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ABDOMEN > Abd ALL levels! > Flashcards

Abd ALL levels! Flashcards

1
Q

portal system brings blood to _____ from ______

A

liver; GI

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2
Q

portal system supplies

A

70-80% of blood to liver

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3
Q

hepatic artery supplies

A

20-30 % of blood

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4
Q

MPV formed by

A

SMV and SV

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5
Q

MPV is post to ______ of pancreas

A

neck

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6
Q

SMV is on the ______ side of the SMA

A

right

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7
Q

portal confluence

A

junction of SMV and PV, origin of MPV

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8
Q

SV lies ______ to SA

A

inferior

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9
Q

SV, SA lie…

A

post surface of pancreas body and tail

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10
Q

IMV joins…

A

SV, post to panc body

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11
Q

iliac veins lie ______ to iliac arteries

A

POSTERIOR

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12
Q

left portal vein branches

A

medial, lateral

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13
Q

right portal vein branches

A

anterior, posterior

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14
Q

MPV is _____ to ___ and ___ at porta hepatis

A

posterior, hepatic artery proper, CBD, CHD

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15
Q

MPV is __ to IVC

A

anterior

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16
Q

MPV is ___ to duodenum

A

posterior

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17
Q

Portal veins run, Hepatic veins

A

intrasegmental, intersegmental

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18
Q

Hepatocyte function

A

bile production

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19
Q

fixed portion of GB

A

neck

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20
Q

MLF runs from

A

GB neck to RPV superiorly

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21
Q

Mobile portion of GB

A

fundus

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22
Q

3 normal variants of GB

A

Phrygian cap, Junctional fold, Hartmann pouch

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23
Q

Phrygian cap

A

fold in GB fundus

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24
Q

Junctional fold

A

fold at junction of neck and body

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25
Q

Hartmann’s pouch

A

posterior pouch near GB neck

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26
Q

Intrahepatic ductules follow

A

portal veins

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27
Q

R + L hepatic ducts join to form

A

CHD

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28
Q

CHD

A

anterior to MPV

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29
Q

CHD terminates at

A

junction of CD

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30
Q

Cystic duct

A

drains GB

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31
Q

spiral valves of Heister

A

mucosal folds providing structural support to CD

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32
Q

CBD formed by

A

junction of CHD and CD

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33
Q

portal triad

A

MPV, HA, CBD

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34
Q

CBD enters panc head

A

posteriorly

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35
Q

Ampulla of Vater

A

junction of pancreatic duct and CBD

opening into duodenum

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36
Q

Sphincter of Oddi

A

controls flow of bile into duodenum

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37
Q

pancreas has no..

A

capsule

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38
Q

panc is predominantly _____peritoneal except for

A

retroperitoneal, except for portion of tail

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39
Q

what % of panc is exo/endocrine

A

99% exocrine - digestion

1% endocrine- insulin, glucagon

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40
Q

panc exo secretions?

A

lipase, amylase

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41
Q

panc endo secretions?

A

insulin, glucagon

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42
Q

panc endo cells?

A

Islet of Lagerhans

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43
Q

panc exo cells?

A

acini cells

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44
Q

panc head is surrounded by

A

duodenum

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45
Q

what is post to panc head?

A

IVC

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46
Q

GDA in panc head

A

anterolateral

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47
Q

CBD in panc head

A

posterolateral

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48
Q

uncinate process

A

posteromedial extension of panc head

curls around SMV

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49
Q

what is post to panc neck?

A

SMV

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50
Q

what is post to panc body?

A

aorta, SMA, LRV, spine, SV, LRA

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51
Q

most superior portion of the panc?

A

tail

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52
Q

SA vs SV

A 
SA = superior surface of tail
SV = posterior (inf?)
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53
Q

main pancreatic duct

A

Duct of Wirsung

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54
Q

Duct of Wirsung diameter?

A

2 mm

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55
Q

Accessory panceatic duct

A

Duct of Santorini

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56
Q

kidney length

A

9-12 cm

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57
Q

kidney spine level

A

T12 - L4

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58
Q

kidneys lie in the _____ space

A

retroperitoneal

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59
Q

kidney UP lies ____ and _____ to LP

A

posterior, medial

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60
Q

kidney parenchyma is made up of

A

cortex and medulla

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61
Q

renal cortex contains

A

nephrons, columns of Bertin

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62
Q

renal medulla is made up of

A

renal pyramids

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63
Q

kidney parenchyma outer to inner

A

cortex, medulla, sinus

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64
Q

renal sinus is in the ___ aspect

A

medial

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65
Q

renal sinus contains

A

calyces - major + minor, renal pelvis, vessels, fat,

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66
Q

renal pelvis contains

A

ureter, vessels

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67
Q

ureter lies ____ to vessels (TRV)

A

posterior

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68
Q

renal vein is ______ to renal artery

A

anterior

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69
Q

Gerota’s fascia

A

capsule covering kidney and adrenal gland, outermost

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70
Q

Renal normal variants

A

Dromedary hump, Hypertrophied Column of Bertin, Parenchymal junctional defect, horseshoe kidney, ectopic kidney

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71
Q

Dromedary hump

A

lateral aspect, cortex, more common on LK

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72
Q

ureters travel through the…

A

retroperitoneum

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73
Q

ureters enter bladder at ___ aspect, called ___

A

posterior, trigone

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74
Q

ureters lie ___ to iliac artery

A

anterior

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75
Q

UPJ

A

renal pelvis and ureter, proximal

ureteropelvic junction

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76
Q

UVJ

A

junction between lower ureters and bladder

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77
Q

three narrowings of ureters

A

UPJ, UVJ, crossing over iliacs

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78
Q

which is more superior - UPJ, or UVJ

A

UPJ - at renal hilum

UVJ - at bladder entrance

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79
Q

4 layers of bladder wall

A

mucosa, submucosa, muscularis, serosa

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80
Q

trigone

A

base of bladder

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81
Q

bladder outlet

A

urethra

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82
Q

adrenal glands are in which space?

A

retroperitoneum

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83
Q

spleen lies in which space?

A

intraperitoneal

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84
Q

most common splenic variant

A

spenule

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85
Q

GI lining layers

A

mucosa, submucosa, muscularis, serosa

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86
Q

esophagus postion relative to ao?

A

anterior, left

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87
Q

GE junction SAG

A

ant to aorta
post to LLL
inf to diaphragm

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88
Q

4 parts of duodenum

A

superior/bulb, descending, transverse, ascending

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89
Q

which part of duodenum is intraperitoneal?

A

superior/bulb/ first

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90
Q

marking of large intestine?

A

haustra

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91
Q

Segments of large bowel?

A

cecum (appendix), colon, sigmoid, rectum, anus

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92
Q

appendix is attached to?

A

cecum

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93
Q

4 sections of colon

A

ascending, trv, descending, sigmoid

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94
Q

which parts of colon are retroperitoneal

A

ascending, descending

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95
Q

peritoneum

A

serous membrane

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96
Q

parietal peritoneum

A

outer

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97
Q

visceral peritoneum

A

inner

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98
Q

peritoneal organs

A

liver, GB, spleen, stomach, ovaries, duodenum part 1, transverse colon

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99
Q

peritoneal folds

A

mesenteries, omentum

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100
Q

mesenteries

A

connect small + large bowel to posterior abd wall

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101
Q

lesser omentum

A

stomach to liver

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102
Q

lesser sac

A

omental bursa, contained within greater omentum

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103
Q

sigmoid mesocolon

A

sigmoid colon to post abd wall

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104
Q

greater space

A

ant to greater omentum (within parietal peritoneum)

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105
Q

mesentery

A

loops of small bowel to post abd wall

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106
Q

falciform ligament

A

liver (sup surface) to diaphragm

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107
Q

mesenteries

A

mesentery and mesocolon

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108
Q

mesocolon

A

trv, sigmoid colon to post abd wall

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109
Q

greater omentum

A

apron-like fold,

greater curvature of stomach to trv colon

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110
Q

lesser omentum

A

gastrohepatic ligament

lesser curvature of stomach + 1st part of duodenum tp liver

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111
Q

greater sac

A

surrounds small bowel

surrounds lesser sac

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112
Q

lesser sac

A

omental bursa

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113
Q

opening between sacs

A

neck, epiploic foramen, foramen of Winslow, omental foramen

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114
Q

supracolic compartment

A

above transverse colon

subphrenic, subhepatic spaces

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115
Q

infracolic compartment

A

below transverse colon

paracolic gutters, pelvic reflections

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116
Q

subphrenic

A

falciform ligament (liver to diaphragm) - divides left and right

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117
Q

subhepatic

A

Morison’s pouch

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118
Q

perirenal space

A

contains perirenal fat, surrounds kidney + adrenal

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119
Q

hepatic veins drain into IVC ___ to CT?

A

superior

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120
Q

contained in left intersegmental fissure

A

LHV, LPV, lig teres

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121
Q

caudate lobe relation in space?

A

ant to IVC, post to ligamentum venosum (is its ant border)

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122
Q

HA supplies ___ of blood to liver

A

20-30%

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123
Q

portal venous system supplies ___ of blood to liver

A

70-80%

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124
Q

IMV drains into

A

SV

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125
Q

MPV formed by

A

SMV, SV

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126
Q

CBD formed by

A

CHD, CD

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127
Q

CBD lies ___ to MPV

A

ANT

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128
Q

IVC lies ___ to head of panc

A

post

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129
Q

neck of panc is ant to ___?

A

SMV (SAG- long axis of SMV, TRV- short axis confluence)

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130
Q

body of panc ant to___?

