Abdomen 2 Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

Contrast enhancement lasts longest when administering the ultrasound contrast agent by:

A

Slow infusion

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2
Q

Currently in the United States, which of the following contrast agents are available and approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) for use in echocardiography?

A

Definity, Optison, Imagent

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3
Q

Depending on the clinical application, vascular UCAs may be administered via:

A

Intravenous infusion

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4
Q

Evaluation of a patient with known cirrhosis often demonstrates a(n):

A

Reduced portal venous flow with an increase in hepatic artery flow.

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5
Q

For a vascular ultrasound contrast agent to be clinically useful, it should:

A

Have all of the above

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6
Q

Hepatic cavernous hemangioma demonstrate peripheral enhancement only during the:

A

Arterial phase

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7
Q

In harmonic-imaging mode, the echoes from the oscillating microbubbles have a:

A

High signal-to-noise ratio

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8
Q

In the early arterial phase, using tissue-specific contrast agents, focal nodular hyperplasia can have a similar appearance to a:

A

Hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC)

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9
Q

Induced acoustic-emission effects are independent of:

A

Contrast motion

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10
Q

Most of the research and development of ultrasound contrast agents (UCAs) has centered on creating agents that can:

A

Be administered intravenously

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11
Q

Several reports have described the contrast-enhanced sonographic appearance of hepatocellular carcinoma as having intense enhancement in the _____________ phase.

A

Early arterial

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12
Q

The detection of flow in the hepatic capillaries is identified in the ___________ phase.

A

Late vascular

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13
Q

The first ultrasound contrast agent to receive FDA approval was used in:

A

Echocardiography

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14
Q

The mechanical index (MI) uses:

A

Low acoustic output power

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15
Q

The microbubble of a first-generation UCA contains which one of the following types of substance?

A

Room air

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16
Q

The microbubbles of tissue-specific UCAs are:

A

Taken up by or have an affinity for specific tissues

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17
Q

The rupture of microbubbles results in random:

A

Doppler shifts

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18
Q

Tissue-specific ultrasound contrast agents can be considered to be:

A

Molecular-imaging agents

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19
Q

To aid in contrast-enhanced imaging equipment, manufacturers have begun to incorporate into their systems:

A

Intermittent imaging capabilities

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20
Q

Ultrasound contrast agents have shown the potential to improve the accuracy of hepatic sonography including:

A

All of the above

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21
Q

Vascular ultrasound agents enhance Doppler flow signals by:

A

Adding more and better acoustic scatterers to the bloodstream

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22
Q

When insonating microbubble-based UCAs, the energy present within the acoustic field:

A

Can have a detrimental effect on the contrast microbubbles

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23
Q

When the microbubble is destroyed:

A

Contrast enhancement is no longer provided.

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24
Q

When using ultrasound contrast agents, a lesion that gets progressively echogenic over time is most likely:

A

Hemangioma

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25
Q

Which of the following vessels are the first to demonstrate contrast enhancement in the liver?

A

Hepatic arteries

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26
Q

A hernia in the bowel that cannot be reduced is a(n) ______________ hernia.

A

Incarcerated

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27
Q

A hernia with vascular compromise is ________________.

A

Strangulated

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28
Q

A pseudodissection demonstrates which one of the following?

A

Turbulent blood flow pattern

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29
Q

Approximately 70% of aortic dissections occur in the:

A

Ascending aorta

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30
Q

For years, which one of the following techniques has been used as a surgical tool for the diagnosis of hemoperitoneum?

A

Peritoneal lavage

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31
Q

In reproductive-age women, free fluid isolated to the posterior cul-de-sac is likely which one of the following?

A

Physiologic

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32
Q

In the early stages of testicular torsion, the echogenicity of the testis appears _____________.

