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Abbas > Abbas Memorization > Flashcards

Abbas Memorization Flashcards

1
Q

percentage of CD4+ TH cells in blood, lymph node and spleen

A

35-60%, 50-60%, 50-60%

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2
Q

T reg selected phenotype markers

A

cd3, cd4, cd25, foxp3

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3
Q

NKT cells have specificity for what? what are their cell surface markers?

A

limited specificity for glycolipidCD1. cd56, cd16 (Fc receptor for IgG), cd3

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4
Q

follicular B cells markers

A

Fc receptor, class II MHC, CD 19, cd23

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5
Q

marginal zone B cell markers

A

cd27, IgM

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6
Q

CD62p -what is the molecule and ligand?

A

p selectin binds sialyl Lewis x on psgl-1. endothelium is activated by histamine and thrombin

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7
Q

cd62E-molecule name and ligand

A

E selectin binds sialyl Lewis X (e.g. CLA-1). activated by TNF, IL-1

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8
Q

cd62L-molecule, ligand and activation?

A

L selectin (expressed on leukocytes not endothelium like the others) binds Sialyl Lewis X/PNAd on GlyCam1, cd34, Madcam1

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9
Q

LFA1- CD name and ligand

A

cd11a cd18 binds icam1 (cd54) and icam2 (cd102)

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10
Q

mac-1- CD name and ligand

A

cd11b cd18, icam1 (cd54), icam2 (cd102)

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11
Q

vla-4 CD name and ligand

A

cd49a cd29 binds VCAM 1 (cd106)

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12
Q

what chemokine receptor is expressed by naive T cells and which chemokines bind this and drive lymph node homing?

A

CCR7, binds CCL 19 & 21; dendritic cells activated by microbes also express CCR7 to home to the same area of the lymph node as the naive t cells

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13
Q

which chemokine receptor is expressed by naive B cells? And what chemokines bind it?

A

CXCR5 binds CXCL13 (produced only in follicles of FDC)

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14
Q

what surface markers are expressed by hematopoietic stem cells?

A

CD34 and ckit

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15
Q

what is IL-7R CD? And what does it do?

A

CD127; expressed in naive T cells and memory T cells to promote migration to inflamed tissues

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16
Q

cd27 is marker of what

A

memory b cells

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17
Q

IL2-R; CD name and function? waht cells is it primarily expressed on?

A

cd25; t cell activation marker; highly expressed on effector or activated T cells (not on naive or memory T cells)

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18
Q

cd45RA

A

naive T cells

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19
Q

cd45RO

A

memory T cells

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20
Q

essential cytokines for naive B and T cell survival

A

BAFF and IL7, respectively. defects lead to CVId and scid

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21
Q

which selectin is imp for naive B and T cells to migrate through the high endothelial venues into lymph node?

A

L selectin

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22
Q

what are integrins important for?

A

cell to cell binding

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23
Q

what are the coreceptors for HIV

A

CCR5 and CXCR4

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24
Q

eotaxin (other name) and binds to what receptor

A

aka CCL11 and binds CcR3

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25
Q

IL8 (other name) and function

A

aka CXCL8- important for neutrophil recruitment

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26
Q

IP10 (other name) and function

A

aka CXCL10; important for t cell recruitment

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27
Q

what is important for rolling, activation and stable adhesion of leukocytes

A

selectins bind, chemokine bindinf activate the integrins (to high affinity state), and integrins bind for right adhesion, which allows for migration through endothelium.

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28
Q

where is MAdCAM1 important?

A

in MALT tissue like Peyers patches. helps with naive T cell homing.

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29
Q

TLR for bacterial lipopeptides

A

TLR1:TLR2 & TLR2:TLR6

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30
Q

TLR for peptidoglycan

A

TLR2

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31
Q

LPS

A

TLR4

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32
Q

flagellin

A

TLR5

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33
Q

dsRNA

A

TLR3 (endosomal)

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34
Q

ssRNA

A

TLR7 & TLR8 (endosomal)

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35
Q

cpgDNA

A

TLR9

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36
Q

what makes up TLR structure?

A

leucine rich repeat motifs, cysteine rich flanking domain with TIR (tolllike IL-1 receptor) domain

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37
Q

UNC-93B

A

protein in endoplasmic reticulum that assists localization and function of endosomal TLRs (3,7,8,9). deficiency leads to susceptibility to viral infections, especially HSV encephalitis

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38
Q

major transcription factors activated by TLR signaling

A

NFkB & AP-1 (transcribes TNF, IL-1, CCL2, CXCL8, and E-selectin); IRF3 & IRF7 (transcribes type 1 interferons)

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39
Q

what are the cytosolic receptors involves in the innate immune response?