A

SV, AO, SMA, SPINE, LRV

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131
Q

ampulla of Vater opens into

A

descending, 2nd part of duodenum

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132
Q

_____ controls flow of bile

A

Sphincter of Oddi

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133
Q

accessory panc duct

A

duct of Santorini

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134
Q

RRV is ___ to RRA

A

anterior

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135
Q

adrenals sit ___ , ____ to kidney

A

medial, superior

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136
Q

appendix courses _____ , ______ from cecum

A

inferior, medially

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137
Q

TRV colon is _____peritoneal

A

INTRA

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138
Q

which retroperitoneal space communicates across ML

A

anterior pararenal space

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139
Q

pelvic diaphragm muscles

A

levator ani, coccygeus

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140
Q

dartos tunica

A

divides scrotum into 2 sacs

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141
Q

cremaster muscle

A

raises and lowers testes from body

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142
Q

tunica vaginalis

A

outermost covering of testicle

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143
Q

tunica albuginea

A

capsule adhering to testes, divides into lobules

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144
Q

rete testis is a part of the

A

mediastinum

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145
Q

epididymis head aka

A

globus major

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146
Q

epididymis tail aka

A

globus minor

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147
Q

largest zone of prostate

A

peripheral

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148
Q

most common site of prostate cancers

A

peripheral

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149
Q

smallest zone of prostate

A

transitional

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150
Q

base of prostate

A

superior

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151
Q

apex of prostate

A

inferior

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152
Q

pampiniform plexus

A

drains testes, into gonadal vein

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153
Q

ejaculatory duct goes through which zone

A

central

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154
Q

seminal vessicles sit ___ to prostate

A

superior

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155
Q

adductor canal

A

hunter’s canal (knee)

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156
Q

longest vein in the body

A

GSV

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157
Q

aortic arch branches

A
  1. innominate/brachiocephalic
  2. LCCA
  3. left subclavian
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158
Q

3 membranes of meninges

A

dura mater, arachnoid, pia mater

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159
Q

dural sinuses purpose

A

circulate CSF, venous blood system

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160
Q

3 dural folds

A

falx cerebri, falx cerebelli, tentorium cerebelli

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161
Q

space containing CSF

A

subarachnoid space

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162
Q

structure separating lateral ventricles

A

septum pellucidum

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163
Q

foramen of Munro

A

connects lateral and 3rd ventricles

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164
Q

connects 3rd and 4th ventricles

A

cerebral aqueduct

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165
Q

connects 4th ventricle to spinal canal

A

foramen of Magendie

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166
Q

produces CSF

A

choroid plexus

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167
Q

cistern

A

widened subarachnoid space

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168
Q

outer edge of cerebrum is ___ matter, inner is ___

A

grey, white

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169
Q

bridges cerebral hemispheres

A

corpus callosum

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170
Q

longitudonal fissure

A

falx cerebri

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171
Q

sylvian fissure

A

lateral fissure

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172
Q

anchors spinal cord to coccyx

A

filum terminale

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173
Q

2 enlargements of spinal cord

A

nerve attachments- arms, legs

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174
Q

strands of nerve roots at en of spinal canal

A

cauda equina

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175
Q

narrowed tip of spinal cord

A

conus medullaris

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176
Q

lowest point of conus medullaris

A

L2

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177
Q

3 portions of brainstem

A

midbrain, pons, medulla

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178
Q

corpus callosum is ____ matter

A

white

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179
Q

gyri

A

folds

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180
Q

sulci

A

grooves

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181
Q

white matter

A

myelinated

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182
Q

grey matter

A

unmyelinated

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183
Q

thalamus

A

grey matter

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184
Q

surrounds cerebral aqueduct

A

midbrain

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185
Q

ant wall of 4th ventricle

A

pons

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186
Q

posterior wall of 4th ventricle

A

cerebellum

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187
Q

lateral openings of 4th ventricle

A

foramen of Luschka

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188
Q

cauda equina

A

nerve bundle inf to conus medularis

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189
Q

SCM lie ___ to thyroid

A

lateral + anterior

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190
Q

throat

A

pharynx

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191
Q

voice box

A

larynx

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192
Q

esophagus lies ___ to trachea

A

post

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193
Q

RCCA is branch of

A

innominate/ brachiocephalic

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194
Q

1st branch of subclavian a.

A

vertebral a’s

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195
Q

carotid sheath contains

A

CCA, IJV, vagus nerve

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196
Q

right lung has __ lobes, left has ___

A

3, 2

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197
Q

carina

A

point of bifurcation of trachea

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198
Q

mediastinum contains

A

heart, pericardial sac, great vessels, trachea, esophagus, thymus, nerves, lymphatics

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199
Q

azygous vein

A

right side, collateral

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200
Q

hemiazygous vein

A

left side

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201
Q

aortic hiatus level

A

T12

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202
Q

spermatic cord contains

A

vas deferens, testicular artery, pampiniform plexus (veins)

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203
Q

splenic flexure

A

descending colon

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204
Q

hepatic flexure

A

ascending colon

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205
Q

axillary vein is formed by

A

basilic and brachial veins

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206
Q

renal pyramids drain directly into

A

minor calyces

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207
Q

pyramids per kidney

A

8-18

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208
Q

trachea bifurcates at

A

T5

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209
Q

pons connects

A

cerebrum to cerebellum

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210
Q

CIA are ___ to CIV

A

anterior

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211
Q

LRV runs…

A

post to SMA, and to Ao

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212
Q

RRA runs…

A

post to IVC

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213
Q

CIA origin level

A

L4

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214
Q

renal arteries lie ___ to renal veins

A

posterior

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215
Q

common hepatic a. branches into

A

GDA, HA proper

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216
Q

left gonadal vein empties into

A

left renal vein

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217
Q

panc body lies ant to

A

aorta

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218
Q

part of stomach directly ant to body of panc

A

pyloric antrum

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219
Q

connected to 4th part of duodenum

A

jejunum

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220
Q

folds within stomach

A

rugae

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221
Q

desc duodenum is ___ to panc head

A

lateral

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222
Q

CBD empties into ____ part of duodenum

A

2nd, descending

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223
Q

chyme

A

product of food breakdown in stomach

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224
Q

peritoneum connects medial stomach to liver

A

lesser omentum

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225
Q

lesser sac

A

omental bursa

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226
Q

epiploic foramen

A

foramen of winslow

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227
Q

3 retroperitoneal spaces

A

anterior and posterior pararenal spaces, perirenal space

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228
Q

liver bare area boundaries

A

coronary and triangular ligaments

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229
Q

liver capsule

A

Glisson’s capsule

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230
Q

MPV lies ___ to IVC

A

anterior

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231
Q

LPV branches

A

lateral, medial

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232
Q

RPV branches

A

ant, post

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233
Q

___ dumps into SV

A

IMV

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234
Q

this divides left and right subphrenic space

A

falciform ligament

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235
Q

area of liver NOT in contact with diaphragm

A

inferior

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236
Q

quadrate lobe

A

left medial lobe

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237
Q

accessory spleen

A

splenule

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238
Q

muscle directly post to kidney

A

quadratus lumborum

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239
Q

ureters travel ___ to psoas

A

anterior

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240
Q

kidneys lie at what vertebral level

A

T12 - L4

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241
Q

psoas is medial to ____ and lateral to ____

A

kidney; spine

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242
Q

trigone is located at the

A

base

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243
Q

renal fascia

A

Gerota’s fascia

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244
Q

____ lies directly ant to LK

A

panc tail

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245
Q

SV is post to ____ of panc

A

body

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246
Q

SA is ___ to SV

A

superior

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247
Q

MLF connects …?

A

GB neck to RPV (in SAG)

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248
Q

outpouching at neck of GB

A

Hartmann’s pouch

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249
Q

CBD lies ____ to MPV

A

anterior

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250
Q

CBD joins panc duct at

A

ampulla of Vater

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251
Q

directly post to head of panc?

A

IVC

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252
Q

panc is post to

A

antrum of stomach

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253
Q

posteromedial appendage of panc head

A

uncinate process

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254
Q

SMA is ___ to panc ____

A

post ; body

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255
Q

lesser sac is __ to panc

A

anterior

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256
Q

CBD is ____ to HA

A

lateral

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257
Q

SA runs along ____ aspect of panc body/tail

A

SA

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258
Q

dilated ectatic renal collecting tubules

A

medullary sponge kidney

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259
Q

adult polycystic disease is associated with

A

Berry aneurysms, renal failure. Usually normal LFT’s

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260
Q

which organ is most likely to have a simple cyst

A

kidneys (50% of over 50 yrs)

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261
Q

associated with unilateral renal agenesis?

A

prostatic utricle cyst

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262
Q

renal cystic disease of lymphatic origin?

A

parapelvic cyst

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263
Q

parapelvic cyst

A

tubular atrophy, cysts at CM junction

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264
Q

causes an increase in serum creatinine levels

A

ADPKD

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265
Q

primary liver neoplasm linked to arsenic exposure

A

hemagiosarcoma

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266
Q

mucinous cystadenocarcinoma

A

cystic -1% - pancreatic

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267
Q

can mimic panc head adenocarcinoma

A

focal pancreatitis

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268
Q

hyperechoic well-defined cortical renal mass

A

AML

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269
Q

renal neoplasm occuring in renal collecting system

A

TCC

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270
Q

TCC

A

renal pelvis, ureters, bladder

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271
Q

common site of mets from lung CA

A

adrenal

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272
Q

renal parenchyma tumour

A

RCC

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273
Q

asymmetrical bladder wall thickening, right hydro, dilated right ureter -??

A

TCC

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274
Q

primary malignancy of adrenal medulla

A

pheochromocytoma

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275
Q

primary malignancy of adrenal cortex

A

adenocarcinoma

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276
Q

most common CA of GI tract?

A

adenocarcinoma

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277
Q

most common benign tumour of liver

A

hemangioma

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278
Q

most common primary that metastasizes to spleen

A

malignant melanoma

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279
Q

how to know GB polyp is benign?

