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Abdomen Board Review > Abdomen > Flashcards

Abdomen Flashcards

1
Q

What bilaterally paired flat muscles are the innermost of the anterolateral abdominal wall muscles

A

Transversus abdominis

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2
Q

What doppler signal would be expected in the portal vein of a patient with portal hypertenstion

A

Hepatofugal flow

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3
Q

Which of the following is one of the three parts of an abdominal wall hernia

a) content
b) paraherniated cords
c) location
d) substance

A

a) content

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4
Q

What is the primary difference in the sonographic appearance between retroperitoneal fibrosis and para-aortic lymphadenopathy

a) renal fascia is less echogenic and smaller
b) renal fascia is more echogenic and larger
c) para-aortic adenopathy is less echogenic and smaller
d) para-aortic adenopathy is less echogenic and larger

A

a) renal fascia is less echogenic and smaller

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5
Q

What is the most common cause of acute posttransplant renal failure

a) infarct
b) vascular occlusion
c) renal vein thrombosis
d) renal tubule damage

A

d) renal tubule damage

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6
Q

What meaning is conveyed when an examination is described in terms of sensitivity

a) there is an indication the disease is likely
b) it documents whatever disease or pathology is present
c) quality images are provided with homogeneous intensity
d) patients will not experience discomfort during the exma

A

b) it documents whatever disease or pathology is present

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7
Q

The SMV empties into which vein

A

Portal

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8
Q

Which of the following is a sonographic characteristic of a phyllodes tumor

a) irregular border with thorough transmission
b) cystic spaces within a large, discrete, solid lesion
c) Even internal echoes with microcalcification
d) primarily cystic with multiple septations

A

b) cystic spaces within a large, discrete, solid lesion

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9
Q

If the sonographic exam demonstrates a large solid mass with mixed echo pattern on a 3 year old with a palpable mass in the LUQ, enlarged liver, weight loss, vomiting, hypertension abdominal pain, anemia, and elevated urinary catecholamines, what is the most likely diagnosis

a) adenoma
b) neuroblastoma
c) hypernephroma
d) pheochromocytoma

A

b) neuroblastoma

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10
Q

Where is the body and antrum of the stomach located relative to the gallbladder and porta hepatis

a) Medial
b) anterior
c) superior
d) posterior

A

a) medial

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11
Q

What protects the kidney from trauma and holds it in place in the abdominal cavity

a) hilum
b) adipose capsule
c) renal fascia
d) renal capsule

A

b) adipose capsule

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12
Q

What patient position increases the sensitivity of the FAST exam, especially in the detection of free fluid in the hepatorenal and perisplenic spaces

A

Trendelenburg

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13
Q

What sex hormone is secreted by the adrenal gland cortex

A

Androgen

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14
Q

The functional or true right and left intrahepatic lobar divisions are between what structures

a) gallbladder fossa and porta hepatis
b) left sagittal fossa and porta hepatis
c) porta hepatis and IVC
d) IVC and gallbladder fossa

A

d) IVC and gallbladder fossa

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15
Q

What term best describes the pancreatic hormone insulin

A

Endocrine

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16
Q

What is the most common etiology of Graves disease

A

Autoimmune disorder

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17
Q

What is the measurement range for the normal bladder wall thickness that accounts for the variability caused by bladder distention

A

3-6 mm

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18
Q

What occurs in the umbilicus area

a) the area is the genesis for the inguinal canal
b) the linea alba widens and courses laterally
c) the layers of the anterolateral abdominal wall fuse
d) lymphatic vessels outnumber blood vessels

A

c) The layers of the anterolateral abdominal wall fuse

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19
Q

What potential space separates the pancreas from the stomach

A

Lesser sac (omental bursa)

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20
Q

Although in most cases the sonographic appearance of the testes remains unchanged after vasectomy, what changes can occur in approx 40% of postvasectomy patients

a) hyperemia to one of both testis
b) infarction of one or both testis
c) atrophy of the scrotal sac
d) enlargement of the epididymis

A

d) enlargement of the epididymis

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21
Q

What is the most common primary liver malignancy in an adult

A

Hepatoma

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22
Q

What retroperitoneal compartment contains the pancreas, the ascending colon, and the descending colon

A

Anterior pararenal space

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23
Q

What is the echogenicity on a long plane of large muscle fibers

A

Homogenous

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24
Q

What is the primary function of the urinary system

A

Maintain homeostasis by controlling the composition and volume of blood

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25
Q

What pathology is most likely demonstrated on a 64 year old man with a slightly elevated prostate-specific antigen level and the endorectal sonogram documenting an 8.9 mm hypoechoic mass in the right peripheral zone

a) prostatitis
b) fibrosis
c) malignancy
d) benign prostatic hypertrophy

A

c) malignancy

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26
Q

What is the most common benign breast tumor

A

Fibroadenoma

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27
Q

What pathology describes the enlargement of lymph nodes caused by inflammation, primary neoplasia, or metastasis

