Abdomen 2 Final Exam Flashcards
Contrast enhancement lasts longest when administering the ultrasound contrast agent by:
Slow infusion
Currently in the United States, which of the following contrast agents are available and approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) for use in echocardiography?
Definity, Optison, Imagent
Depending on the clinical application, vascular UCAs may be administered via:
Intravenous infusion
Evaluation of a patient with known cirrhosis often demonstrates a(n):
Reduced portal venous flow with an increase in hepatic artery flow.
For a vascular ultrasound contrast agent to be clinically useful, it should:
Have all of the above
Hepatic cavernous hemangioma demonstrate peripheral enhancement only during the:
Arterial phase
In harmonic-imaging mode, the echoes from the oscillating microbubbles have a:
High signal-to-noise ratio
In the early arterial phase, using tissue-specific contrast agents, focal nodular hyperplasia can have a similar appearance to a:
Hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC)
Induced acoustic-emission effects are independent of:
Contrast motion
Most of the research and development of ultrasound contrast agents (UCAs) has centered on creating agents that can:
Be administered intravenously
Several reports have described the contrast-enhanced sonographic appearance of hepatocellular carcinoma as having intense enhancement in the _____________ phase.
Early arterial
The detection of flow in the hepatic capillaries is identified in the ___________ phase.
Late vascular
The first ultrasound contrast agent to receive FDA approval was used in:
Echocardiography
The mechanical index (MI) uses:
Low acoustic output power
The microbubble of a first-generation UCA contains which one of the following types of substance?
Room air
The microbubbles of tissue-specific UCAs are:
Taken up by or have an affinity for specific tissues
The rupture of microbubbles results in random:
Doppler shifts
Tissue-specific ultrasound contrast agents can be considered to be:
Molecular-imaging agents
To aid in contrast-enhanced imaging equipment, manufacturers have begun to incorporate into their systems:
Intermittent imaging capabilities
Ultrasound contrast agents have shown the potential to improve the accuracy of hepatic sonography including:
All of the above
Vascular ultrasound agents enhance Doppler flow signals by:
Adding more and better acoustic scatterers to the bloodstream
When insonating microbubble-based UCAs, the energy present within the acoustic field:
Can have a detrimental effect on the contrast microbubbles
When the microbubble is destroyed:
Contrast enhancement is no longer provided.
When using ultrasound contrast agents, a lesion that gets progressively echogenic over time is most likely:
Hemangioma
Which of the following vessels are the first to demonstrate contrast enhancement in the liver?
Hepatic arteries
A hernia in the bowel that cannot be reduced is a(n) ______________ hernia.
Incarcerated
A hernia with vascular compromise is ________________.
Strangulated
A pseudodissection demonstrates which one of the following?
Turbulent blood flow pattern
Approximately 70% of aortic dissections occur in the:
Ascending aorta
For years, which one of the following techniques has been used as a surgical tool for the diagnosis of hemoperitoneum?
Peritoneal lavage
In reproductive-age women, free fluid isolated to the posterior cul-de-sac is likely which one of the following?
Physiologic
In the early stages of testicular torsion, the echogenicity of the testis appears _____________.
Normal
In the trauma setting, the most common finding of free fluid in the abdomen or pelvis is:
Hemoperitoneum
Midepigastric pain radiating to the back is characteristic of:
Acute pancreatitis
One of the most common conditions that necessitate emergent surgery is:
Acute appendicitis
Paraumbilical hernia occurs more often in which one of the following?
Female adults
People go to the emergency department for all of the following frequent reasons except:
Ear pain
Posttrauma, the most common location for fluid to accumulate is in the ___________.
Morison’s pouch
Sonographic findings in acute pancreatitis may include which one of the following?
Normal-appearing parenchyma
Sonographic findings of acute cholecystitis include all of the following except:
Small gallbladder
Stones as small as _____ millimeters (mm) may be visualized with ultrasound.
0.5 mm
The complications of peritoneal lavage include all of the following except:
Pneumothorax
The initial survey of a FAST scan is directed to the:
Pericardium
The most common cause of acute cholecystitis is:
Obstruction of the cystic duct
The most common sonographic finding of a hernia is:
Peristalsis of the bowel during a Valsalva maneuver
The sonographic finding in aortic dissection includes all of the following except:
Laminar blood flow pattern
The traditional modality of choice for evaluating urolithiasis is:
Intravenous urography
Three types of abdominal hernias include all of the following except:
Carcerated hernia
Torsion of the spermatic cord occurs as a result of which one of the following?