A

< 10 mm

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280
Q

which prostate zone most common adenocarcinoma

A

peripheral

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281
Q

benign nodal (LN) presentation

A

echogenic hilum, bean shaped

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282
Q

malignant nodal (LN) presentation

A

taller than wide, loss of hilum

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283
Q

disease associated with AAA

A

Atherosclerosis

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284
Q

most critical AAA complication

A

rupture

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285
Q

most common IVC pathology

A

thrombosis

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286
Q

cavernous transformation of portal veins

A

portal hypertension

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287
Q

occlusion of hepatic veins

A

Budd-Chiari

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288
Q

indirect sign of TIPS malfunction

A

recurrence of ascites

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289
Q

most common AAA complication

A

stenosis

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290
Q

most common primary tumour of IVC

A

leiomyosarcoma

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291
Q

secondary ca affecting IVC

A

RCC

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292
Q

most sensitive indicator of biliary obstruction

A

ALP (alk phos)

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293
Q

metabolic disorder of the liver

A

Glycogen storage disease

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294
Q

stone impacted in CD, compressing CHD

A

Mirizzi syndrome

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295
Q

Mirizzi syndrome cause

A

continous bouts of cholecystitis

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296
Q

cholecystitis

A

inflammation of GB

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297
Q

stone located in bile ducts

A

choledocholithiasis

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298
Q

icterus

A

jaundice

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299
Q

cause decreased echogenicity in pancreas

A

acute inflammation

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300
Q

cause increased echogenicity in pancreas

A

obesity, diabetes, CF

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301
Q

UPJ

A

at renal pelvis, ureter leaving kidney

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302
Q

UVJ

A

ureter entering bladder, inf

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303
Q

most common cause of acute renal failure

A

ATN, acute tubular necrosis

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304
Q

splenomagaly, tortuous vessels at splenic hilum

A

portal HTN

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305
Q

moderate splenomegaly

A

AIDS, infection, portal HTN

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306
Q

hypersecretion of cortisol due to adrenal hyperplasia

A

Cushing’s syndrome

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307
Q

most common cause of increased cortisol secretion

A

adrenal hyperplasia

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308
Q

Cushing’s disease

A

due to pituitary problem

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309
Q

increased cortisol secretion can be caused by

A

adrenal hyperplasia (#1), adrenal adenoma, carcinoma

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310
Q

commonly associated with ureterocele

A

duplicated collecting system

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311
Q

congenital adrenal hyperplasia

A

autosomal recessive

overproduction of ACTH

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312
Q

primary adrenal insufficiency

A

Addison’s disease

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313
Q

3 metabolic diseases of adrenal gland

A

Conn’s, Cushing’s, Addison’s

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314
Q

ureterocele

A

ureter inserts ectopically into bladder wall

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315
Q

UPJ obstruction will cause

A

renal pelviectasis, normal ureter

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316
Q

incomplete fusion during fetal dev

A

junctional parenchymal defect

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317
Q

most common cause of urinary obstruction in male infant

A

posterior urethral valves

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318
Q

posterior urethral valves

A

bladder outlet obstruction, bilateral hydro, distended bladder and posterior urethra

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319
Q

palpation of hypertrophic pyloric stenosis

A

olive

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320
Q

CF pancreas

A

atrophic, echogenic

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321
Q

saccular dilatation of CBD

A

choledochal cyst type 1

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322
Q

subcapsular hematoma

A

crescent shaped hypo area conforming to spleen contour

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323
Q

ruptured capsule with splenic trauma

A

FF in Morison’s pouch

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324
Q

loculated fluid collection

A

mass effect, rounded margins BAD

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325
Q

most common cause of hemobilia

A

liver biopsy

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326
Q

lab values with unilateral renal trauma

A

microscopic hematuria

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327
Q

Spigellian hernia

A

lateral abd wall, spontaneous

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328
Q

liver abn commonly occuring with AIDS

A

pneumocystitis carinii

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329
Q

cholecystitis with air in GB wall

A

ephysematous cholecystitis

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330
Q

Spleen histoplasmosis findings

A

scattered echogenic foci throughout parenchyma

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331
Q

spleen of AIDS patients

A

moderate splenomegaly

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332
Q

Crohn’s disease affects the

A

terminal ileum and colon

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333
Q

Crohn’s disease sonographically

A

thickened bowel wall

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334
Q

bowel pathology linked to antibiotic therapy

A

pseudomembranous colitis

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335
Q

most common cause of acute pancreatitis

A

EtOH abuse

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336
Q

cause of acute appendicitis

A

blocked lumen

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337
Q

appearance of acute pyelonephritis

A

renal enlargement, loss of CM junction, change in echotexture

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338
Q

causes of acute pancreatitis

A

biliary calculi, trauma, choledochal cyst

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339
Q

acute pancreatitis sonographic appearance

A

hypoechoic, enlarged

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340
Q

BPH occurs in which zone

A

transitional

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341
Q

causes area of focal inflamed peritoneal fat

A

diverticulitis

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342
Q

diffuse acute pyelonephritis lab values

A

elevated WBCs (leukocytes)

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343
Q

consolidation

A

inflammation of lung tissue

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344
Q

3 bones comprising the hip bone

A

ischium, ilium, pubis

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345
Q

ovaries are ____ to broad ligament

A

posterior

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346
Q

levator ani muscles

A

ileococcygeus, pubococcygeus

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347
Q

round ligament

A

maintains forward bend (anteversion) of UT

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348
Q

most dependent space in pelvis

A

pouch of Douglas, posterior cul-de-sac

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349
Q

pelvic space filled with extraperitoneal fat

A

space of Retzius

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350
Q

longest portion of fallopian tube

A

ampulla

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351
Q

ovum found within the

A

follicle

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352
Q

posterior to broad ligament

A

adnexae

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353
Q

fallopian tube

A

oviduct

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354
Q

fibrous capsule covering the testes

A

tunica albuginea (inner, creates lobules)

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355
Q

layer of peritoneum lining scrotal sac

A

tunica vaginalis (outer)

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356
Q

epididymal head

A

globus major

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357
Q

epididymal tail

A

globus minor

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358
Q

efferent ducts in mediastinum

A

rete testis

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359
Q

epi head located ___ to testes

A

superior

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360
Q

epi body located ___ to testes

A

posterior

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361
Q

superior aspect of prostate

A

base

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362
Q

prostate is ___ to bladder

A

inferior

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363
Q

ejaculatory duct connects

A

seminal vesicles to vas deferens

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364
Q

network draining testicles

A

pampiniform plexus

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365
Q

largest zone of prostate

A

peripheral

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366
Q

lesser sac is ___ to aorta

A

anterior

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367
Q

GDA is __________ in panc head

A

anterolateral

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368
Q

cystic artery

A

supplies GB, CBD, hepatic ducts

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369
Q

which CT branch is largest

A

splenic artery

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370
Q

SA travels ___ to pancreas

A

posterior and superior

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371
Q

SMA is ____ to panc ____

A

posterior; body

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372
Q

RRA is ___ to ___

A

post; IVC

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373
Q

IMA courses

A

inf, left

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374
Q

CIA start at

A

L4

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375
Q

CIA lie ___ and ___ to ___

A

anterior, lateral, CIV

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376
Q

aorta is considered aneurysmal at this size

A

3.0 cm

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377
Q

CIV unite at what level

A

L5

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378
Q

IVC considered dilated at

A

3.7 cm

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379
Q

LRV courses

A

under SMA, ant to ao

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380
Q

left gonadal vein drains

A

into LRV

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381
Q

MPV formed by

A

union of SV and SMV

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382
Q

IMV drains into

A

SV

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383
Q

SV runs

A

post, inf to panc body and tail

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384
Q

confluence is ___ to panc ____

A

post; neck

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385
Q

SMV origin

A

root of mesentery

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386
Q

SMV lies to the ___ of the SMA

A

right

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387
Q

MPV suupplies _____ of 02 to liver cells

A

50-60 %

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388
Q

long axis of RPV viewed in

A

TRANSVERSE

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389
Q

portal vein walls are _______ than hepatic veins

A

hyperechoic, do not collapse

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390
Q

IVC spectral

A

pulsatile, phasic, bidirectional

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391
Q

HV flow

A

phasic, pulsatile, away from liver - hepatofugal

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392
Q

RA flow

A

low resistance, always forward flow

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393
Q

PV flow

A

phasic, continous, hepatopedal

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394
Q

aortic hiatus

A

T12

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395
Q

CHA sits ___ to MPV

A

anterior

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396
Q

1st and 2nd branches off CHA

A

right gastric artery, GDA

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397
Q

SMA sits ____ to uncinate process of pancreas

A

anterior

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398
Q

normal IVC diameter

A

2.5 -3.7 cm

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399
Q

Hep v’s run ____; portal v’s run ____

A

intersegmentally; intra

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400
Q

on inspiration the IVC will

A

collapse

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401
Q

in TRV, the SV runs ____ to the aorta a SMA

A

ANTERIOR

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402
Q

at renal hilum RRV lies ___ to RRA

A

anterior

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403
Q

IVC lies ____ to liver

A

posterior

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404
Q

CL/RT ratio

A

< 0.65

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405
Q

liver length

A

= 15.5 cm

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406
Q

right and left lobes of liver are separated by

A

MLF

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407
Q

quadrate lobe

A

medial left lobe

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408
Q

caudate lobe blood supply

A

right and left lobes

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409
Q

posterior landmark for caudate lobe

A

IVC

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410
Q

anterior landmark for caudate lobe

A

ligamentum venosum

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411
Q

inferior landmark for caudate lobe

A

MPV

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412
Q

Couinaud’s seg 1

A

caudate lobe

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413
Q

Couinaud’s seg 2

A

left lateral sup

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414
Q

Couinaud’s seg 3

A

left lateral inf

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415
Q

Couinaud’s seg 4

A

left medial (4a, 4b- sup, inf)

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416
Q

Couinaud’s seg 5

A

right ant INF

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417
Q

Couinaud’s seg 6

A

right post INF

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418
Q

Couinaud’s seg 7

A

right post SUP

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419
Q

Couinaud’s seg 8

A

right ant SUP

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420
Q

COUINAUD’S sup landmark

A

Hep veins

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421
Q

COUINAUD’S inf landmark

A

portal veins, lig teres (inf left)

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422
Q

MHV separates

A

left and right lobes

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423
Q

LHV separates

A

2 and 4; 2 = left lateral sup, 4 = left medial

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424
Q

RHV separates

A

7, 8 ; 8= right ant sup; 7= right post sup

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425
Q

hepatogastric ligament

A

part of lesser omentum

runs in fissure for lig venosum

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426
Q

GB fossa

A

POST INF right lobe

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427
Q

hepatoduodenal ligament contains

A

portal triad (MPV, CHA, CBD)

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428
Q

hepatoduodenal ligament

A

fold of lesser omentum

ant boundary of epiploic foramen

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429
Q

falciform ligament

A

umbilicus to liver
sup liver to diaphragm
fetal umbilical vein

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430
Q

ligamentum teres (round ligament)

A

atrophied umbilical vein

in left lobe inf

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431
Q

defines bare area

A

coronary ligaments

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432
Q

remnant of fetal ductus venosum

A

ligamentum venosum

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433
Q

MHV travels within

A

MLF

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434
Q

functional unit of liver

A

lobule

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435
Q

lobule consists of

A

hepatocytes, central hep v., sinusoids, Kupffer cells, bile canuliculi, portal triads (portal arteriole, portal vein, bile duct)

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436
Q

Kupffer cells are in the

A

sinusoids

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437
Q

hepatocytes

A

two layered columns, converge to central vein, arranged radially, in contact with sinuoid blood