A

Normal

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33
Q

In the trauma setting, the most common finding of free fluid in the abdomen or pelvis is:

A

Hemoperitoneum

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34
Q

Midepigastric pain radiating to the back is characteristic of:

A

Acute pancreatitis

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35
Q

One of the most common conditions that necessitate emergent surgery is:

A

Acute appendicitis

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36
Q

Paraumbilical hernia occurs more often in which one of the following?

A

Female adults

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37
Q

People go to the emergency department for all of the following frequent reasons except:

A

Ear pain

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38
Q

Posttrauma, the most common location for fluid to accumulate is in the ___________.

A

Morison’s pouch

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39
Q

Sonographic findings in acute pancreatitis may include which one of the following?

A

Normal-appearing parenchyma

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40
Q

Sonographic findings of acute cholecystitis include all of the following except:

A

Small gallbladder

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41
Q

Stones as small as _____ millimeters (mm) may be visualized with ultrasound.

A

0.5 mm

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42
Q

The complications of peritoneal lavage include all of the following except:

A

Pneumothorax

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43
Q

The initial survey of a FAST scan is directed to the:

A

Pericardium

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44
Q

The most common cause of acute cholecystitis is:

A

Obstruction of the cystic duct

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45
Q

The most common sonographic finding of a hernia is:

A

Peristalsis of the bowel during a Valsalva maneuver

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46
Q

The sonographic finding in aortic dissection includes all of the following except:

A

Laminar blood flow pattern

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47
Q

The traditional modality of choice for evaluating urolithiasis is:

A

Intravenous urography

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48
Q

Three types of abdominal hernias include all of the following except:

A

Carcerated hernia

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49
Q

Torsion of the spermatic cord occurs as a result of which one of the following?

A

Abnormal mobility of the testis

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50
Q

Which one of the following is nearly always associated with aortic dissection?

A

Hypertension

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51
Q

Neck muscles located anterolateral to the thyroid gland include all of the following except the

A

longus colli muscle (LCM)

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52
Q

The average weight of the thyroid gland is approximately

A

25 g

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53
Q

The high resolution sonography recommended for evaluation of parathyroid adenomas is

A

7.5 to 15 MHz

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54
Q

The mathematical method for calculating thyroid volume is based on the ellipsoid formula with a correction factor, which is:

A

Length x Width x Thickness x 0.52 for each lobe

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55
Q

The secretion of triiodothyronine (T3), thyroxine (T4), and calcitonin is regulated by the

A

hypothalamus and pituitary gland

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56
Q

The sonographic appearance of the normal parathyroid glands generally is

A

hypoechoic compared with the thyroid gland.

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57
Q

The sonographic appearance of the normal thyroid gland is uniformly

A

echogenic with medium level echoes, similar to the testes and liver.

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58
Q

The superior and inferior parathyroid glands are supplied by the

A

separate small branches of the superior and inferior thyroid arteries and by branches from the longitudinal anastomoses between these vessels.

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59
Q

The superior thyroid artery is a branch of the :

A

external carotid artery

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60
Q

The thyroid gland is composed of follicles filled with a substance called

A

colloid.

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61
Q

The thyroid is an endocrine gland that secretes three hormones, which are

A

thyroxine (T4), triiodothyronine (T3), and calcitonin.

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62
Q

When ultrasound fails to identify abnormal parathyroid glands preoperatively, and in patients considered for repeat surgery, which test(s) is/are commonly used?

A

Scintigraphy, SPECT, and MRI

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63
Q

Which neck muscle(s) is/are located posterior to the thyroid gland?

A

Longus colli muscle

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64
Q

Which statement is NOT true about imaging of the parathyroid glands?

A

Sonography routinely is performed on patients with normal calcium levels

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65
Q

Which statement is NOT true about parathyroid gland physiology?

A

When serum calcium levels are low, PTH raises serum calcium by releasing calcium from the bone and decreasing calcium absorption in the liver.

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66
Q

Which statement is NOT true about the adult thyroid gland?

d.

A

The thyroid parenchyma is composed of connective tissue and masses of chief cells

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67
Q

Which statement is NOT true about the parathyroid glands and parathyroid adenomas?