Abnormal mobility of the testis
Which one of the following is nearly always associated with aortic dissection?
Hypertension
Neck muscles located anterolateral to the thyroid gland include all of the following except the
longus colli muscle (LCM)
The average weight of the thyroid gland is approximately
25 g
The high resolution sonography recommended for evaluation of parathyroid adenomas is
7.5 to 15 MHz
The mathematical method for calculating thyroid volume is based on the ellipsoid formula with a correction factor, which is:
Length x Width x Thickness x 0.52 for each lobe
The secretion of triiodothyronine (T3), thyroxine (T4), and calcitonin is regulated by the
hypothalamus and pituitary gland
The sonographic appearance of the normal parathyroid glands generally is
hypoechoic compared with the thyroid gland.
The sonographic appearance of the normal thyroid gland is uniformly
echogenic with medium level echoes, similar to the testes and liver.
The superior and inferior parathyroid glands are supplied by the
separate small branches of the superior and inferior thyroid arteries and by branches from the longitudinal anastomoses between these vessels.
The superior thyroid artery is a branch of the :
external carotid artery
The thyroid gland is composed of follicles filled with a substance called
colloid.
The thyroid is an endocrine gland that secretes three hormones, which are
thyroxine (T4), triiodothyronine (T3), and calcitonin.
When ultrasound fails to identify abnormal parathyroid glands preoperatively, and in patients considered for repeat surgery, which test(s) is/are commonly used?
Scintigraphy, SPECT, and MRI
Which neck muscle(s) is/are located posterior to the thyroid gland?
Longus colli muscle
Which statement is NOT true about imaging of the parathyroid glands?
Sonography routinely is performed on patients with normal calcium levels
Which statement is NOT true about parathyroid gland physiology?
When serum calcium levels are low, PTH raises serum calcium by releasing calcium from the bone and decreasing calcium absorption in the liver.
Which statement is NOT true about the adult thyroid gland?
d.
The thyroid parenchyma is composed of connective tissue and masses of chief cells
Which statement is NOT true about the parathyroid glands and parathyroid adenomas?
Approximately 35% of parathyroid glands are ectopic
Which statement is NOT true about the parathyroid glands?
The parathyroid glands generally are situated anterior to the thyroid gland
Which statement is NOT true about the parathyroid glands?
They generally have a multilobulated shape
Which statement is NOT true about the parathyroid glands?
Normal parathyroid glands almost always can be seen, especially in young patients.
Which statement is NOT true about the parathyroid glands?
a.
The typical sonographic appearance of a parathyroid adenoma is an oval, hyperechoic, structure without through transmission.
Which statement is NOT true about the size and shape of the thyroid gland?
Shorter, obese patients tend to have oval lateral lobes measuring less than 3.5 cm.
Which statement is NOT true about the sonographic appearance of the neck muscles and the esophagus?
The longus colli muscle is hyperechoic compared with the thyroid gland.
Which statement is NOT true about the sonographic appearance of the normal thyroid gland?
It is more uniformly hypoechoic than contiguous muscles and vascular structures.
Which statement is NOT true about the thyroid gland?
It is composed of right and left lobes only
Which statement is NOT true about the thyroid gland?
In cross-section, it is outlined anteriorly by the longus colli muscle and the internal jugular vein.
Which statement is NOT true about the thyroid gland?
It is an exocrine gland that secretes triiodothyronine (T3), thyroxine (T4), and iron.
Which statement is NOT true about the thyroid gland?
In cross-section, it is outlined posterolaterally by the common carotid artery (CCA) and internal jugular vein (IJV), and anteriorly by the longus colli muscle.
True or False:
Most parathyroid adenomas appear in the area of an anatomic “triangle” formed by the thyroid gland, longus colli muscle, common carotid artery, and internal jugular vein. ____
True
True or False:
Patients with secondary hyperparathyroidism develop hypercalcemia. ____
True
True or False:
The major neurovascular bundle is located posterolateral to the thyroid gland and consists of the common carotid artery, internal jugular vein, and vagus nerve. ____
True
True or False:
The presence of an extrathyroidal artery leading to an abnormal parathyroid gland aids the detection of an otherwise inconspicuous parathyroid adenoma ____
True
A cystic formation lateral to the thyroid gland is typically which one of the following?