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438
Q

sinusoid

A

a highly permeable blood capillary

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439
Q

sinusoid blood composition

A

80% portal venous

20% hepatic arterial

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440
Q

Kupffer cells are a part of, function

A

reticuloendothelial system (immune), ingest & destroy foreign materials

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441
Q

bile pathway

A

released from hepatocyte, into bile canuliculi, towards larger bile duct at edge of lobule, into r/l hepatic ducts, converge into CHD at porta hepatis, CD inserts, becomes CBD, drains into duodenum (via ampulla of Vater, sphincter of Oddi

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442
Q

liver functions

A
  1. bile formation, secretion
  2. hemopoeisis, produces plasma proteins, antibodies (eg albumin)
  3. gluconeogenesis
  4. storage - vit A., D, B12, glycogen, iron, ferritin, amino acids
  5. blood reservoir
  6. heat production
  7. detox - alcohol, drugs
  8. lymph formation- 1/3 to 1/2 of body’s lymph
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443
Q

unconjugated bilirubin

A

indirect, fat soluble, toxic to tissues

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444
Q

conjugated bilirubin

A

direct, water soluble, safe, non-toxic, excreted by kidneys

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445
Q

ALT

A

SGPT, alanine aminotransferase

specific indicator for hepatocellular damage

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446
Q

increased ALT

A

hepatitis, cirrhosis, tumours, hepatotoxicity (exposure to toxins), acute hepatitis, non-malignant obstruction

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447
Q

AST

A

SGOT, aspartate aminotransferase

indicate muscle damage, not liver specific (also heart- MI)

448
Q

increased AST

A

hepatitis, MI, cirrhosis, metastatic carcinoma of liver

449
Q

ALP

A

alk phos

not liver specific (also bone), seeps into blood when liver cells damaged

450
Q

increased ALP

A

pregnancy, bone disease, biliary obstruction, cancer

451
Q

increased ALP with normal ALT, AST

A

bile duct disease

452
Q

LDH

A

hepatitis, cirrhosis, obstructive jaundice, mono

453
Q

GGT

A

gamma glutamyl transpeptidase
liver disease, EtOH abuse,
non-specific

454
Q

AFP

A

alpha-feto protein

455
Q

increased AFP

A

HCC, testicular (germ cell) ca

456
Q

bilirubin

A

product of hemoglobin breakdown

pigment in bile

457
Q

increased total bilirubin

A

hepatocellular disease

458
Q

increased unconjugated bilirubin

A

hepatocellular disease, hemolytic anemia

459
Q

increased conjugated bilirubin

A

extrahepatic bile duct obstruction

460
Q

prothrombin time

A

clotting factor, depends on vit K levels, prolonged in non-functioning or scarred liver

461
Q

normal INR

A

1

462
Q

abnormal INR

A

> 1.2

463
Q

PTT

A

partial prothrombin time, measures clotting time

464
Q

serum protein

A

ablumin, gamma globulins

465
Q

albumin

A

produced by liver, maintains osmotic balance, decreased levels in liver dysfunction

466
Q

normal CBD diameter

A

4 mm

467
Q

post cholecystectomy CBD diameter

A

up to 10 mm

468
Q

CBD enters ____ part of duodenum

A

2nd, descending

469
Q

cystic duct contains

A

spiral valves of Heister - mucosal folds for structural support

470
Q

most dependent portion of GB in LLD

A

fundus

471
Q

most dependent portion of GB in SUPINE

A

NECK

472
Q

normal GB wall thickness

A

3 mm or less

473
Q

GB function

A

bile reservoir

474
Q

RA sinuses

A

Rokitanksy-Aschoff, folds on inner border of GB wall

475
Q

bile secretion hormone

A

CCK, cholecystokinin

476
Q

CCK is released by

A

duodenum

477
Q

CCK acts by

A

GB to contract, sphincter of Oddi to relax

478
Q

bile function

A

breakdown fat, cholesterol, fatty acid absorption

479
Q

cystic artery is a branch off the

A

HA proper

480
Q

cystic vein drains into

A

portal vein

481
Q

HIDA scan

A

nuc med - function of GB

482
Q

ERCP

A

endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography

contrast into bile ducts and panc duct

483
Q

smallest division of biliary tree

A

bile canuliculi

484
Q

CHD formed by

A

right and left intrahepatic bile ducts

485
Q

CBD formed by

A

CHD and CD

486
Q

normal CBD diameter

A

<= 4mm, + 1 mm for every decade after 50

487
Q

narrowest portion of extrahepatic biliary tract

A

intraduodenal - 4t

488
Q

where are valves of Heister

A

CD

489
Q

intrahepatic bile duct diameter

A

< 2mm

490
Q

junctional fold

A

neck of GB

491
Q

Hartmann’s pouch

A

neck

492
Q

panc lies in which space

A

retroperitoneal

493
Q

panc lies ___ to lesser sac

A

posterior

494
Q

panc head landmark

A

ant to IVC, inf to MPV (SAG)

495
Q

panc neck landmark

A

ant to SMV, portal confluence, inf to CHA

496
Q

panc body landmark

A

ant to aorta, SMA, LRV, SV

497
Q

panc tail landmark

A

SA - sup post border

SV- post inf border

498
Q

main panc duct

A

duct of Wirsung

499
Q

accessory panc duct

A

duct of Santorini

500
Q

80 % of panc tissue

A

exocrine -acini cells

501
Q

panc enzymes

A

amylase, lipase, trypsin, chymotrypsin, carboxypeoptidase, protease, NaHCO3

502
Q

panc hormones - exocrine

A

secretin- NaHCO3

CCK

503
Q

panc hormones - endocrine

A

glucagon, insulin, somatostatin

504
Q

alpha cells produce

A

glucagon

505
Q

beta cells produce

A

insulin

506
Q

delta cells produce

A

somatostatin

507
Q

somatostatin function

A

inhibits both insulin and glucagon production

508
Q

panc blood supply

A

suprapancreatic artery

509
Q

panc lies posterior to what 3 structures

A

LLL, lesser sac, stomach

510
Q

panc size _____ with age

A

decreases

511
Q

panc head lies ____ to MPV

A

inferior

512
Q

functional unit of liver

A

lobule

513
Q

_____ unite to form hepatic veins

A

central veins (in lobule)

514
Q

2 layers of peritoneum

A

visceral, parietal

515
Q

right subhepatic space

A

Morison’s pouch

516
Q

lesser sac

A

omental bursa

517
Q

structures posterior to epiploic foramen

A

pancreas, IVC

518
Q

structures superior to epiploic foramen

A

caudate lobe

519
Q

structures anterior to epiploic foramen

A

stomach

520
Q

inframesocolic compartment does not communicate with pelvic cavity

A

right medial - blocked by root of mesentery

521
Q

which ligament preents left lateral gutter from communicating with left supramesocolic area

A

left phrenocolic ligament

522
Q

3 spaces in retroperitoneum

A

anterior pararenal space, perirenal space, posterior pararenal space

523
Q

ant & post bounaries of anterior pararenal space

A 
ant = parietal peritoneum,
post = Gerota's fascia (renal)
524
Q

major structures in the anterior pararenal space

A

pancreas, asc + desc colon, duodenum

525
Q

major structures in the perirenal space

A

kidneys, great vessels, adrenals, ureters

526
Q

major structures in the posterior pararenal space

A

fat

527
Q

pronephros

A

4th week, non-functioning

528
Q

mesonephros

A

late 4th week, becomes mesonephric duct

529
Q

mesonephric duct

A

Wolffian duct

530
Q

in males, the wolffian duct becomes

A

epididymis, vas deferens, ejaculatory duct

531
Q

in females the wolffian duct becomes

A

recedes, becomes Mullerian duct - uterus and vagina

532
Q

metanephros

A

permanent kidney, end of 5th wk

533
Q

metanephros function begins at

A

8 wks

534
Q

wolffian duct/Wolffian duct becomes

A

ureters

535
Q

urinary bladder develops from

A

urogenital sinus

536
Q

kidneys and ureters reside in which retroperitoneal space

A

perirenal space

537
Q

UP of kidneys lie___ to LP

A

medial, posterior

538
Q

ureters lie ___ to iliac vessels

A

anterior

539
Q

ptosis

A

kidney falls when fascia tears

540
Q

renal cortex contains

A

nephrons, column of Bertin

541
Q

functional unit of kidneys

A

nephron

542
Q

each renal column contains

A

interlobar artery and vein

543
Q

interlobar vessels run

A

between columns

544
Q

renal medulla

A

pyramids

545
Q

renal sinus contains

A

minor and major calyces, renal pelvis, vessels, nerves

546
Q

from ant -post in renal hilum

A

renal vein
renal artery
ureter

547
Q

3 narrowings of ureters

A

UPJ, UVJ, crossing over iliacs

548
Q

bladder neck

A

urethral orifice, constant shape and position

549
Q

median umbilical ligament attachment

A

apex of bladder

550
Q

apex of bladder

A

most sup and ant portion

551
Q

4 layers of bladder wall

A

mucosa, submucosa, detrusor muscle, serosa

552
Q

normal bladder wall thickness- distended

A

3 mm

553
Q

normal bladder wall thickness- non-distended

A

6 mm

554
Q

urethra is longer in

A

males

555
Q

urethral segments in males

A

prostatic, membranous, penile

556
Q

muscles posterior to kidneys

A

psoas (posteromedial), quadratus lumborum

557
Q

female ANT to POST

A

ovary, ureter, IIA, IIV

558
Q

potential space ant to bladder

A

space of Retzius

559
Q

RRA is _____ than LRA

A

longer

560
Q

renal arteries pathway

A

interlobar - between pyramids
arcuate - at base of pyramids
interlobular - into renal cortex
afferent arterioles -glomerulus of nephron

561
Q

neonatal kidneys

A

more echogenic than liver, thin cortex, lobulated, large pyramids, little sinus fat

562
Q

renal variants occur

A

during fetal development

563
Q

dromedary hump occurs more often

A

on the left kidney

564
Q

hypertrophied column of Bertin should not measure more than

A

3 cm

565
Q

fetal lobulation occurs in ___ of adults

A

51%

566
Q

this renal variant occurs more in the RK

A

junctional parenchymal defect

567
Q

junctional parenchymal defect

A

wedge shaped hyperchoic defect, anterior superior cortex, incomplete embryological fusion, can be confused with scarring

