affects the:
Kidneys, bones, and gastrointestinal tract
101
The pyramid lobe of the thyroid gland extends from the __________________.
Superior isthmus
102
The thyroid gland consists of ________ lobes:
Two
103
The thyroid is an endocrine gland that regulates metabolic function through the production of all of the following hormones except:
Thyroliberin
104
Usually _____ parathyroid glands exist.
Four
105
Which one of the following sonographic features of a thyroid adenoma is the most common?
Hypoechoic peripheral halo
106
Which one of the following structures lies medial to the left thyroid lobe?
Larynx
107
Which one of the following structures lies posterolateral to the thyroid gland?
Longus colli muscle
108
About 60% of semen is composed of
alkaline fluid rich in fructose, produced by the seminal vesicles.
109
Convoluted seminiferous tubules connect to straight tubules, which empty into the
rete testis
110
In an adult, testicular volume is _____, and testicular weight is _____.
25 ml; 10 to 15 g
111
Spermatozoa exit the testis through the
efferent ducts
112
Testicular parenchyma on ultrasound is
homogeneous
113
The epididymis empties into the
ductus deferens.
114
The epididymis is connected to which portion of the testis?
Superior
115
The main arterial blood supply of the penis includes the
deep artery of the penis, bulbourethral artery, and dorsal artery.
116
The median raphe divides the
scrotum into two testicles
117
The penis is composed of
two corpora cavernosa dorsolaterally and one corpus spongiosum midventrally.
118
The scrotum consists of the
testicles, epididymis, and proximal vas deferens
119
The testes are classified as
exocrine and endocrine glands.
120
What is the echogenicity of the cavernosal arterial walls?
High echogenicity
121
What is the echogenicity of the corpora cavernosa?
Medium level echoes
122
What is the echogenicity of the corpus spongiosum?
Medium level echoes
123
What is the echogenicity of the epididymis?
Medium level echoes
124
What is the echogenicity of the mediastinum testis?
High echogenicity
125
What is the echogenicity of the septum penis?
High echogenicity
126
What is the echogenicity of the spermatic cord?
Low level echoes
127
What is the echogenicity of the tunica albuginea?\
High echogenicity
128
A clinical history of a vasectomy is associated with:
Sperm granulomas
129
A common cause of acute scrotal pain in adults is:
Epididymo-orchitis
130
A hydrocele develops between the:
Parietal and visceral layers of the tunica vaginalis
131
A linear stripe of variable thickness and echogenicity running through the testis in a craniocaudal direction represents the:
Mediastinum testis
132
A seminoma of the testicle generally appears on ultrasound as a(n) _____________ mass.
Hypoechoic
133
A spermatocele is always located in which portion of the epididymis?
Head
134
Attached at the superior pole of the testis between the epididymis and the testis is which one of the following?
Appendix testis
135
Compared with the testis, the epididymis typically appears:
Hypoechoic
136
Epididymo-orchitis most commonly results from a:
| Select one:
Bladder infection
137
Follow-up examination of patients with microlithiasis is recommended:
Annually
138
Intratesticular cysts have an association with:
Spermatoceles
139
Microlithiasis of the testis is associated with a(n):
Malignant neoplasm
140
Sonographic characteristics of the normal testis include a(n):
Homogeneous pattern with medium-level echoes
141
The diameter of a varicocele measures more than _____ millimeters (mm).
2mm
142
The epididymis is located ________________ to the testis.
Posterior and superior
143
The most common cause of acute scrotal pain in the adolescent is:
Testicular torsion
144
The primary source of blood flow to the testicles is via the _____________ arteries.
Testicular
145
The rete testis is located:
At the hilum of the testis
146
The testes are covered by a fibrous capsule formed by the:
Tunica albuginea
147
The testes measure:
4 cm long, 3 cm in diameter (AP), 3 cm wide
148
Tubular ectasia of the rete testis is associated with a(n):
Epididymal cyst
149
Which one of the following almost always transpires secondary to epididymitis?
Orchitis
150
Which one of the following facts about an undescended testis is false?
All undescended testes are found in the inguinal canal
151
Which one of the following statements about varicoceles is false?