Brachial cleft cyst
A solitary thyroid nodule in the presence of ipsilateral lymphadenopathy suggests which one of the following?
Malignancy
A ___________ is a palpable midline mass between the hyoid bone and the isthmus of the thyroid gland.
Thyroglossal duct cyst
All of the following structures form neighboring structures for the thyroid gland except the:
Parotid muscle
An abnormal lymph node demonstrates which one of the following?
Round contour
Approximately 20% of solitary thyroid nodules are ___________.
Cystic
Common disorders associated with hyperthyroidism include all of the following except:
Acute thyroiditis
Hyperfunction of all parathyroid glands with no apparent cause occurs with which one of the following?
Primary hyperplasia of the parathyroid glands
Increased vascularity with color Doppler, termed the thyroid inferno, is observed in ___________________.
Graves’ disease
Sonographically, the normal thyroid gland may be described as having all of the following characteristics except:
Diffusely homogenous
The approximate dimensions of the thyroid gland are:
5 cm length, 2 cm width, 2 cm depth
The lobes of the thyroid gland are connected by:
The isthmus
The most common cause of primary hyperparathyroidism is which one of the following?
Parathyroid adenoma
The most common cause of thyroid disorders worldwide is which one of the following?
Iodine deficiency
The most common cause of thyroid malignancy is _____________ carcinoma.
Papillary
The normal parathyroid glands measure less than _______ millimeters (mm).
4
The parathyroid glands lie between the ____________ borders of the ____________ lobes of the thyroid gland.
Posterior; medial
The parathyroid glands produce a hormone that affects the:
Kidneys, bones, and gastrointestinal tract
The pyramid lobe of the thyroid gland extends from the __________________.
Superior isthmus
The thyroid gland consists of ________ lobes:
Two
The thyroid is an endocrine gland that regulates metabolic function through the production of all of the following hormones except:
Thyroliberin
Usually _____ parathyroid glands exist.
Four
Which one of the following sonographic features of a thyroid adenoma is the most common?
Hypoechoic peripheral halo
Which one of the following structures lies medial to the left thyroid lobe?
Larynx
Which one of the following structures lies posterolateral to the thyroid gland?
Longus colli muscle
About 60% of semen is composed of
alkaline fluid rich in fructose, produced by the seminal vesicles.
Convoluted seminiferous tubules connect to straight tubules, which empty into the
rete testis
In an adult, testicular volume is _____, and testicular weight is _____.
25 ml; 10 to 15 g
Spermatozoa exit the testis through the
efferent ducts
Testicular parenchyma on ultrasound is
homogeneous
The epididymis empties into the
ductus deferens.
The epididymis is connected to which portion of the testis?
Superior
The main arterial blood supply of the penis includes the
deep artery of the penis, bulbourethral artery, and dorsal artery.
The median raphe divides the
scrotum into two testicles
The penis is composed of
two corpora cavernosa dorsolaterally and one corpus spongiosum midventrally.
The scrotum consists of the
testicles, epididymis, and proximal vas deferens
The testes are classified as
exocrine and endocrine glands.
What is the echogenicity of the cavernosal arterial walls?
High echogenicity
What is the echogenicity of the corpora cavernosa?
Medium level echoes
What is the echogenicity of the corpus spongiosum?
Medium level echoes
What is the echogenicity of the epididymis?
Medium level echoes
What is the echogenicity of the mediastinum testis?
High echogenicity
What is the echogenicity of the septum penis?
High echogenicity
What is the echogenicity of the spermatic cord?
Low level echoes
What is the echogenicity of the tunica albuginea?\
High echogenicity
A clinical history of a vasectomy is associated with:
Sperm granulomas
A common cause of acute scrotal pain in adults is:
Epididymo-orchitis
A hydrocele develops between the:
Parietal and visceral layers of the tunica vaginalis
A linear stripe of variable thickness and echogenicity running through the testis in a craniocaudal direction represents the:
Mediastinum testis
A seminoma of the testicle generally appears on ultrasound as a(n) _____________ mass.
Hypoechoic
A spermatocele is always located in which portion of the epididymis?
Head
Attached at the superior pole of the testis between the epididymis and the testis is which one of the following?