568
Q

2 types of nephrons

A

juxtamedullary - deep

cortical - superficial

569
Q

renal corpuscle

A

glomerulus, Bowman’s capsule

570
Q

renal tubule

A

PCT, DCT, loop of Henle, collecting duct

571
Q

kidney functions

A

blood volume, concentration, blood pH

572
Q

kidneys remove toxins through

A

osmosis and active transport

573
Q

3 processes of urine formation

A

glomerular filtration, tubular reabsorption, tubular secretion

574
Q

glomerular filtration occurs in

A

afferent arteriole, bowman’s capsule, PCT, efferent arteriole

575
Q

tubular reabsorption occurs in

A

PCT

576
Q

tubular secretion occurs in

A

DCT

577
Q

normal blood pH

A

7.35- 7.45

578
Q

ADH secreted by

A

posterior pituitary

579
Q

ADH acts on

A

collecting ducts

580
Q

aldosterone secreted by

A

adrenal cortex

581
Q

aldosterone acts on

A

PCT

582
Q

aldosterone affected by

A

renin-angiotensin system

583
Q

renin secreted by

A

juxtaglomerular apparatus

584
Q

renin released by

A

kidneys

585
Q

renin stimulates

A

angiotensin formation

586
Q

angiotensin stimulates

A

release of aldosterone

587
Q

renin responds to

A

decrease in blood pressure

588
Q

serum creatinine

A

directly related to glomerular filtration rate, more sensitive than BUN

589
Q

increased serum creatinine

A

renal failure, chronic nephritis, urinary tract obstruction

590
Q

BUN

A

blood urea nitrogen

591
Q

increased BUN

A

renal dysfunction, dehydration, increased protein metabolism

592
Q

decreased BUN

A

severe hepatic damage, malnutrition, over hydration

593
Q

serum electrolytes

A

Cl, K, Na, HCO3

594
Q

increased serum electrolytes

A

acute renal failure, glomerulonephritis, renal tubular acidosis

595
Q

decreased serum electrolytes

A

chronic and acute renal failure

596
Q

urine tests

A

RBC, WBC, pyuria, proteinuria, pH, specific gravity

597
Q

prostate poduces

A

PSA- prostate specific antigen

598
Q

largest zone of prostate

A

peripheral

599
Q

site of most prostatic cancers

A

peripheral

600
Q

peripheral zone accounts for ___ of prostate tissue

A

70%

601
Q

BPH does not affect this zone

A

peripheral zone

602
Q

transition zone accounts for ___ of prostate

A

5%

603
Q

site of BPH

A

transition zone

604
Q

this zone accounts for 25 % of prostate

A

central zone

605
Q

located at base of prostate

A

central zone

606
Q

zone resistant to diseases

A

central zone

607
Q

1 % of prostate

A

periurethral glands

608
Q

periurethral glands

A

internal prostatic sphincter

609
Q

non glandular area of prostate

A

fibromuscular stroma

610
Q

ejaculatory duct made up of

A

SV and vas deferens

611
Q

PSA indicates

A

BPH, infection, carcinoma

612
Q

normal PSA

A

< 4 ng/mL

613
Q

renal collecting system is located in

A

renal sinus

614
Q

of pyramids per kidney

A

8-18

615
Q

lobar artery

A

segmental artery

616
Q

renal corpuscle

A

glomerulus, Bowman’s capsule

617
Q

aldosterone secreted by

A

adrenal cortex

618
Q

blood enters glomerulus via

A

afferent arteriole

619
Q

blood leaves glomerulus via

A

efferent arteriole

620
Q

renal tubule comprised of

A

PCT, DCT, loop of Henle, collecting duct

621
Q

can be mistaken for renal artery

A

crura of diaphragm

622
Q

first step in urine formation

A

filtration

623
Q

what substance does not enter Bowman’s capsule

A

RBCs

624
Q

lab tests to measure nitrogenous wastes in urine

A

BUN, creatinine

625
Q

loop of Henle, renal corpuscle, column of Bertin are all part of

A

renal parenchyma

626
Q

where does tubular secretion occur

A

DCT

627
Q

where does reabsorption occur

A

collecting duct

628
Q

substance produced in kidneys

A

renin

629
Q

adrenal cortex develops from

A

mesoderm

630
Q

adrenal medulla develops from

A

neural crest cells

631
Q

3 zones of adrenal cortex

A

glomerulosa, fasiculata, reticularis

632
Q

glomerulosa secretes

A

mineralocorticoids eg)aldosterone

633
Q

fasiculata secretes

A

glucocortiocoids

634
Q

reticularis secretes

A

sex hormones, androgens

635
Q

shape of adrenal glands

A

X, Y, Z

636
Q

outermost adrenal cortex layer

A

glomerulosa

637
Q

middle adrenal cortex layer

A

fasiculata

638
Q

innermost adrenal cortex layer

A

reticularis

639
Q

adrenal cortex makes up

A

90% of gland

640
Q

hypothalamus secrets ____ that acts on ant pit

A

ACTHRF

641
Q

ACTHRF acts on

A

anterior pituitary

642
Q

anterior pituitary secretes

A

ACTH

643
Q

zona fasiculata secretes

A

cortisone, hydrocortisone

644
Q

adrenal medulla secretes

A

(nor)epinephrine

645
Q

catecholamine

A

sympathetic nervous system, adrenaline

646
Q

spleen is a part of the __system

A

RE

647
Q

RE system comprised of

A

brain, blood, spleen, liver, thymus, bone marrow, lymph nodes

648
Q

splenic function

A

hematopoiesis

649
Q

leukocytosis

A

increased in # of WBCs

650
Q

leukopenia

A

decrease in # of WBCs

651
Q

humoral immune response

A

antibodies- gamma globulins, committed lymphocytes

652
Q

cell mediated response

A

lymphocyte produces antitoxin, attaches to antigen, both die

653
Q

spleen is _____peritoneal

A

intra

654
Q

size of spleen

A

not > 12 cm

655
Q

severe splenomegaly

A

> 18 cm

656
Q

red pulp

A

splenic sinuses, venous component, phagocytic cells line sinusoids

657
Q

white pulp

A

islands of lymphatic tissue = lymphocytes + macrophages, site of immunological activity, production of antibodies

658
Q

sleen function

A

filter blood, blood reservoir, erythropoiesis

659
Q

accessory spleen

A

splenule

660
Q

3 types of extracellular fluid

A

plasma, interstitial, lymph

661
Q

lymphatic system has no

A

pump

662
Q

2 node areas in retroperitoneum

A

para-aortic, iliac + hypogastric

663
Q

lymphatic tissues

A

tonsils, thymus, spleen

664
Q

Peyer’s patch

A

lymph node on intestines

665
Q

right lymphatic duct drains

A

RUQ

666
Q

left lymphatic duct drains

A

other 3/4 of body

667
Q

lymph functions

A

phagocytosis, immunity, tissue drainage, excretion, adsorption, circulation of fat digestion products

668
Q

normal lymph node size

A

< 1 cm

669
Q

parts of the stomach

A

cardia, fundus, body, lesser + greater curve, pylorus

670
Q

small boel

A

duodenum, jejunum, ileum

671
Q

first part of duodenum is _____peritoneal

A

intra

672
Q

jejunum becomes intraperitoneal at

A

ligament of Treitz

673
Q

longest portion of small bowel

A

ileum

674
Q

ileum and jejunum are anchored by

A

mesentery, to post abd wall

675
Q

hepatic flexure is in the

A

ascending colon

676
Q

splenic flexure is in the

A

descending colon

677
Q

intraperitoneal portion of colon

A

transverse

678
Q

asc + desc colon are _____ peritoneal

A

retro

679
Q

4 gut layers

A

mucosa, submucosa, muscularis propria, serosa

680
Q

folds in stomach

A

rugae

681
Q

circular folds in small bowel

A

valvulae conniventes

682
Q

large bowel markings

A

haustra

683
Q

distended gut wall thickness

A

3 mm

684
Q

non-distended gut wall thickness

A

5 mm

685
Q

gut signature

A

bulls eye appearance

686
Q

GI hormones

A

gastrin (stomach), CCK (duodenum), secretin (duodenum)

687
Q

symmetric thickening

A

inflammation

688
Q

asymmetric thickening

A

malignancy

689
Q

abd wall layers

A

epidermis, subcutaneous layer, muscle

690
Q

factors affecting fat echogenicity

A

water content

691
Q

rectus adbominis

A

paired ML ant abd

692
Q

linea alba

A

fibrous band, aponeuroses, echogenic

693
Q

arcuate ine

A

umbilicus to symphysis - rectus sheath passes in front of rectus muscle

694
Q

external oblique

A

outer layer, run inf + medial

695
Q

internal oblique

A

90 degrees to external, runs sup and lat, deep to external (middle layer)