A

Lymphadenopathy (Adenopathy)

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28
Q

Which doppler finding indicates a thrombosis following a transjuglar intrahepatic portosystemic shunt

a) accelerated flow
b) reversed flow
c) absent flow
d) a velocity of > 50 cm/sec

A

c) absent flow

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29
Q

Bilaterally which structure is positioned adjacent to the trachea

A

Thyroid gland

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30
Q

When viewing an image obtained in the coronal plane where is the patients head relative to the displayed image

A

Left side

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31
Q

What anatomy is included in the spermatic cord

a) ejaculatory duct
b) ductus deferens
c) epidiymis
d) testicular artery and vein

A

d) testicular artery and vein

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32
Q

What periotoneal space is located posterior to the bladder and anterior to the uterus

A

Uterovesicle space

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33
Q

Neoplasm of which origin comprise the largest group of pancreatic tumors

A

Exocrine

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34
Q

What characteristic disginguishes a benign fibroadeonma in comparison to malignant appearing asses

a) smooth and well defined contour
b) lobulated irregular margins
c) receding nipple and skin changes
d) weak nonuniform internal echoes

A

a) smooth and well defined contour

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35
Q

What anatomic structure is located lateral and to the patients right of the common bile duct

A

Hepatic artery

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36
Q

In addition to a falling hematocrit, what is another clinical indication of a hematoma

a) lymphoma
b) leukocytosis
c) ecchymosis
d) elevated enzymes

A

c) ecchymosis

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37
Q

What is the likely explanation for a septated cystic mass in the head of the pancreas in a 43 year old, chronic alcoholic who presents with a normal serum lipase, elevated serum amylase, and an enlarging mass in the epigastrium

a) necrosis
b) pancreatic pseudocyst
c) hepatoma
d) acute pancreatitis

A

b) pancreatic pseudocyst

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38
Q

What is one of the most common causes of endogenous calculi

A

Aging

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39
Q

Which space or void is considered an anatomically true peritoneal space

a) space of retzius
b) morrisons pouch
c) perinephric space
d) lesser sac

A

d) lesser sac

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40
Q

The term sonolucent is a misnomer when it is used to describe which echogenicity

A

Anechoic

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41
Q

In what region does inflammation usually start with ulcerative colitis that is an inflammation disease confied to the colonic mucosa and submucosa

a) sigmoid
b) rectal
c) ascending colon
d) left colonic flexure

A

b) rectal

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42
Q

What plane is perpendicular to both the sagittal and transverse planes

A

Coronal

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43
Q

Leukopenia may result from what condition

A

anaphylactic shock

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44
Q

What is the most common site of retroperitoneal infections

A

Anterior pararenal space

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45
Q

What is the most common type of splanchnic artery aneurysm

A

Splenic

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46
Q

In the spleen, what structure is made of up lymph tissues arranged around splenic arteriole

A

White pulp

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47
Q

What type of pressure describes the normal venous system

A

low

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48
Q

What hormone regulates electrolyte concentration

A

Aldosterone

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49
Q

What is the most common cause for an abnormal cystic appearing dilated breast duct

A

Obstruction

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50
Q

What carcinoma affects more men and elderly with about equal frequency in the middle and lower third of the esophagus

a) lymphosarcoma
b) carcinosarcoma
c) adenoid cystic carcinoma
d) squamous cell carcinoma

A

d) squamous cell carcinoma

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51
Q

What is the primary action of the peroneus longus and brevis tendons regarding foot movement

A

Eversion

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52
Q

What projects from the splenic capsule and divides the spleen into several compartments

A

Trabeculae

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53
Q

What is the best diagnosis if the songraphic features include an irregular, solid, uneven, neovascular, hypoechoic mass with internal echoes within the walls of a normal sized thyroid gland

a) multinodular activity
b) goiter
c) thyroid carcinoma
d) thyroid adenoma

A

c) thryoid carcinoma

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54
Q

What diease begins as fibro fatty plaque on the intima of large arteries

A

Atherosclerosis

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55
Q

What is a choledochal cyst

A

Dilated extrahepatic duct

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56
Q

Approx what percentage of the livers blood is supplied by the hepatic artery

A

25%

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57
Q

What is the most common source of metastases to the breast from a primary cancer

A

Contralateral breast

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58
Q

In a longitudinal section, what portion of the pancreas is located anterior to the SMA ans posterior to the left lobe of the liver

a) body
b) tail
c) head
d) uncinate process

A

a) body

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59
Q

Which scanning plane should the sonographer initially select to best visualize the lower liver segment

A

Right posterior oblique

60
Q

In cases of gastritis, thinning of the mucosa is considered a precursor of what pathology