A

Approximately 35% of parathyroid glands are ectopic

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68
Q

Which statement is NOT true about the parathyroid glands?

A

The parathyroid glands generally are situated anterior to the thyroid gland

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69
Q

Which statement is NOT true about the parathyroid glands?

A

They generally have a multilobulated shape

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70
Q

Which statement is NOT true about the parathyroid glands?

A

Normal parathyroid glands almost always can be seen, especially in young patients.

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71
Q

Which statement is NOT true about the parathyroid glands?

a.

A

The typical sonographic appearance of a parathyroid adenoma is an oval, hyperechoic, structure without through transmission.

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72
Q

Which statement is NOT true about the size and shape of the thyroid gland?

A

Shorter, obese patients tend to have oval lateral lobes measuring less than 3.5 cm.

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73
Q

Which statement is NOT true about the sonographic appearance of the neck muscles and the esophagus?

A

The longus colli muscle is hyperechoic compared with the thyroid gland.

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74
Q

Which statement is NOT true about the sonographic appearance of the normal thyroid gland?

A

It is more uniformly hypoechoic than contiguous muscles and vascular structures.

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75
Q

Which statement is NOT true about the thyroid gland?

A

It is composed of right and left lobes only

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76
Q

Which statement is NOT true about the thyroid gland?

A

In cross-section, it is outlined anteriorly by the longus colli muscle and the internal jugular vein.

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77
Q

Which statement is NOT true about the thyroid gland?

A

It is an exocrine gland that secretes triiodothyronine (T3), thyroxine (T4), and iron.

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78
Q

Which statement is NOT true about the thyroid gland?

A

In cross-section, it is outlined posterolaterally by the common carotid artery (CCA) and internal jugular vein (IJV), and anteriorly by the longus colli muscle.

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79
Q

True or False:
Most parathyroid adenomas appear in the area of an anatomic “triangle” formed by the thyroid gland, longus colli muscle, common carotid artery, and internal jugular vein. ____

A

True

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80
Q

True or False:

Patients with secondary hyperparathyroidism develop hypercalcemia. ____

A

True

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81
Q

True or False:
The major neurovascular bundle is located posterolateral to the thyroid gland and consists of the common carotid artery, internal jugular vein, and vagus nerve. ____

A

True

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82
Q

True or False:
The presence of an extrathyroidal artery leading to an abnormal parathyroid gland aids the detection of an otherwise inconspicuous parathyroid adenoma ____

A

True

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83
Q

A cystic formation lateral to the thyroid gland is typically which one of the following?

A

Brachial cleft cyst

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84
Q

A solitary thyroid nodule in the presence of ipsilateral lymphadenopathy suggests which one of the following?

A

Malignancy

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85
Q

A ___________ is a palpable midline mass between the hyoid bone and the isthmus of the thyroid gland.

A

Thyroglossal duct cyst

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86
Q

All of the following structures form neighboring structures for the thyroid gland except the:

A

Parotid muscle

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87
Q

An abnormal lymph node demonstrates which one of the following?

A

Round contour

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88
Q

Approximately 20% of solitary thyroid nodules are ___________.

A

Cystic

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89
Q

Common disorders associated with hyperthyroidism include all of the following except:

A

Acute thyroiditis

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90
Q

Hyperfunction of all parathyroid glands with no apparent cause occurs with which one of the following?

A

Primary hyperplasia of the parathyroid glands

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91
Q

Increased vascularity with color Doppler, termed the thyroid inferno, is observed in ___________________.

A

Graves’ disease

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92
Q

Sonographically, the normal thyroid gland may be described as having all of the following characteristics except:

A

Diffusely homogenous

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93
Q

The approximate dimensions of the thyroid gland are:

A

5 cm length, 2 cm width, 2 cm depth

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94
Q

The lobes of the thyroid gland are connected by:

A

The isthmus

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95
Q

The most common cause of primary hyperparathyroidism is which one of the following?