Varicoceles are more common on the right side of the scrotum.
152
A pitfall in diagnosing appendicitis may be which one of the following?
Enlarged lymph nodes
153
An abdominal ultrasound may be ordered in the neonate when jaundice persists beyond ______________.
2 weeks
154
An overdistended stomach ____________ displaces the pylorus.
Posteriorly
155
Children with intussusception may exhibit the following clinical presentations except:
Tenderness over McBurney's point
156
Hepatoblastoma has been associated with which one of the following?
Precocious puberty
157
Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis occurs in all of the following patient populations except:
Most commonly found in female patients
158
In older children, the common bile duct should not exceed _____ mm.
4 mm
159
In patients with appendicitis, the outer diameter should measure at least _____ mm.
6 mm
160
Other causes of vomiting in the infant include all of the following except:
Appendicolith
161
Other findings that may indicate appendicitis include all of the following except:
Meckel diverticulum
162
Preparation for a biliary sonographic examination of a 2-year-old child is nothing by mouth (nil per os; NPO) for ____ hours.
4
163
Sonographic characteristics associated with the bowel include all of the following signs except:
Croissant
164
The length of the pediatric gallbladder should not exceed which one of the following?
Length of the kidney
165
The mean portal vein measurement in children younger than 10 years of age is ______ millimeters (mm).
8.5 mm
166
The most common acute abdominal disorder in early childhood is which one of the following?
Intussusception
167
The most common causes of prolonged neonatal jaundice include all of the following except:
Hepatoblastoma
168
The most common type of choledochal cyst is:
Fusiform dilation of the CBD
169
The pylorus muscle connects the ______________ with the duodenum.
Antrum of the stomach
170
Unconjugated bilirubin is elevated in which one of the following percentages of normal-term infants?
60 %
171
What percentage of liver tumors in children are benign?
40%
172
When bowel prolapses into the distal bowel and is propelled in an antegrade fashion, this condition is known as which one of the following?
Intussusception
173
Which one of the following is considered to be the infantile form of hepatocellular carcinoma?
Hepatoblastoma
174
Which one of the following is the most likely condition to lead to cirrhosis?
Biliary atresia
175
Which one of the following statements about appendicitis is false?
The appendix is anterior and lateral to the psoas muscle
176
Which one of the statements seen below is false regarding biliary atresia?
Is more common in female patients
177
The breast is divided into ________ quadrants when performing Ultrasound.
Four
178
Almost ____ % of breast cancer is found on self exam.
10%
179
True or False:
| Fibrocystic breasts have a sponge like appearance on ultrasound.
True
180
True or False:
| Woman should have their baseline mammogram at age 40.
False
181
What is the primary screening tool for breast cancer?
Mammography
182
Ture or False:
| DCIS is classified as "pre-cancer".
True
183
What is the most common type of invasive breast cancer?
Infiltrating Ductal Cancer
184
True or False
| A benign breast lesion is usually taller than it is wide.
False
185
True or False:
| Malignant breast masses will interrupt the fascial plane.
True
186
True or False:
| A malignant breast lesion will always be solid.
False
187
All of the following criteria constitutes a Simple Cyst EXCEPT:
Lobulated borders
188
True or False:
| Breast cancer will always spread to the axillary nodes.
False
189
True or False:
| Most patients diagnosed with breast cancer have no significant risk factors.
True
190
True or False:
| When labeling both breasts with ultrasound, the lateral breast for the right & left will be 3:00.
False
191
The breast is a _________ gland located in the superficial fascia of the anterior chest wall.
Sweat
192
A pelvocaliceal dilation without ureteral dilation is seen with which one of the following conditions?
Ureteropelvic junction obstruction
193
Between which one of the following ranges of age does the incidence of Wilms tumor peak?
2 to 5 years
194
Bilateral renal enlargement is seen with which one of the following conditions?
Autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease
195
Clinical signs of renal vein thrombosis in the neonate include all of the following except:
High platelet count
196
Conditions in the newborn associated with renal abnormalities include all of the following except:
Vomiting
197
Conditions that may lead to adrenal hemorrhage include all of the following except:
Hydronephrosis
198
Differential considerations for hydronephrosis include all of the following except:
Renal vein thrombosis
199
If the ipsilateral renal is absent or ectopic in location, then the adrenal gland:
Remains in the renal fossa.