Appendix testis
Compared with the testis, the epididymis typically appears:
Hypoechoic
Epididymo-orchitis most commonly results from a:
Select one:
Bladder infection
Follow-up examination of patients with microlithiasis is recommended:
Annually
Intratesticular cysts have an association with:
Spermatoceles
Microlithiasis of the testis is associated with a(n):
Malignant neoplasm
Sonographic characteristics of the normal testis include a(n):
Homogeneous pattern with medium-level echoes
The diameter of a varicocele measures more than _____ millimeters (mm).
2mm
The epididymis is located ________________ to the testis.
Posterior and superior
The most common cause of acute scrotal pain in the adolescent is:
Testicular torsion
The primary source of blood flow to the testicles is via the _____________ arteries.
Testicular
The rete testis is located:
At the hilum of the testis
The testes are covered by a fibrous capsule formed by the:
Tunica albuginea
The testes measure:
4 cm long, 3 cm in diameter (AP), 3 cm wide
Tubular ectasia of the rete testis is associated with a(n):
Epididymal cyst
Which one of the following almost always transpires secondary to epididymitis?
Orchitis
Which one of the following facts about an undescended testis is false?
All undescended testes are found in the inguinal canal
Which one of the following statements about varicoceles is false?
Varicoceles are more common on the right side of the scrotum.
A pitfall in diagnosing appendicitis may be which one of the following?
Enlarged lymph nodes
An abdominal ultrasound may be ordered in the neonate when jaundice persists beyond ______________.
2 weeks
An overdistended stomach ____________ displaces the pylorus.
Posteriorly
Children with intussusception may exhibit the following clinical presentations except:
Tenderness over McBurney’s point
Hepatoblastoma has been associated with which one of the following?
Precocious puberty
Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis occurs in all of the following patient populations except:
Most commonly found in female patients
In older children, the common bile duct should not exceed _____ mm.
4 mm
In patients with appendicitis, the outer diameter should measure at least _____ mm.
6 mm
Other causes of vomiting in the infant include all of the following except:
Appendicolith
Other findings that may indicate appendicitis include all of the following except:
Meckel diverticulum
Preparation for a biliary sonographic examination of a 2-year-old child is nothing by mouth (nil per os; NPO) for ____ hours.
4
Sonographic characteristics associated with the bowel include all of the following signs except:
Croissant
The length of the pediatric gallbladder should not exceed which one of the following?
Length of the kidney
The mean portal vein measurement in children younger than 10 years of age is ______ millimeters (mm).
8.5 mm
The most common acute abdominal disorder in early childhood is which one of the following?
Intussusception
The most common causes of prolonged neonatal jaundice include all of the following except:
Hepatoblastoma
The most common type of choledochal cyst is:
Fusiform dilation of the CBD
The pylorus muscle connects the ______________ with the duodenum.
Antrum of the stomach
Unconjugated bilirubin is elevated in which one of the following percentages of normal-term infants?
60 %
What percentage of liver tumors in children are benign?
40%
When bowel prolapses into the distal bowel and is propelled in an antegrade fashion, this condition is known as which one of the following?
Intussusception
Which one of the following is considered to be the infantile form of hepatocellular carcinoma?
Hepatoblastoma
Which one of the following is the most likely condition to lead to cirrhosis?
Biliary atresia
Which one of the following statements about appendicitis is false?
The appendix is anterior and lateral to the psoas muscle
Which one of the statements seen below is false regarding biliary atresia?
Is more common in female patients
The breast is divided into ________ quadrants when performing Ultrasound.
Four
Almost ____ % of breast cancer is found on self exam.
10%
True or False:
Fibrocystic breasts have a sponge like appearance on ultrasound.
True
True or False:
Woman should have their baseline mammogram at age 40.
False
What is the primary screening tool for breast cancer?
Mammography
Ture or False:
DCIS is classified as “pre-cancer”.
True
What is the most common type of invasive breast cancer?
Infiltrating Ductal Cancer
True or False
A benign breast lesion is usually taller than it is wide.
False
True or False:
Malignant breast masses will interrupt the fascial plane.
True
True or False:
A malignant breast lesion will always be solid.
False
All of the following criteria constitutes a Simple Cyst EXCEPT:
Lobulated borders
True or False:
Breast cancer will always spread to the axillary nodes.
False
True or False:
Most patients diagnosed with breast cancer have no significant risk factors.