A

Parathyroid adenoma

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96
Q

The most common cause of thyroid disorders worldwide is which one of the following?

A

Iodine deficiency

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97
Q

The most common cause of thyroid malignancy is _____________ carcinoma.

A

Papillary

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98
Q

The normal parathyroid glands measure less than _______ millimeters (mm).

A

4

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99
Q

The parathyroid glands lie between the ____________ borders of the ____________ lobes of the thyroid gland.

A

Posterior; medial

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100
Q

The parathyroid glands produce a hormone that affects the:

A

Kidneys, bones, and gastrointestinal tract

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101
Q

The pyramid lobe of the thyroid gland extends from the __________________.

A

Superior isthmus

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102
Q

The thyroid gland consists of ________ lobes:

A

Two

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103
Q

The thyroid is an endocrine gland that regulates metabolic function through the production of all of the following hormones except:

A

Thyroliberin

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104
Q

Usually _____ parathyroid glands exist.

A

Four

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105
Q

Which one of the following sonographic features of a thyroid adenoma is the most common?

A

Hypoechoic peripheral halo

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106
Q

Which one of the following structures lies medial to the left thyroid lobe?

A

Larynx

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107
Q

Which one of the following structures lies posterolateral to the thyroid gland?

A

Longus colli muscle

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108
Q

About 60% of semen is composed of

A

alkaline fluid rich in fructose, produced by the seminal vesicles.

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109
Q

Convoluted seminiferous tubules connect to straight tubules, which empty into the

A

rete testis

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110
Q

In an adult, testicular volume is _____, and testicular weight is _____.

A

25 ml; 10 to 15 g

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111
Q

Spermatozoa exit the testis through the

A

efferent ducts

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112
Q

Testicular parenchyma on ultrasound is

A

homogeneous

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113
Q

The epididymis empties into the

A

ductus deferens.

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114
Q

The epididymis is connected to which portion of the testis?

A

Superior

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115
Q

The main arterial blood supply of the penis includes the

A

deep artery of the penis, bulbourethral artery, and dorsal artery.

116
Q

The median raphe divides the

A

scrotum into two testicles

117
Q

The penis is composed of

A

two corpora cavernosa dorsolaterally and one corpus spongiosum midventrally.

118
Q

The scrotum consists of the

A

testicles, epididymis, and proximal vas deferens

119
Q

The testes are classified as

A

exocrine and endocrine glands.

120
Q

What is the echogenicity of the cavernosal arterial walls?

A

High echogenicity

121
Q

What is the echogenicity of the corpora cavernosa?

A

Medium level echoes

122
Q

What is the echogenicity of the corpus spongiosum?

A

Medium level echoes

123
Q

What is the echogenicity of the epididymis?

A

Medium level echoes

124
Q

What is the echogenicity of the mediastinum testis?

A

High echogenicity

125
Q

What is the echogenicity of the septum penis?

A

High echogenicity

126
Q

What is the echogenicity of the spermatic cord?

A

Low level echoes

127
Q

What is the echogenicity of the tunica albuginea?\

A

High echogenicity

128
Q

A clinical history of a vasectomy is associated with:

A

Sperm granulomas

129
Q

A common cause of acute scrotal pain in adults is:

A

Epididymo-orchitis

130
Q

A hydrocele develops between the:

A

Parietal and visceral layers of the tunica vaginalis

131
Q

A linear stripe of variable thickness and echogenicity running through the testis in a craniocaudal direction represents the:

A

Mediastinum testis

132
Q

A seminoma of the testicle generally appears on ultrasound as a(n) _____________ mass.

A

Hypoechoic

133
Q

A spermatocele is always located in which portion of the epididymis?

A

Head

134
Q

Attached at the superior pole of the testis between the epididymis and the testis is which one of the following?