200
Neuroblastoma is typically a malignant tumor of the _____________________.
Adrenal gland
201
Renal vein thrombosis is more prevalent in infants of _________ mothers.
Diabetic
202
Sonographic findings in adrenal hemorrhage in the neonate include all of the following conditions except:
Irregular-shaped small gland
203
The adrenal medulla in the neonate appears as a(n):
Echogenic stripe
204
The best way to demonstrate the dilated ureter at the ureteropelvic junction is with a ___________ scan.
Coronal
205
The left adrenal gland:
Extends medial to the kidney.
206
The most common cause of bladder outlet obstruction in the male neonate is which one of the following?
Posterior urethral valve obstruction
207
The normal renal length in the pediatric patient varies with ___________.
Age
208
When empty, the bladder wall thickness should not exceed _____ millimeter (mm).
5mm
209
Which one of the following conditions is the most common cause of renal cystic disease in the neonate?
Multicystic dysplastic kidney (MDK) disease
210
Which one of the following conditions occurs when the fetus is stressed during a difficult delivery or during a hypoxia insult?
Adrenal hemorrhage
211
Which one of the following genitourinary problems is commonly associated with the prune-belly syndrome?
Ureteral reflux
212
Which one of the following malignant tumors is most frequent in the neonate and infant?
Wilms tumor
213
Which one of the following statements regarding ectopic ureteroceles is incorrect?
Are more commonly found in male patients
214
Which one of the following structures is thin in the neonate with echogenicity similar to or slightly greater than the normal liver parenchyma?
Cortex
215
Which one of the following structures lies at the bases of the medullary pyramids and appears as echogenic structures?
Arcuate arteries
216
Which one of the following structures should not be mistaken for dilated calyces or cysts?
Medullary pyramids
217
A higher percentage of positive cells is observed in the _____________ of a thyroid mass?
Small calcifications
218
A preprocedural image should document the patient's name and the:
Time, date, and needle path
219
A specific complication of a renal biopsy is:
Hematuria
220
Advantages of using ultrasound guidance include all of the following except:
Fixed angles when using needle guides
221
Biopsies of the spleen carry an increased risk for:
Hemorrhage
222
Contraindications for a biopsy include all of the following except:
Dehydration
223
In a renal parenchymal biopsy, which part of the kidney is typically biopsied?
Lower pole
224
In a renal transplant procedure, which part of the kidney is typically biopsied?
Upper pole
225
In which of the following positions is a patient placed for a thoracentesis?
Sitting
226
Limitations of ultrasound guidance include all of the following except:
Shorter procedure times
227
Postbiopsy complications may include all of the following except:
Heart failure
228
Renal parenchymal biopsies are requested for patients with:
Proteinuria
229
The best way to recognize the tip of the needle with ultrasound is all of the following except:
The needle tip appears as a hypoechoic area
230
The common indication for a biopsy is to:
Confirm a malignancy in a mass
231
The international normalized ratio (INR) was developed because of the variable results of _________ among laboratories.
PT
232
The most common organ biopsied is:
Liver
233
The national patient safety standards mandate that a "time-out" be performed before beginning any procedure, which means all of the following except the:
Patient's name is recited by a team member
234
The primary advantage of an ultrasound-guided procedure is:
Provides for continuous real-time visualization of the biopsy needle.
235
The role of the cytopathology team is to:
Select one:
a. Ensure enough diagnostic tissue is obtained.
b. Increase the percentage of successful biopsies.
c. Minimize the number of core samples.
d. Provide all of the above
d. Provide all of the above
236
The test used to evaluate the effects of heparin, aspirin, and antihistamines on the blood-clotting process is:
PTT
237
The wait time after discontinuing the use of aspirin is:
5 to 7 days
238
The _______________ patient position is most commonly used in a prostate biopsy.
Left lateral decubitus
239
What needle gauge is typically used in a fine-needle aspiration?
20 to 25
240
Which one of the following laboratory tests could indicate a liver lesion?
Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)
241
Which one of the following types of biopsy uses an automatic spring-loaded device to provide tissue for analysis?
Core biopsy
242
The central fissure separates the
parietal and frontal lobes.
243
The diencephalon rests superior to the brain stem. It consists of
the thalamus, hypothalamus, and epithalamus
244
The fourth ventricle is connected to the third ventricle by the
aqueduct of Sylvius
245
The lateral fissure, or sylvian fissure, separates the
temporal lobes from the frontal lobes.
246
The lateral ventricles communicate with the third ventricle through the
interventricular foramina of Monro
247
The structures of the brain stem are
the pons, midbrain, and medulla oblongata.
248
The transverse fissure separates the
cerebrum from the cerebellum.
249
What is the echogenicity of the bones of the cranial vault?
Echogenic
250
What is the echogenicity of the caudate nucleus?
Moderately echogenic
251
What is the echogenicity of the caudothalamic groove?
Echogenic
252
What is the echogenicity of the cavum septum pellucidum?
Anechoic
253
What is the echogenicity of the cerebral parenchyma?
Low level echoes
254
What is the echogenicity of the choroid plexus?
Echogenic
255
What is the echogenicity of the corpus callosum?
Hypoechoic
256
What is the echogenicity of the fourth and third ventricles?
Anechoic
257
What is the echogenicity of the lateral ventricle?
Anechoic
258
What is the echogenicity of the posterior periventricular white matter?
Echogenic
259
What is the echogenicity of the quadrigeminal plate cistern?
Hypoechoic
260
What is the echogenicity of the sulci and fissures?
Echogenic
261
What is the echogenicity of the sylvian fissure?
Echogenic
262
A mass of special cells located in the atrium of the lateral ventricles is which one of the following?
Choroid plexus
263
A thin, triangular space filled with CSF that lies between the anterior horn of the lateral ventricles is:
Cavum septi pellucidi
264
Acute neonatal brain hemorrhage appears ____________________.
Echogenic
265
Approximately 40% of CSF is produced by which one of the following?
Choroid plexus
266
Bilateral occlusion of the carotid arteries may result in __________________.
Hydranencephaly
267
Convolutions on the surface of the brain are called which one of the following?
Gyri
268
Cyclopia is associated with which one of the following?
Holoprosencephaly
269
Dysgenesis of the fourth ventricle results in which one of the following malformations?
Dandy-Walker
270
Periventricular leukomalacia is defined as which one of the following?
White matter necrosis
271
Sonography of the neonatal brain is evaluated through which one of the following?
Anterior fontanelle
272
The area in which the falx cerebri sits that separates the two cerebral hemispheres is which one of the following?
Interhemispheric fissure
273
The brain coverings are known as which one of the following?
Meninges
274
The junction of the anterior, occipital, and temporal horns is called the ________________.
Atrium (trigone)
275
The largest subarachnoid space demonstrated sonographically is ________________.
Cistern magnum
276
The most common cause of congenital hydrocephalus is which one of the following?
Aqueductal stenosis
277
The most important cause of abnormal neurodevelopment sequelae in premature infants is which one of the following?
White matter necrosis
278
The part of the brain that connects the forebrain and the spinal cord is which one of the following?
Brainstem
279
The periventricular tissue, which may bleed easily before 32 weeks' gestation, is the ____________________.
Germinal matrix
280
The portion of the brain that forms the lateral borders of the frontal horns of the lateral ventricles and lies anterior to the lateral ventricles and thalamus is which one of the following?
Caudate nucleus
281
The portion of the brain that lies posterior to the cranial fossa under the tentorium is called which one of the following?
Cerebellum
282
The primary brain vesicle, rhombencephalon, is located in which one of the following?
Hindbrain
283
The two ovoid brain structures located on either side of the third ventricle superior to the brainstem make up the ________________.
Thalami
284
What is the name of the structure that forms between the corpus callosum and the anterior horn or lateral ventricle?
Septum pellucidum
285
Which one of the following is most likely the result of a germinal matrix hemorrhage?
Subependymal cyst
286
Which three mechanisms account for the development of hydrocephalus?
Outflow obstruction, decreased absorption, and overproduction