True
True or False:
When labeling both breasts with ultrasound, the lateral breast for the right & left will be 3:00.
False
The breast is a _________ gland located in the superficial fascia of the anterior chest wall.
Sweat
A pelvocaliceal dilation without ureteral dilation is seen with which one of the following conditions?
Ureteropelvic junction obstruction
Between which one of the following ranges of age does the incidence of Wilms tumor peak?
2 to 5 years
Bilateral renal enlargement is seen with which one of the following conditions?
Autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease
Clinical signs of renal vein thrombosis in the neonate include all of the following except:
High platelet count
Conditions in the newborn associated with renal abnormalities include all of the following except:
Vomiting
Conditions that may lead to adrenal hemorrhage include all of the following except:
Hydronephrosis
Differential considerations for hydronephrosis include all of the following except:
Renal vein thrombosis
If the ipsilateral renal is absent or ectopic in location, then the adrenal gland:
Remains in the renal fossa.
Neuroblastoma is typically a malignant tumor of the _____________________.
Adrenal gland
Renal vein thrombosis is more prevalent in infants of _________ mothers.
Diabetic
Sonographic findings in adrenal hemorrhage in the neonate include all of the following conditions except:
Irregular-shaped small gland
The adrenal medulla in the neonate appears as a(n):
Echogenic stripe
The best way to demonstrate the dilated ureter at the ureteropelvic junction is with a ___________ scan.
Coronal
The left adrenal gland:
Extends medial to the kidney.
The most common cause of bladder outlet obstruction in the male neonate is which one of the following?
Posterior urethral valve obstruction
The normal renal length in the pediatric patient varies with ___________.
Age
When empty, the bladder wall thickness should not exceed _____ millimeter (mm).
5mm
Which one of the following conditions is the most common cause of renal cystic disease in the neonate?
Multicystic dysplastic kidney (MDK) disease
Which one of the following conditions occurs when the fetus is stressed during a difficult delivery or during a hypoxia insult?
Adrenal hemorrhage
Which one of the following genitourinary problems is commonly associated with the prune-belly syndrome?
Ureteral reflux
Which one of the following malignant tumors is most frequent in the neonate and infant?
Wilms tumor
Which one of the following statements regarding ectopic ureteroceles is incorrect?
Are more commonly found in male patients
Which one of the following structures is thin in the neonate with echogenicity similar to or slightly greater than the normal liver parenchyma?
Cortex
Which one of the following structures lies at the bases of the medullary pyramids and appears as echogenic structures?
Arcuate arteries
Which one of the following structures should not be mistaken for dilated calyces or cysts?
Medullary pyramids
A higher percentage of positive cells is observed in the _____________ of a thyroid mass?
Small calcifications
A preprocedural image should document the patient’s name and the:
Time, date, and needle path
A specific complication of a renal biopsy is:
Hematuria
Advantages of using ultrasound guidance include all of the following except:
Fixed angles when using needle guides
Biopsies of the spleen carry an increased risk for:
Hemorrhage
Contraindications for a biopsy include all of the following except:
Dehydration
In a renal parenchymal biopsy, which part of the kidney is typically biopsied?
Lower pole
In a renal transplant procedure, which part of the kidney is typically biopsied?
Upper pole
In which of the following positions is a patient placed for a thoracentesis?
Sitting
Limitations of ultrasound guidance include all of the following except:
Shorter procedure times
Postbiopsy complications may include all of the following except:
Heart failure
Renal parenchymal biopsies are requested for patients with:
Proteinuria
The best way to recognize the tip of the needle with ultrasound is all of the following except:
The needle tip appears as a hypoechoic area
The common indication for a biopsy is to:
Confirm a malignancy in a mass
The international normalized ratio (INR) was developed because of the variable results of _________ among laboratories.
PT
The most common organ biopsied is:
Liver
The national patient safety standards mandate that a “time-out” be performed before beginning any procedure, which means all of the following except the:
Patient’s name is recited by a team member
The primary advantage of an ultrasound-guided procedure is:
Provides for continuous real-time visualization of the biopsy needle.