A

Gastric carcinoma

61
Q

From inner layer to outer layer, what are the 3 layers of supportive tissues surrounding each kidney

A

Fibrous renal capsule, perirenal fat, renal fascia

62
Q

Locating the IVC, SMA, and gastroduodenal artery helps identify what portion of the pancreas

A

Head

63
Q

Which urinary bladder anomaly is sometimes described as a cyst within a cyst

a) ectopic ureter
b) ectopic ureterocele
c) bladder exstrophy
d) bladder diverticula

A

b) ectopic ureterocele

64
Q

spinal sonography is useful in the normal infant until approx how many months of age

A

5-6

65
Q

What is the sonographic appearnance of the spinal canal

A

Anechoic

66
Q

In what regions is the spine larger

A

cervical and lumbar

67
Q

Inadequate or improper fusion of the neural tube describes

A

Spinal dysraphism

68
Q

What open dysraphism presents as a flat plate of neural tissue flush with the skin surface

A

Myelocele

69
Q

On a sonogram of a patient with a tethered cord, the conus medullaris will terminate at or below the level of which vertebral body

A

L3

70
Q

What closed spinal dysraphism are collections of fat and connective tissue that appear at least partially encapuslated and have definite connection with the spinal cord

A

Spinal lipoma

71
Q

When viewing an image obtained in the coronal plane, where is the patients head relative to the displayed image

A

Left side

72
Q

What term can also be used to describe the preliminary report

a) diagnosis
b) interpretive report
c) technical impression
d) pathology classification

A

c) technical report

73
Q

What plane is perpendicular to both the sagittal and transverse planes

A

Coronal

74
Q

What meaning if conveyed when an examination is described in terms of sensitivity

a) there is an indication the disease is likely
b) it documents whatever disease or pathology is present
c) quality images are provided with homogeneous intensity
d) patients will not experience discomfort during the exam

A

b) it documents whatever disease or pathology is present

75
Q

What encloses the bilateral spinae muscles

A

Posterior and middle layers of the thoracolumbar fascia

76
Q

Suppurative inflammation describes what condition

A

Purulent exudate with necrosis

77
Q

What is the sonographic appearance of the normal visceral perironeum

A

Nondistinct or same as the surrounding viscera

78
Q

What space or void is considered anatomically true peritoneal space

A

Lesser sac

79
Q

When speaking of abdominal parietal spaces, normally it refers to what type of space

A

Potential

80
Q

What is the most common type of splanchnic artery aneursym

A

Splenic

81
Q

What is a common finding associated with vascular stenosis

A

Poststenotic dilation

82
Q

Which vessel lies posterior to the bile duct and anterior to the portal vein

A

Hepatic artery

83
Q

What vessel does an increase in blood flow occur after eating

A

SMA

84
Q

In normal arterial flow, where is the most turbulent arterial flow pattern demonstrated

A

Splenic artery

85
Q

What separates the intrahepatic right lobe from the left lobe

A

Main lobar fissure

86
Q

What straddles the midline, is superior to the head of the pancreas, and is anterior to the IVC

A

Caudate lobe

87
Q

The functional or true right and left intrahepatic lobar divisions are between what structures

A

IVC and gallbladder fossa

88
Q

What vessel supplies the liver with oxygen rich blood

A

Hepatic artery

89
Q

What structure can present as a thick lucent band somtimes identified anterior to the spine, IVC or aorta

A

Crus of diaphragm

90
Q

Approx what percentage of the livers blood is supplied by the hepatic artery

A

25%

91
Q

The liver has the capacity to enlarge and store how much blood

A

200-400 mL

92
Q

A marked increase of AST variance, greater than 1,000 ML is clincially indicative of what pathology

A

Acute severe fulminating hepatitis

93
Q

What are the clinical implications for a 52 year old man with a liver sonography examination suggesting long standing liver disease and the presence of alpha fetoprotein

a) hepatitis
b) primary carcinoma
c) vitamin k deficiency
d) serum globulin deficiency

A

b) primary carcinoma

94
Q

If a malignant neoplasm appears as an anechoic mass, what is the likely explanation for this echo characteristic

A

Dilated hepatic ducts

95
Q

What is the most common primary liver malignancy in an adult

A

Hepatoma

96
Q

What vessels are used to delineate the right and left lobes; the right posterior and right anterior segments; and the left medial and left lateral segments

A

Hepatic veins

97
Q

what is the likely cause for echoes originating from within the gallbladder with acoustic shadows

A

Cholelithiasis

98
Q

If a patient is in the supine position what is the course of the main portal vein

A

Transverse

99
Q

What vessel supplies the gallbladder with blood

A

Cystic artery

100
Q

What is the best explanation if the sonogram reveals a focal area of high echogenicity with acoustic shadowing