A

Appendix testis

135
Q

Compared with the testis, the epididymis typically appears:

A

Hypoechoic

136
Q

Epididymo-orchitis most commonly results from a:

Select one:

A

Bladder infection

137
Q

Follow-up examination of patients with microlithiasis is recommended:

A

Annually

138
Q

Intratesticular cysts have an association with:

A

Spermatoceles

139
Q

Microlithiasis of the testis is associated with a(n):

A

Malignant neoplasm

140
Q

Sonographic characteristics of the normal testis include a(n):

A

Homogeneous pattern with medium-level echoes

141
Q

The diameter of a varicocele measures more than _____ millimeters (mm).

A

2mm

142
Q

The epididymis is located ________________ to the testis.

A

Posterior and superior

143
Q

The most common cause of acute scrotal pain in the adolescent is:

A

Testicular torsion

144
Q

The primary source of blood flow to the testicles is via the _____________ arteries.

A

Testicular

145
Q

The rete testis is located:

A

At the hilum of the testis

146
Q

The testes are covered by a fibrous capsule formed by the:

A

Tunica albuginea

147
Q

The testes measure:

A

4 cm long, 3 cm in diameter (AP), 3 cm wide

148
Q

Tubular ectasia of the rete testis is associated with a(n):

A

Epididymal cyst

149
Q

Which one of the following almost always transpires secondary to epididymitis?

A

Orchitis

150
Q

Which one of the following facts about an undescended testis is false?

A

All undescended testes are found in the inguinal canal

151
Q

Which one of the following statements about varicoceles is false?

A

Varicoceles are more common on the right side of the scrotum.

152
Q

A pitfall in diagnosing appendicitis may be which one of the following?

A

Enlarged lymph nodes

153
Q

An abdominal ultrasound may be ordered in the neonate when jaundice persists beyond ______________.

A

2 weeks

154
Q

An overdistended stomach ____________ displaces the pylorus.

A

Posteriorly

155
Q

Children with intussusception may exhibit the following clinical presentations except:

A

Tenderness over McBurney’s point

156
Q

Hepatoblastoma has been associated with which one of the following?

A

Precocious puberty

157
Q

Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis occurs in all of the following patient populations except:

A

Most commonly found in female patients

158
Q

In older children, the common bile duct should not exceed _____ mm.

A

4 mm

159
Q

In patients with appendicitis, the outer diameter should measure at least _____ mm.

A

6 mm

160
Q

Other causes of vomiting in the infant include all of the following except:

A

Appendicolith

161
Q

Other findings that may indicate appendicitis include all of the following except:

A

Meckel diverticulum

162
Q

Preparation for a biliary sonographic examination of a 2-year-old child is nothing by mouth (nil per os; NPO) for ____ hours.

A

4

163
Q

Sonographic characteristics associated with the bowel include all of the following signs except:

A

Croissant

164
Q

The length of the pediatric gallbladder should not exceed which one of the following?

A

Length of the kidney

165
Q

The mean portal vein measurement in children younger than 10 years of age is ______ millimeters (mm).

A

8.5 mm

166
Q

The most common acute abdominal disorder in early childhood is which one of the following?

A

Intussusception

167
Q

The most common causes of prolonged neonatal jaundice include all of the following except:

A

Hepatoblastoma

168
Q

The most common type of choledochal cyst is:

A

Fusiform dilation of the CBD

169
Q

The pylorus muscle connects the ______________ with the duodenum.

A

Antrum of the stomach

170
Q

Unconjugated bilirubin is elevated in which one of the following percentages of normal-term infants?

A

60 %

171
Q

What percentage of liver tumors in children are benign?

A

40%

172
Q

When bowel prolapses into the distal bowel and is propelled in an antegrade fashion, this condition is known as which one of the following?

A

Intussusception

173
Q

Which one of the following is considered to be the infantile form of hepatocellular carcinoma?

A

Hepatoblastoma

174
Q

Which one of the following is the most likely condition to lead to cirrhosis?