The role of the cytopathology team is to:
Select one:
a. Ensure enough diagnostic tissue is obtained.
b. Increase the percentage of successful biopsies.
c. Minimize the number of core samples.
d. Provide all of the above
d. Provide all of the above
The test used to evaluate the effects of heparin, aspirin, and antihistamines on the blood-clotting process is:
PTT
The wait time after discontinuing the use of aspirin is:
5 to 7 days
The _______________ patient position is most commonly used in a prostate biopsy.
Left lateral decubitus
What needle gauge is typically used in a fine-needle aspiration?
20 to 25
Which one of the following laboratory tests could indicate a liver lesion?
Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)
Which one of the following types of biopsy uses an automatic spring-loaded device to provide tissue for analysis?
Core biopsy
The central fissure separates the
parietal and frontal lobes.
The diencephalon rests superior to the brain stem. It consists of
the thalamus, hypothalamus, and epithalamus
The fourth ventricle is connected to the third ventricle by the
aqueduct of Sylvius
The lateral fissure, or sylvian fissure, separates the
temporal lobes from the frontal lobes.
The lateral ventricles communicate with the third ventricle through the
interventricular foramina of Monro
The structures of the brain stem are
the pons, midbrain, and medulla oblongata.
The transverse fissure separates the
cerebrum from the cerebellum.
What is the echogenicity of the bones of the cranial vault?
Echogenic
What is the echogenicity of the caudate nucleus?
Moderately echogenic
What is the echogenicity of the caudothalamic groove?
Echogenic
What is the echogenicity of the cavum septum pellucidum?
Anechoic
What is the echogenicity of the cerebral parenchyma?
Low level echoes
What is the echogenicity of the choroid plexus?
Echogenic
What is the echogenicity of the corpus callosum?
Hypoechoic
What is the echogenicity of the fourth and third ventricles?
Anechoic
What is the echogenicity of the lateral ventricle?
Anechoic
What is the echogenicity of the posterior periventricular white matter?
Echogenic
What is the echogenicity of the quadrigeminal plate cistern?
Hypoechoic
What is the echogenicity of the sulci and fissures?
Echogenic
What is the echogenicity of the sylvian fissure?
Echogenic
A mass of special cells located in the atrium of the lateral ventricles is which one of the following?
Choroid plexus
A thin, triangular space filled with CSF that lies between the anterior horn of the lateral ventricles is:
Cavum septi pellucidi
Acute neonatal brain hemorrhage appears ____________________.
Echogenic
Approximately 40% of CSF is produced by which one of the following?
Choroid plexus
Bilateral occlusion of the carotid arteries may result in __________________.
Hydranencephaly
Convolutions on the surface of the brain are called which one of the following?
Gyri
Cyclopia is associated with which one of the following?
Holoprosencephaly
Dysgenesis of the fourth ventricle results in which one of the following malformations?
Dandy-Walker
Periventricular leukomalacia is defined as which one of the following?
White matter necrosis
Sonography of the neonatal brain is evaluated through which one of the following?
Anterior fontanelle
The area in which the falx cerebri sits that separates the two cerebral hemispheres is which one of the following?
Interhemispheric fissure
The brain coverings are known as which one of the following?
Meninges
The junction of the anterior, occipital, and temporal horns is called the ________________.
Atrium (trigone)
The largest subarachnoid space demonstrated sonographically is ________________.
Cistern magnum
The most common cause of congenital hydrocephalus is which one of the following?
Aqueductal stenosis
The most important cause of abnormal neurodevelopment sequelae in premature infants is which one of the following?
White matter necrosis
The part of the brain that connects the forebrain and the spinal cord is which one of the following?
Brainstem
The periventricular tissue, which may bleed easily before 32 weeks’ gestation, is the ____________________.
Germinal matrix
The portion of the brain that forms the lateral borders of the frontal horns of the lateral ventricles and lies anterior to the lateral ventricles and thalamus is which one of the following?
Caudate nucleus
The portion of the brain that lies posterior to the cranial fossa under the tentorium is called which one of the following?
Cerebellum
The primary brain vesicle, rhombencephalon, is located in which one of the following?
Hindbrain
The two ovoid brain structures located on either side of the third ventricle superior to the brainstem make up the ________________.
Thalami
What is the name of the structure that forms between the corpus callosum and the anterior horn or lateral ventricle?
Septum pellucidum
Which one of the following is most likely the result of a germinal matrix hemorrhage?
Subependymal cyst
Which three mechanisms account for the development of hydrocephalus?
Outflow obstruction, decreased absorption, and overproduction