696
Q

transversus adbominis

A

deepest layer, horizontal

697
Q

deep inguinal ring

A

internal -superior end of canal

698
Q

superficial inguinal ring

A

inferior end,

699
Q

superficial inguinal ring contains

A

men- spermatic cord; women - round ligament of UT

700
Q

normal diaphragm thickness

A

= 5 mm

701
Q

a true cyst has

A

an epithelial wall

702
Q

acquired cyst

A

NO epithelial wall

703
Q

neoplastic disease defn

A

abnormal tissue growth - cells proliferate at a faster rate

704
Q

etiologies of neoplastic disease

A

genetic, infection, lifestyle, env

705
Q

infectious disease defn

A

due to a microorganism

706
Q

congenital disorder

A

present at or before birth

707
Q

most common type of aortic aneurysm

A

fusiforms

708
Q

aneurysm linked to trauma or infection

A

saccular aneurysm

709
Q

75 -90% of all cystic lesions in pancreas

A

pseudocyst

710
Q

pseudocyst is most often a complication of

A

pancreatitis

711
Q

most common malignancy of panc

A

adenocarcinoma

712
Q

pancreatic adenocarcinoma assoc with

A

smoking, alcohol, diabetes

713
Q

lab values of pancreatic adenocarcinoma

A

elevated lipase

714
Q

most common benign liver tumour

A

hemangioma

715
Q

hemangioma may increase due to

A

estrogen

716
Q

“stealth lesion” in liver

A

focal nodular hyperplasia

717
Q

benign adenoma is linked to

A

oral contraceptives

718
Q

fatty infiltration

A

steatosis

719
Q

steatosis linked to

A

alcohol abuse, obesity

720
Q

cirrhosis

A

fibrosis and nodular changes

721
Q

most common primary malignant tumour in liver

A

HCC

722
Q

HCC lab values

A

increased AFP

723
Q

most common malignant tumour in liver

A

metastatic disease

724
Q

GB adenoma

A

polyp

725
Q

GB cholesterol polyp

A

choesterolosis

726
Q

comet tail artifact is associated with GB

A

adenomyomatosis

727
Q

cholelithiasis

A

GB stones

728
Q

most common GB disease

A

cholelithiasis

729
Q

painless jaundice

A

neoplastic, choledochal cysts

730
Q

painful jaundice

A

acute obstruction, biliary tree infection

731
Q

choledocholithiasis

A

stone in biliary tree

732
Q

urolithiasis

A

stones in urinary sustem

733
Q

nephrolithiasis

A

stone in renal collecting system

734
Q

nephrocalcinosis

A

calcs in renal parenchyma

735
Q

RCC is more common in

A

males, 50-70 yrs

736
Q

acquired cysts are due to

A

trauma, infection

737
Q

multiple cysts or within one organ indicate

A

true cysts

738
Q

simple cyst criteria

A

round/oval, strong back wall, anechoic, posterior enhancement

739
Q

septations within a cyst indicate

A

malignancy, hemorrhage, infection

740
Q

cyst calcs indicate

A

malignancy

741
Q

____ increases occurrence of cysts

A

age

742
Q

multiple cysts indicate

A

genetic abnormality

743
Q

ADPKD

A

autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease

744
Q

most common hereditary renal disorder

A

ADPKD

745
Q

ADPKD is assoc w

A

berry aneurysm

746
Q

ALL cases of ARPKD are associated with

A

hepatic fibrosis

747
Q

sonographic features of ARPKD

A

enlarged, echogenic kidneys, loss of CM differentiation

748
Q

renal cysts lymphatic in origin

A

parapelvic cysts

749
Q

dilated collecting tubules

A

medullary sponge kidney

750
Q

the result of progressive renal tubular atrophy

A

medullary cystic disease

751
Q

obstruction of ureter in utero results in

A

multicystic dysplastic kidney MCDK

752
Q

fusiform dilation of CBD

A

choledochal cyst

753
Q

choledochal cysts are associated with

A

cholangiocarcinoma

754
Q

most common type of choledochal cyst

A

type 1, diffuse dilatation of extrahepatic ducts

755
Q

dilation of intrahepatic biliary tree

A

Caroli’s disease

756
Q

Caroli’s disease is associated with

A

ARPKD and medullary sponge disease

757
Q

Caroli’s disease results in

A

stasis, stones, cholangitis, sepsis

758
Q

cholangitis

A

inflammation of bile duct

759
Q

the pancreas in a patient with CF will look

A

echogenic, atrophic (small), small cysts

760
Q

adhesion trapped ovarian fluid is a

A

peritoneal inclusion cyst

761
Q

cyst with double- layered wall

A

GI duplication cyst

762
Q

GI duplication cyst layers

A

inner = mucosal (bright); outer = muscular (hypo)

763
Q

prostatic cyst in transitional zone

A

degenerative prostatic cyst

764
Q

prostatic cysts associated with infertility and hematospermia

A

congenital prostatic cysts

765
Q

prostatic cyst associated with unilateral renal agenesis

A

utricle cyst

766
Q

teardrop shaped, thick walled cyst with no spermatozoa

A

mullerian duct cyst

767
Q

prostatic cyst containing spermatozoa, assoc. w infertility

A

ED cyst

768
Q

prostatic cyst assoc w ipsilateral renal agenesis

A

seminal vesicle cyst

769
Q

epidermoid primary congenital cysts occur in

A

spleen

770
Q

cyst of lymphatic/ mesenteric origin

A

mesenteric cyst

771
Q

cystic kidney disease most common in children

A

multicystic dysplastic kidney MCDK

772
Q

sono. app of multicystic dysplastic kidney MCDK

A

small, malformed, multiple cysts, no normal architecture

773
Q

hyperplastic lesion containing normal liver tissue

A

focal nodular hyperplasia (FNH)

774
Q

FNH is more common in

A

women

775
Q

stealth lesion

A

FNH

776
Q

hot sulphur colloid scan

A

FNH

777
Q

liver lesion linked to oral contraceptives, type 1 GSD

A

adenomas

778
Q

von Gierke’s disease

A

GSD

779
Q

cold sulphur colloid scan

A

adenoma

780
Q

benign neoplasm of spleen

A

cavernous hemangioma

781
Q

splenic hamartoma is made of

A

lymphoid tissue

782
Q

rare splenic lymphatic malformation

A

lymphangioma

783
Q

multi-loculated cystic mass in spleen

A

cystic lymphangiomyomatosis

784
Q

GB adenoma

A

polyp, pedunculated

785
Q

accumulation of cholesterol in GB wall

A

cholesterolosis

786
Q

strawberry GB

A

cholesterolosis

787
Q

adenomyomatosis is most common in GB

A

fundus

788
Q

exaggeration of RA sinuses

A

adenomyomatosis

789
Q

artefact assoc w adenomyomatosis

A

comet tail

790
Q

pancreatic neoplasm that can be benign or malignant

A

islet cell tumour

791
Q

85 % of islet cell tumours are

A

functioning

792
Q

15 % of islet cell tumours are

A

non-functioning

793
Q

angiomyolipoma

A

renal hamartoma

794
Q

AMLs are assoc with

A

tuberous sclerosis

795
Q

AML’s are more common in

A

females

796
Q

renal adenoma size

A

, 3 cm

797
Q

renal oncocytoma size

A

> 3 cm

798
Q

adrenal adenoma arise from

A

adrenal cortex

799
Q

hyperfunctioning adrenal adenomas cause

A

Cushing’s, Conn’s disease

800
Q

adrenal neoplasm arising from zona fasiculata

A

myelolipoma

801
Q

what artefact will adrenal myelolipoma show

A

propagation speed artefact

802
Q

hyperfunctioning tumour of adrenal medulla

A

pheochromocytoma

803
Q

which side is more common for pheochromocytoma

A

right

804
Q

pheochromocytoma is assoc w

A

tuberous sclerosis, MEN syndrome

805
Q

benign adbd wall tumour

A

desmoid tumour

806
Q

desmoid tumour arises from

A

connective tissue

807
Q

sono features of lipoma

A

soft, compressible, mobile, echogenic

808
Q

connective tissue malignancy

A

sarcoma

809
Q

epithelial tissue malignancy

A

adenocarcinoma

810
Q

HCC affects ____ more commonly

A

males

811
Q

3 forms of HCC

A

focal solitary, multiple, diffuse infiltration

812
Q

HCC risk factors

A

cirrhosis, hep b +C, metabolic disorders, toxic metabolites

813
Q

HCC lab values

A

elevated ALP, ALT, AST, AFP

814
Q

liver malignancy related to arsenic and PVC exposure

A

hemangiosarcoma

815
Q

malignant vascular liver tumour

A

epitheloid hemangioendthelioma

816
Q

epitheloid hemangioendthelioma causes

A

Glisson’s capsule to retract

817
Q

most common primary liver malignancy in children

A

hepatoblastoma

818
Q

hepatoblastoma is assoc w

A

Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome

819
Q

hepatoblastoma lab values

A

increased AFP

820
Q

cancer of lymph tissue

A

lymphoma

821
Q

Hodgkins lymphoma affect what age group

A

younger, males

822
Q

cancerous growth of B cells and T cells

A

non-Hodgkins

823
Q

non-Hodgkins lymphoma affect what age group

A

older

824
Q

fever, night sweats

A

non-Hodgkins

825
Q

sono sign of lymphoma

A

floating aorta, sandwich sign, mantle sign

826
Q

malignant appearance of LN

A

round/oval, eccentric cortical widening, taller than wide, absetn hilum

827
Q

splenic malignancy with mets to liver

A

hemangiosarcoma

828
Q

GB carcinoma aka

A

adenocarcinoma

829
Q

GB carcinoma assoc w

A

galsstones

830
Q

adenocarcinoma of bile ducts

A

cholangiocarcinoma

831
Q

3 forms of cholangiocarcinoma

A

intrahepatic, distal, hilar- Klatskin’s

832
Q

most common forms of cholangiocarcinoma

A

Klatskin’s tumour

833
Q

Klatskin’s tumour sit of origin

A

at bifurcation of right and left common heaptic duct

834
Q

sono appearance of Klatskin’s tumour

A

CBD normal, dilated intrahepatic ducts, bulging of duct walls, slid mass at liver hilum

835
Q

most common malignancy of pancreas

A

adenocarcinoma

836
Q

pancreatic adenocarcinoma assoc w

A

smoking, alcohol abuse, diabetes

837
Q

adenocarcinoma affects

A

panc head

838
Q

lab values for adenocarcinoma

A

elevated lipase

839
Q

clinical signs of adenocarcinoma

A

painless jaundice, n&v

840
Q

adenocarcinoma indirect signs

A

dilated pancreatic duct, bile duct dilation, double duct sign, dilated GB (Courvoisier’s GB)

841
Q

Courvoisier’s GB

A

an enlarged, often palpable gallbladder in a patient with carcinoma of the head of the pancreas. It is associated with jaundice due to obstruction of the common bile duct.