A

Cholelithiasis

101
Q

Acute cholecystitis is most likely to occur secondary to what entity

A

Calculi impaction in the cystic duct

102
Q

What anatomic structure is located lateral and to the patients right of the CBD

A

Hepatic artery

103
Q

Locating the IVC, SMV, and gastroduodenal artery helps identify what portion of the pancreas

A

Head

104
Q

What vessel courses to the patients right and is located posterior to the pancreas

A

splenic vein

105
Q

The echogenicity of the pancreas is equal to or greater than that of which organ

A

Liver

106
Q

Neoplasms of which origin comprise the largest group of pancreatic tumors

A

Exocrine

107
Q

What is the name of the accessory pancreatic duct

A

Duct of Santorini

108
Q

What enzyme digests carbohydrates

A

Amylase

109
Q

What is the principle site of filtration within the spleen

A

Red pulp

110
Q

What splenic function removes iron and other substances from erythrocytes

A

Pitting

111
Q

What term describes the echogenicity of the normal spleen parenchyma when compared to the liver

A

Isoechoic

112
Q

Leukopenia may result from what condition

A

Anaphylactic shock

113
Q

What may be demonstrated in the spleen, liver, kidneys, and adrenal glands in patients with extrapulmonary pneumocystis carinii secondary to AIDS

A

Calcifications

114
Q

What process contributes to an aquired aplasia and hypoplasia

A

Repeated infarction

115
Q

What is the deepest, innermost, mucosal esophaeal surface that can be visualized on both endoscopic and transabdominal imaging

A

Mucosal surface

116
Q

Thinning of the mucosa is considered a precursor of what pathology

A

Gastric carcinoma

117
Q

What carcinoma affects more men and elderly with about equal frequency in the middle and lower third of the esophagus

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

118
Q

What portion of the duodenum includes the duodenal bulb

A

First

119
Q

What is the most common primary neoplastic lesion of the small bowel

A

Smooth muscle tumors

120
Q

In what region does inflammation usually start with ulcerative colitis that is an inflammatory disease confined to the colonic mucosa and submucosa

A

Rectal

121
Q

From inner layer to outter layer what are the 3 layers of supportive tissues surrounding each kidney

A

Fibrous renal capsule, perirenal fat, renal fascia

122
Q

From lowest to highest echo amplitude, what is the correct order for the normal renal structures

A

Medulla, cortex, sinus

123
Q

What blood vessel courses between the SMA and aorta

A

Left renal vein

124
Q

What is the name for the one afferent arteriole that divides into a capillary network in the glomerular capsule

A

Glomerulus

125
Q

What is the primary function of the urinary system

A

Maintain homeostasis by controlling the composition and volume of blood

126
Q

what is the most significant clinical implication of an elevated serum creatine

A

50% plus nephron destruction

127
Q

What tumor accounts for approx 80-90% of all renal malignancies in adults

A

Renal cell carcinoma

128
Q

What condition is associated with urinary stasis

A

Nephrolithiasis

129
Q

What is the most common composition of renal calculi

A

Calcium oxalate

130
Q

Where is the prostate gland located

A

Between the bladder and the pelvic floor

131
Q

What hormone regulates electrolyte concentration

A

Aldosterone

132
Q

Which mass is adrenal in origin and secretes hormones

a) wilms tumor
b) adenoma
c) pheochromocytoma
d) neuroblastoma

A

c) pheochromocytoma

133
Q

What is the most common congential breast anomaly

A

Polythelia

134
Q

Compared to the normal testicular parenchyma, what is the predominant sonographic appearance of malignant testicular tumors

A

Hypoechoic

135
Q

What is the globus major

A

Epididymal head

136
Q

What is the primary action of the peroneus longus and brevis tendons regarding foot movement

A

Eversion

137
Q

What is the echogenicity on a long axis plane of large muscle fibers

A

Homogenous

138
Q

What attaches bone to bone

A

Ligaments

139
Q

What term is used to describe common flexor osteotendinopathy

A

Golfers elbow

140
Q

What condition results when the patient is unable to synthesize erythropoietin

A

anemia

141
Q

What is the normal flow pattern for a pancreatic allograft

A

Monophasic venous flow

142
Q

What is the most common cause of acute posttransplant renal failure

A

Renal tubule damage

143
Q

What is a sign of cardiac tamponade

a) symmetrical ventricular contraction
b) loss of respiratory variation in the IVC
c) bowing of the interventricular spetum into the right ventricle
d) collapse of all chambers during systole

A

b) loss of respiratory variation in the IVC

144
Q

What term is used to describe air located outside of the lung but within the pleural cavity

A

Pneumothorax

145
Q

What is the relationship between the needles bore size and its gauge

A

Inverse

Abdomen Board Review (1 decks)

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