A

Biliary atresia

175
Q

Which one of the following statements about appendicitis is false?

A

The appendix is anterior and lateral to the psoas muscle

176
Q

Which one of the statements seen below is false regarding biliary atresia?

A

Is more common in female patients

177
Q

The breast is divided into ________ quadrants when performing Ultrasound.

A

Four

178
Q

Almost ____ % of breast cancer is found on self exam.

A

10%

179
Q

True or False:

Fibrocystic breasts have a sponge like appearance on ultrasound.

A

True

180
Q

True or False:

Woman should have their baseline mammogram at age 40.

A

False

181
Q

What is the primary screening tool for breast cancer?

A

Mammography

182
Q

Ture or False:

DCIS is classified as “pre-cancer”.

A

True

183
Q

What is the most common type of invasive breast cancer?

A

Infiltrating Ductal Cancer

184
Q

True or False

A benign breast lesion is usually taller than it is wide.

A

False

185
Q

True or False:

Malignant breast masses will interrupt the fascial plane.

A

True

186
Q

True or False:

A malignant breast lesion will always be solid.

A

False

187
Q

All of the following criteria constitutes a Simple Cyst EXCEPT:

A

Lobulated borders

188
Q

True or False:

Breast cancer will always spread to the axillary nodes.

A

False

189
Q

True or False:

Most patients diagnosed with breast cancer have no significant risk factors.

A

True

190
Q

True or False:

When labeling both breasts with ultrasound, the lateral breast for the right & left will be 3:00.

A

False

191
Q

The breast is a _________ gland located in the superficial fascia of the anterior chest wall.

A

Sweat

192
Q

A pelvocaliceal dilation without ureteral dilation is seen with which one of the following conditions?

A

Ureteropelvic junction obstruction

193
Q

Between which one of the following ranges of age does the incidence of Wilms tumor peak?

A

2 to 5 years

194
Q

Bilateral renal enlargement is seen with which one of the following conditions?

A

Autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease

195
Q

Clinical signs of renal vein thrombosis in the neonate include all of the following except:

A

High platelet count

196
Q

Conditions in the newborn associated with renal abnormalities include all of the following except:

A

Vomiting

197
Q

Conditions that may lead to adrenal hemorrhage include all of the following except:

A

Hydronephrosis

198
Q

Differential considerations for hydronephrosis include all of the following except:

A

Renal vein thrombosis

199
Q

If the ipsilateral renal is absent or ectopic in location, then the adrenal gland:

A

Remains in the renal fossa.

200
Q

Neuroblastoma is typically a malignant tumor of the _____________________.

A

Adrenal gland

201
Q

Renal vein thrombosis is more prevalent in infants of _________ mothers.

A

Diabetic

202
Q

Sonographic findings in adrenal hemorrhage in the neonate include all of the following conditions except:

A

Irregular-shaped small gland

203
Q

The adrenal medulla in the neonate appears as a(n):

A

Echogenic stripe

204
Q

The best way to demonstrate the dilated ureter at the ureteropelvic junction is with a ___________ scan.

A

Coronal

205
Q

The left adrenal gland:

A

Extends medial to the kidney.

206
Q

The most common cause of bladder outlet obstruction in the male neonate is which one of the following?

A

Posterior urethral valve obstruction

207
Q

The normal renal length in the pediatric patient varies with ___________.

A

Age

208
Q

When empty, the bladder wall thickness should not exceed _____ millimeter (mm).

A

5mm

209
Q

Which one of the following conditions is the most common cause of renal cystic disease in the neonate?

A

Multicystic dysplastic kidney (MDK) disease

210
Q

Which one of the following conditions occurs when the fetus is stressed during a difficult delivery or during a hypoxia insult?

A

Adrenal hemorrhage

211
Q

Which one of the following genitourinary problems is commonly associated with the prune-belly syndrome?

A

Ureteral reflux

212
Q

Which one of the following malignant tumors is most frequent in the neonate and infant?