842
Q

malignancy in panc tail

A

mucinous cystadenocarcinoma

843
Q

hyperechoic layers of gut

A

lumen, submucosa, serosa (outermost)

844
Q

hypoechoic layers of gut

A

mucosa, muscularis

845
Q

sonographic pattern of thickened gut

A

bulls eye or pseudo kidney

846
Q

benign conditions of gut wall thickening

A

long segment, symmetric, layers preserved

847
Q

malignant conditions of gut wall thickening

A

short segment, asymmetric thickening, layers destroyed

848
Q

most common malignant tumour of GI tract

A

adenocarcinoma

849
Q

increased incidence of GI tract adenocarcinoma with

A

Crohn’s

850
Q

3 most common cancer for men and women

A

colon

851
Q

RCC

A

hypernephroma (adenocarcinoma)

852
Q

most common renal tumour in adults

A

adenocarcinoma (RCC)

853
Q

triad of RCC

A

flank pain, gross hematuria, palpable renal mass

854
Q

RCC is assoc w

A

tuberous sclerosis

855
Q

RCC complications

A

IVC, RV invasion, para-aortic nodes, contralateral kidney invasion

856
Q

nephroblastoma

A

Wim’s tumour

857
Q

most common malignant renal tumour in children

A

Wim’s tumour/ nephroblastoma

858
Q

Wim’s tumour/ nephroblastoma can be confused with

A

neuroblastoma (primary tumour of adrenal gland)

859
Q

malignancy of epithelial lining of collecting system

A

TCC

860
Q

TCC occurs more often in

A

men

861
Q

TCC could be mistaken for

A

blood clot, fungal balls, slouged papillae

862
Q

2 procedures necessary to diagnose TCC of bladder

A

cytoscopy, biopsy

863
Q

TCC in ureter may have

A

hydro above level of mass

864
Q

rare but aggressive bladder ca

A

squamous cell carcinoma

865
Q

squamous cell carcinoma is assoc w

A

chronic UTI’s, stones, stricture

866
Q

most common cancer in men

A

prostate adenocarcinoma

867
Q

risk factors of prostate adenocarcinoma

A

ag, fatty diet, family history

868
Q

rare adrenal gland malignancy

A

cortical cancer

869
Q

adrenal cortical cancers are hyperfunctioning in

A

females

870
Q

cortical cancer are non-functioning in

A

males

871
Q

Cushing’s syndrome is due to

A

excess cortisol

872
Q

4 signs of excess hormone production

A

femanization, virilization, precocious puberty,

873
Q

Conn’s disease is due to

A

excess aldosterone

874
Q

hyperfunctioning adrenal cortical cancers look

A

homogeneous

875
Q

nonfunctioning adrenal cortical cancers look

A

heterogeneous

876
Q

adrenal tumour in children

A

neuroblastoma

877
Q

neuroblastoma arises from

A

adrenal medulla

878
Q

neuroblastoma can be confused with

A

Wilm’s tumour/nephroblastoma

879
Q

peritoneal malignancy associated with asbestos exposure

A

mesothelioma

880
Q

mesothelioma appearance

A

omental caking, ascites, peritoneal thickening

881
Q

hypoechoic masses along peritoneum can be from

A

non-H lymphoma, esp in AIDS patients

882
Q

routes of metastatic spread

A

blood, lymphatics, direct invasion

883
Q

most common sites for mets

A

lung, liver, bone, adrenal gland

884
Q

most common malignant tumour of liver

A

liver mets

885
Q

diffuse metastaic spread to peritoneum

A

peritoneal carcinomatosis

886
Q

gelatinous ascites originating from perforated appendiceal epithelial tumour

A

pseudomyxoma peritonei

887
Q

starburst appearance is assoc w

A

pseudomyxoma peritonei

888
Q

morbidity

A

measure of sickness or disease in an area

889
Q

mortality

A

measure of deaths in an area

890
Q

proximal aorta flow waveform

A

moderate resistance

891
Q

distal aorta flow waveform

A

high resistance

892
Q

renal artery waveform

A

low resistance

893
Q

SMA pre-prandial waveform

A

high res

894
Q

SMA post-prandial waveform

A

low res

895
Q

arteriosclerosis

A

hardening of arteries

896
Q

atheroma

A

lipid deposit on intimal layer

897
Q

atherosclerosis

A

form of arteriosclerosis, large and medium arteries

898
Q

plaque

A

platelets forming a cap over a fat deposit

899
Q

lipid deposits leads to

A

fibrosis and calcification

900
Q

atherosclerosis assoc w

A

HTN, smoking, diabetes

901
Q

most AAA occur

A

below RA

902
Q

AAA can be caused by

A

syphilis

903
Q

most common complication of AAA

A

stenosis

904
Q

AAA assoc findings

A

iliac artery aneurysm, popliteal aneurysm

905
Q

most urgent complication of AAA

A

rupture

906
Q

splanchnic/mesenteric artery aneurysm

A

CT, SMA, IMA

907
Q

most common splanchnic/mesenteric artery aneurysm

A

SA

908
Q

iliac artery aneurysms are commonly

A

bilateral

909
Q

IA aneurysm can cause

A

hydro- compress ureters

910
Q

iliac arteries are post to

A

ureters

911
Q

mycotic aneurysm

A

due to bacterial or fungal infection

912
Q

inflammatory aneurysm

A

dense fibrotic reaction

913
Q

tear of intimal lining of aorta

A

aortic dissection

914
Q

3 types of aortic dissection

A

aortic arch + down ao
Marfan’s = asc ao only
desc ao after left subclav origin

915
Q

pseudoaneurysm

A

neck, contained by surrounding tissues

916
Q

pseudoaneurysm causes

A

trauma, failed graft, post angiogram

917
Q

AV Fistula

A

abnormal communication between artery and vein

918
Q

AV Fistula can be a complication of

A

AAA

919
Q

uncontrollabe HTN can be from

A

RA stenosis

920
Q

most common abnormality of IVC

A

thrombosis

921
Q

RV thrombosis is assoc w

A

diabetes, high BP

922
Q

most frequent congenital abn of IVC

A

duplication, transposition

923
Q

2 types of portal HTN

A

presinusoidal, intrahepatic

924
Q

2 types of presinusoidal portal HTN

A

extrahepatic, intrahepatic

925
Q

extrahepatic presinusoidal portal HTN

A

PV, SV thrombosis

926
Q

varices

A

collaterals

927
Q

intrahepatic, presinusoidal portal HTN

A

caused by diseases affecting portal zone. eg) schistosomiasis, cirrhosis

928
Q

5 most common collateral routes

A

gastroesophageal, paraumbilical, splenorenal/gastrorenal, intestinal, hemorrhoidal

929
Q

PV thrombosis can result in

A

cavernous transformation - “can of worms”

930
Q

obstruction of HV’s, + possible IVC occlusion

A

Budd-Chiari syndrome

931
Q

causes of Budd-Chiari syndrome

A

oral contraceptives, coagulation problems, trauma, tumour invasion

932
Q

sudden interruption of blood supply, may lead to necrosis

A

infarction

933
Q

common cause of focal splenic lesion

A

splenic infarct

934
Q

splenic infarct caused by

A

occlusion of SA due to sickle cell anemia

935
Q

diffuse process of hepatocyte dysfunction

A

hepatocellular disease

936
Q

hepatocellular disease

A

fatty liver to cirrhosis,size, abnormal LFT’s

937
Q

fatty infiltration

A

steatosis

938
Q

2 most common causes of fatty infiltration

A

obesity, alcohol

939
Q

altered liver lab values

A

ALT, AST, ALP, GGT, bilirubin

940
Q

cirrhosis

A

fibrosis, nodular changes

941
Q

cirrhosis causes

A

alcohol, viral hepatitis, primary sclerosing cholangitis

942
Q

chronic viral hepatitis causes

A

micronodular changes

943
Q

macronodular changes cause by

A

alcohol induced cirrhosis

944
Q

CL/RL ration in cirrhotic liver

A

> 0.65

945
Q

DECREASED lab values with cirrhosis

A

serum albumin

946
Q

von Gierke’s disease

A

GSD

947
Q

GSD causes

A

excess glycogen deposits in hepatocytes

948
Q

transudate fluid

A

contains little protein or cells, non- inflammatory cause

949
Q

causes of transudate fluid ascites

A

cirrhosis, CHF

950
Q

exudate fluid

A

high protein content, blood, pus, chylous

951
Q

causes of exudate fluid ascites

A

inflammatory process, malignancy

952
Q

sono appearance of causes of exudate fluid ascites

A

septations, loculations, internal echoes

953
Q

free fluid features

A

changes with pt position, conforms to organs, acute angle

954
Q

loculated fluid features

A

rounded margins, no change with movement, mass effect

955
Q

3 most dependent spaces in peritoneal cavity

A

Morison’s pouch, pouch of Douglas/posterior cul de sac, paracolic gutters

956
Q

causes of bile stasis

A

prolonged fasting, rapid wt loss, TPN, extrahepatic biliary obstruction

957
Q

sludge that mimics polypoid tumour

A

tumefactive sludge/sludge balls

958
Q

when sludge has same echogenicity as liver

A

hepatization

959
Q

imaging artifact in GB

A

pseudo sludge

960
Q

presence of pus in bile

A

empyema

961
Q

presence of blood in bile

A

hembilia

962
Q

limey bile

A

milk of calcium

963
Q

most common disease of the GB

A

cholelithiasis

964
Q

cholelithiasis

A

gallstones

965
Q

factors affecting cholelithiasis

A

bile composition, stasis, infection

966
Q

composition of gallstones

A

cholesterol, bilirubin, calcium

967
Q

cholelithiasis risk factors

A

fat, female, 40+, fertile, family hx

968
Q

WES sign

A

wall, echo, shadow

969
Q

cholelithiasis lab values

A

ALT, AST, ALP, bilirubin

970
Q

painless jaundice is assoc w

A

neoplastic conditions, choledochal cysts

971
Q

painful jaundice is assoc w

A

acute obstruction, infection

972
Q

stones in biliary tree

A

choledocholithiasis

973
Q

most common cause of choledocholithiasis

A

secondary - stones pass from GB

974
Q

stones form in ducts due to

A

inflammation, parasitic infection, Caroli’s disease, prior sx

975
Q

most common location for stones in biliary tree

A

distal CBD at ampulla of Vater (extrahepatic)

976
Q

stones in urinary system

A

urolithiasis

977
Q

stones in renal collecting system

A

nephrolithiasis

978
Q

calcs in renal parenchyma

A

nephrocalcinosis

979
Q

risk factors of nephrolithiasis

A

hereditary, low water intake, high animal protein diet, urinary stasis

980
Q

3 natural narrowings or ureter

A

UPJ, UVJ, crossing iliacs

981
Q

stones less than ___ can pass

A

5 mm

982
Q

artifact assocaited with renal stones

A

twinkle

983
Q

dilated renal collecting system

A

hydronephrosis

984
Q

non-obstructive hydronephrosis caused by

A

reflux, infection, polyuria

985
Q

this can be mistaken for hydro

A

parapelvic cysts, extra-renal pelvis

986
Q

nephrocalcinosis can be caused by

A

ischemia, necrosis, hypercalcemia

987
Q

theory of stone progression

A

Anderson-Carr kidney

988
Q

term describing poorly functioning but unobstructed kidney

A

medical renal disease

989
Q

sono features of acute medical renal disease

A

diffuse increase in echogenicity, prominent CM junction, enlarged

990
Q

sono features of chronic medical renal disease

A

small, echogenic kidneys

991
Q

most common cause of acute reversible renal failure

A

acute tubular necrosis

992
Q

acute tubular necrosis

A

debris deposits in renal collecting tubules

993
Q

acute tubular necrosis results from

A

ischemia, toxicity

994
Q

RI indicating acute tubular necrosis

A

RI > 0.75

995
Q

ischemic necrosis of cortex with paring of pyramids

A

acute cortical necrosis

996
Q

acute cortical necrosis can be due to

A

sepsis, burns, severe dehydration, PIH

997
Q

renal autoimmune reaction

A

acute glomerulonephritis

998
Q

pt presentation of acute glomerulonephritis

A

hematuria, HTN, azotemia (N2)

999
Q

systemic metabolic disorder resulting in amyloid deposits in kidneys

A

amyloidosis

1000
Q

pt presentation of amyloidosis

A

proteinuria

1001
Q

most common cause of chronic renal failure

A

diabetes mellitus

1002
Q

complete obstruction of renal collecting system

A

irreversible damage in 3 wks

1003
Q

partial obstruction of renal collecting system

A

irreversible damage in 3 months

1004
Q

chronic stage renal failure lab values

A

creatinine, BUN, uric acid, RBC, WBC in urine

1005
Q

hyperadrenalism

A

Cushing’s syndrome, Conn’s disease, MEN,

1006
Q

hyperadrenalism

A

excess cortisol secretion

1007
Q

causes of hyperadrenalism

A

adrenal hyperplasia, adenoma, carcinoma, taking too much corticosteroids

1008
Q

hyperadrenalism features

A

moon face, bufalo hump, truncal obesity, hirsutism, amenorrhea, HTN

1009
Q

Cushing’s syndrome

A

excess cortisol from adrneal gland

1010
Q

Cushing’s disease

A

excess cortisol due to ACTH from pituitary adenoma

1011
Q

Conn’s disease

A

excess aldosterone secretion

1012
Q

Conn’s disease presentation

A

increaced Na+, low K+, HTN, hypoechoic small round mass

1013
Q

MEN

A

multiple endocrine neoplasi

1014
Q

malignant type of MEN

A

type 2

1015
Q

MEN causes

A

excessive hormone production

1016
Q

MEN affects these tissues

A

adrenal, pancreas, pituitary, parathyroid

1017
Q

MEn type 2 in adrneal

A

pheochromocytoma

1018
Q

pheochromocytoma

A

a small vascular tumor of the adrenal medulla, causing irregular secretion of epinephrine and norepinephrine, leading to attacks of raised blood pressure, palpitations, and headache.

1019
Q

hypoadrenalism may cause

A

adrenal atrophy

1020
Q

hypoadrenalism may be due to

A

adrenal cortex , hypothalamus or pituitary disorders

1021
Q

3 types of hypoadrenalism

A

Addison’s, TB, Waterhouse-Friedrichsen syndrome

1022
Q

autoimmune hypoadrenalism

A

Addison’s disease

1023
Q

Addison’s disease occurs only in

A

females

1024
Q

autoimmune hypoadrenalism accounts for ___ of all hypoadrenalism cases

A

80%

1025
Q

TB accounts for ___ of all hypoadrenalism cases

A

20%

1026
Q

hypoadrenalism due to TB occurs in

A

males

1027
Q

features of TB hypoadrenalism

A

emlarged, hyperpigmentation, low BP, muscle weakness, fatigue

1028
Q

in TB hypoadrenalism ___ of the gland is non-functioning

A

90%

1029
Q

acute hypoadrenalism

A

Waterhouse-Friedrichsen syndrome

1030
Q

Waterhouse-Friedrichsen syndrome is secondary to

A

hemorrhage, infection

1031
Q

Waterhouse-Friedrichsen syndrome causes

A

massive destruction of kidneys

1032
Q

what will you see in a TIPS patient

A

stent

1033
Q

what does focal fatty infiltration look like

A

hyperechoic areas, irregular borders

1034
Q

how to distinguish hydro from parapelvic cyst

A 
connecting = hydro
separate = cysts
1035
Q

this liver disease is assoc w adenoma foramtion

A

GSD

1036
Q

cirrhosis and CHF produce this type of ascites

A

transudative fluid

1037
Q

liver cyst with double wall

A

hyatid cyst

1038
Q

worms in biliary tree

A

biliary ascariasis

1039
Q

lymphangitis

A

inflammation of walls of lymphatic vessels

1040
Q

adenitis

A

inflammation of a gland

1041
Q

adenopathy

A

enlargement of LN

1042
Q

elephantiasis

A

enlargement of a limb, due to lymphatic obstruction

1043
Q

elephantiasis is usually due to

A

nematode - filariasis

1044
Q

bezoars

A

small stony concretion in stomach of ruminants

1045
Q

lung consolidation

A

region of lung tissue that has filled with liquid- causing hardening or swelling (induration)

1046
Q

atelectasis

A

partial or complete lung collapse

1047
Q

pneumothorax

A

air/gas in pleural cavity, causing lung collapse

1048
Q

infection presentation

A

fever, pain, leukocytosis

1049
Q

localized collection of pus

A

abcess

1050
Q

inflammation of liver

A

hepatitis

1051
Q

hep A transmission

A

fecal - oral route

1052
Q

99% of acute hep are type

A

A

1053
Q

Hep B spreads via

A

blood, body fluid, mucous membrane contact

1054
Q

He c spreads

A

blood transfusions

1055
Q

hep D

A

Hep B dependent, IV drug users

1056
Q

(sub)fulminant hepatitis is due to

A

hep B, toxicity

1057
Q

death occurs if ___ of liver tissue lost

A

40%

1058
Q

chronic hepatitis

A

symptoms > 6 months

1059
Q

starry sky appearance is assoc w

A

acute hepatitis

1060
Q

liver appearance in chronic hepatitis

A

coarse, hyperechoic, portal HTN, cirrhosis

1061
Q

inflammation, fibrosing of biliary tree

A

cholangitis

1062
Q

acute/bactrerial cholangitis is due to

A

choledocholithiasis

1063
Q

left lateral lobe is affected most in

A

recurrent pyogenic cholangitis

1064
Q

long term effect of recurrent pyogenic cholangitis

A

biliary cirrhosis, choleangiocarcinoma

1065
Q

lab values assoc w AIDS

A

increased ALP, normal bilirubin

1066
Q

roundowm infection in biliary tree

A

biliary ascariasis

1067
Q

acture pancratitis etiology

A

alcohol abuse, biliary stones

1068
Q

75-90% of all pancreatic lesions are

A

pseudocysts

1069
Q

Crohn’s disease affects

A

terminla ileum and colon, all layers

1070
Q

ulcerative colitis affects

A

colon and rectum, mucosal and submucosal layers

1071
Q

necrotizing inflammmation of GI tract

A

pseudomembranous colitis

1072
Q

pseudomembranous colitis is caused by

A

C.difficile

1073
Q

acute appendicitis is due to

A

obstruction of lumen

1074
Q

a normal appendix should measure

A

<6 mm AP, <3 mm single wal

1075
Q

distention of appendix with mucuous

A

mucocele

1076
Q

malignant cause of mucocele

A

primary mucous cystadenocarcinoma

1077
Q

benign cause of mucocele

A

fecaliths, inflammatory scarring, polyps

1078
Q

diverticulitis more common in young, asian, women

A

RLQ diverticulitis

1079
Q

RLQ diverticulitis are ____ and _____

A

congenital, solitary

1080
Q

RLQ diverticulitis involves which layers

A

all

1081
Q

LLQ diverticulitis is seen in

A

older patients, low fibre diet

1082
Q

LLQ diverticulitis affects

A

left colon, sigmoid colon

1083
Q

LLQ diverticulitis affect which layers

A

mucosa & submucosa

1084
Q

type of bladder diverticula involving all 3 layers

A

congenital

1085
Q

type of bladder diverticula involving inner 2 layers

A

acquired, (mucosa, submucosa)

1086
Q

bladder diverticula associated with neurogenic bladder

A

acquired

1087
Q

bladder diverticula can result in

A

stasis, stones, infection

1088
Q

early stages of mechanical bowel obstruction

A

hyperperistalsis

1089
Q

late stages of mechanical bowel obstruction

A

NO peristalsis

1090
Q

invagination/telescoping of bowel segments

A

intussusception

1091
Q

intussusception occurs mainly in

A

children

1092
Q

closed loop obstruction

A

volvulus

1093
Q

bowel obstruction related to lack of function

A

paralytic ileus

1094
Q

paralytic ileus is usually due to

A

general anesthetic

1095
Q

UTI’s occur mostly in

A

women, diabetics, immune compromised

1096
Q

inflamed renal tubules

A

acute pyelonephritis

1097
Q

acute pyelonephritis is caused by

A

E. coli

1098
Q

chronic pyelonephritis is caused by

A

vesicoureteric reflux

1099
Q

pus in renal collecting system

A

pyonephrosis

1100
Q

pyonephrosis in young adults

A

UPJ obstruction/ stones

1101
Q

pyonephrosis in elderly

A

malignant obstruction

1102
Q

Staghorn calculi occur in

A

Xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis

1103
Q

most common fungal infection in urinary tract

A

Candida albicans (yeast)

1104
Q

biliary pathology with dilated intrahepatic ducts, and normal extrahepatic ducts

A

Klatskin’s tumour

1105
Q

panc head is INF to ____ and ANT to ____

A

PV; IVC

1106
Q

Caroli’s disease

A

intrahepatic duct dilatation, leads to portal HTN, congenital hepatic fibrosis

1107
Q

ADPKD is not associated with

A

portal HTN

1108
Q

divides inframesocolic compartment into left and right

A

root of mesentery

1109
Q

INF border of caudate lobe

A

MPV

1110
Q

echinococcal disease aka

A

hydatid disease

1111
Q

BPH occurs in

A

TZ

1112
Q

infectious cystitis can be caused by

A

prostatitis (men), bladder outlet obstruction

1113
Q

chronic prostatitis caused by

A

E.coli

1114
Q

transudative pleural effusion is caused by

A

CHF, cirrhosis

1115
Q

exudative pleural effusion is caused by

A

infections, neoplasms

1116
Q

severe splenomegaly is due to

A

leukemia, lymphoma

1117
Q

mild to moderate splenomegaly is due to

A

portal HTN, infection, AIDS

ABDOMEN (4 decks)

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