A

Wilms tumor

213
Q

Which one of the following statements regarding ectopic ureteroceles is incorrect?

A

Are more commonly found in male patients

214
Q

Which one of the following structures is thin in the neonate with echogenicity similar to or slightly greater than the normal liver parenchyma?

A

Cortex

215
Q

Which one of the following structures lies at the bases of the medullary pyramids and appears as echogenic structures?

A

Arcuate arteries

216
Q

Which one of the following structures should not be mistaken for dilated calyces or cysts?

A

Medullary pyramids

217
Q

A higher percentage of positive cells is observed in the _____________ of a thyroid mass?

A

Small calcifications

218
Q

A preprocedural image should document the patient’s name and the:

A

Time, date, and needle path

219
Q

A specific complication of a renal biopsy is:

A

Hematuria

220
Q

Advantages of using ultrasound guidance include all of the following except:

A

Fixed angles when using needle guides

221
Q

Biopsies of the spleen carry an increased risk for:

A

Hemorrhage

222
Q

Contraindications for a biopsy include all of the following except:

A

Dehydration

223
Q

In a renal parenchymal biopsy, which part of the kidney is typically biopsied?

A

Lower pole

224
Q

In a renal transplant procedure, which part of the kidney is typically biopsied?

A

Upper pole

225
Q

In which of the following positions is a patient placed for a thoracentesis?

A

Sitting

226
Q

Limitations of ultrasound guidance include all of the following except:

A

Shorter procedure times

227
Q

Postbiopsy complications may include all of the following except:

A

Heart failure

228
Q

Renal parenchymal biopsies are requested for patients with:

A

Proteinuria

229
Q

The best way to recognize the tip of the needle with ultrasound is all of the following except:

A

The needle tip appears as a hypoechoic area

230
Q

The common indication for a biopsy is to:

A

Confirm a malignancy in a mass

231
Q

The international normalized ratio (INR) was developed because of the variable results of _________ among laboratories.

A

PT

232
Q

The most common organ biopsied is:

A

Liver

233
Q

The national patient safety standards mandate that a “time-out” be performed before beginning any procedure, which means all of the following except the:

A

Patient’s name is recited by a team member

234
Q

The primary advantage of an ultrasound-guided procedure is:

A

Provides for continuous real-time visualization of the biopsy needle.

235
Q

The role of the cytopathology team is to:
Select one:
a. Ensure enough diagnostic tissue is obtained.
b. Increase the percentage of successful biopsies.
c. Minimize the number of core samples.
d. Provide all of the above

A

d. Provide all of the above

236
Q

The test used to evaluate the effects of heparin, aspirin, and antihistamines on the blood-clotting process is:

A

PTT

237
Q

The wait time after discontinuing the use of aspirin is:

A

5 to 7 days

238
Q

The _______________ patient position is most commonly used in a prostate biopsy.

A

Left lateral decubitus

239
Q

What needle gauge is typically used in a fine-needle aspiration?

A

20 to 25

240
Q

Which one of the following laboratory tests could indicate a liver lesion?

A

Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)

241
Q

Which one of the following types of biopsy uses an automatic spring-loaded device to provide tissue for analysis?

A

Core biopsy

242
Q

The central fissure separates the

A

parietal and frontal lobes.

243
Q

The diencephalon rests superior to the brain stem. It consists of

A

the thalamus, hypothalamus, and epithalamus

244
Q

The fourth ventricle is connected to the third ventricle by the

A

aqueduct of Sylvius

245
Q

The lateral fissure, or sylvian fissure, separates the

A

temporal lobes from the frontal lobes.

246
Q

The lateral ventricles communicate with the third ventricle through the

A

interventricular foramina of Monro

247
Q

The structures of the brain stem are

A

the pons, midbrain, and medulla oblongata.

248
Q

The transverse fissure separates the

A

cerebrum from the cerebellum.

249
Q

What is the echogenicity of the bones of the cranial vault?

A

Echogenic

250
Q

What is the echogenicity of the caudate nucleus?

A

Moderately echogenic

251
Q

What is the echogenicity of the caudothalamic groove?

A

Echogenic

252
Q

What is the echogenicity of the cavum septum pellucidum?

A

Anechoic

253
Q

What is the echogenicity of the cerebral parenchyma?

A

Low level echoes

254
Q

What is the echogenicity of the choroid plexus?

A

Echogenic

255
Q

What is the echogenicity of the corpus callosum?

A

Hypoechoic

256
Q

What is the echogenicity of the fourth and third ventricles?

A

Anechoic

257
Q

What is the echogenicity of the lateral ventricle?

A

Anechoic

258
Q

What is the echogenicity of the posterior periventricular white matter?

A

Echogenic

259
Q

What is the echogenicity of the quadrigeminal plate cistern?

A

Hypoechoic

260
Q

What is the echogenicity of the sulci and fissures?

A

Echogenic

261
Q

What is the echogenicity of the sylvian fissure?

A

Echogenic

262
Q

A mass of special cells located in the atrium of the lateral ventricles is which one of the following?

A

Choroid plexus

263
Q

A thin, triangular space filled with CSF that lies between the anterior horn of the lateral ventricles is:

A

Cavum septi pellucidi

264
Q

Acute neonatal brain hemorrhage appears ____________________.

A

Echogenic

265
Q

Approximately 40% of CSF is produced by which one of the following?

A

Choroid plexus

266
Q

Bilateral occlusion of the carotid arteries may result in __________________.

A

Hydranencephaly

267
Q

Convolutions on the surface of the brain are called which one of the following?

A

Gyri

268
Q

Cyclopia is associated with which one of the following?

A

Holoprosencephaly

269
Q

Dysgenesis of the fourth ventricle results in which one of the following malformations?

A

Dandy-Walker

270
Q

Periventricular leukomalacia is defined as which one of the following?

A

White matter necrosis

271
Q

Sonography of the neonatal brain is evaluated through which one of the following?

A

Anterior fontanelle

272
Q

The area in which the falx cerebri sits that separates the two cerebral hemispheres is which one of the following?

A

Interhemispheric fissure

273
Q

The brain coverings are known as which one of the following?

A

Meninges

274
Q

The junction of the anterior, occipital, and temporal horns is called the ________________.

A

Atrium (trigone)

275
Q

The largest subarachnoid space demonstrated sonographically is ________________.

A

Cistern magnum

276
Q

The most common cause of congenital hydrocephalus is which one of the following?

A

Aqueductal stenosis

277
Q

The most important cause of abnormal neurodevelopment sequelae in premature infants is which one of the following?

A

White matter necrosis

278
Q

The part of the brain that connects the forebrain and the spinal cord is which one of the following?

A

Brainstem

279
Q

The periventricular tissue, which may bleed easily before 32 weeks’ gestation, is the ____________________.

A

Germinal matrix

280
Q

The portion of the brain that forms the lateral borders of the frontal horns of the lateral ventricles and lies anterior to the lateral ventricles and thalamus is which one of the following?

A

Caudate nucleus

281
Q

The portion of the brain that lies posterior to the cranial fossa under the tentorium is called which one of the following?

A

Cerebellum

282
Q

The primary brain vesicle, rhombencephalon, is located in which one of the following?

A

Hindbrain

283
Q

The two ovoid brain structures located on either side of the third ventricle superior to the brainstem make up the ________________.

A

Thalami

284
Q

What is the name of the structure that forms between the corpus callosum and the anterior horn or lateral ventricle?

A

Septum pellucidum

285
Q

Which one of the following is most likely the result of a germinal matrix hemorrhage?

A

Subependymal cyst

286
Q

Which three mechanisms account for the development of hydrocephalus?

A

Outflow obstruction, decreased absorption, and overproduction