A

NOD like receptors, RIG-like receptors and cytosolic DNA receptors

40
Q

what innate immune response may be important in GI pathogens (h pylori, Listeria) and possibly chrohns when polymorphisms are present?

A

NOd1 and NOD2

41
Q

gain of function of NOd2 receptor and signaling

A

Blau’s syndrome

42
Q

NK cell marker

A

CD56; CD3-; CD16

43
Q

anti-p40

A

blocks IL12 and IL23; approved for IBD and psoriasis

44
Q

examples of Ig superfamily proteins

A

Ig, TCR, class I & II MHC, CD4, CD28, B7.1 & B7.2; ICAM1, KIR, IL1R

45
Q

which antibody isotypes contain 4 tandem Ig domains?

A

IgM and IgE

46
Q

how many peptides can an MHC I and MHC II binding cleft accomodate

A

8-11 & 10-30, respectively

47
Q

coreceptor for B cell receptor

A

complement receptor 2 (CR2/CD21)

48
Q

what makes up a TCR complex?

A

TCR a; b chain, zeta chain, CD3 yE heterodimer and CD3 dE heterodimer

49
Q

NFAT is required for genes encoding IL2, IL4, TNF

A

IL2, IL4, TNF

50
Q

ctla 4

A

cd152 -inhibitor of T cell signaling (higher affinity for cd28 than b7 proteina (CD80 & 86)

51
Q

common y (gamma) chain receptor cd nomenclatire and cytokines

A

CD132; IL2, 4, 7, 9, 15, 21 (subgroup of type I receptors utilizing jak-stat signaling)

52
Q

GM-CSF receptor fam

A

utilized common B chain (cd131); GM CSF, IL3 & 5

53
Q

what are the transcription factors that commit a developing lymphocyte to the T cell lineage?

A

Notch1 and gata3

54
Q

transcription factors for B cell development?

A

EBF, E2A, pax-5

55
Q

bcl-2 & bcl-xl

A

anti-apoptotic protein; promotes t cell survival

56
Q

which cytokines are important for maintaining long-lived memory T cell populations

A

IL7 and IL15

57
Q

cd27

A

IL7 receptor memory surface marker

58
Q

VLA4, VLA5 and CD44

A

integrins highly expressed on T lymphocytes and bind to fibronectin and hyaluronan to be retained at an extravascular site in the context of infection

59
Q

chemokine receptors and unregulated ligands for what are important for the Th1 response?

A

cxcR3, ccR5 ; keep TH1 cells abundant at sites of infection. unregulated ligand from CD4 T cells for e-selectin and p-selectin (expressed on endothelial cells).

60
Q

chemokine receptors for Th2 response

A

CCR3, CCR4, CCR8 (expressed by helminth infections and allergic rxns)

61
Q

chemokine receptor for Th17 and chemokine ligand?

A

CCR6 and CCL20; expressed during bacterial and fungal infections

62
Q

which chemokine is responsible for naive B cells migrating to the follicles of lymphoid tissue?

A

CXCL13, secreted mainly by follicular dendritic cells

63
Q

What is the receptor for CXCL14 on naive B cells?

A

CXCR5

64
Q

unique phenotypes of T follicular helper cells (guess what I’m thinking) ;)

A

express high levels of CXCR5, ICOS, PD-1, IL21 and the transcription factor Bcl6

65
Q

x-linked lymphoproliferative syndrome

A

mutation in SAP (signaling molecule) important in T follicular helper cells). defect in antibody and cytotoxic T cell response.

66
Q

IL21

A

defining cytokine for T follicular helper cells. critical for terminal center development

67
Q

which cytokines promote isotype switching to IgA

A

TGFb, APRIL, BAFF; TACI is the gene that encodes the receptor for these cytokines

68
Q

FCyRI; CD and function

A

CD64- high affinity receptor for IgG subtypes for phagocytic cells

69
Q

FcyRIIb ; CD and function

A

CD32-inhibitory Fc receptor, responsible for Ab feedback; also IVIG may upregulate this receptor causing the B cell inflammatory response to be suppressed (i.e. the anti inflammatory effect)

70
Q

FcyRIIIa; CD and function

A

cd16; mediates binding for antibody dependent cell mediated cytotoxicity; expressed on NK cells

71
Q

paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

A

deficiency in DAF or CD59, which are regulatory proteins of complement ; this gene mutation is acquired, not inherited in hematopoietic cells

72
Q

What does properidin stabilize?

A

C3bBb complex of alternative pathway, i.e. activates complement

73
Q

What does factor H do?

A

inhibits Binding of Factor B to C3b (only inhibits alternative pathway)

74
Q

What specifically does C1 Inh bind to?

A

C1s2C1r2, displacing them from C1q

75
Q

What does Factor I do?

A

cleaves C3b (C4b); regulator of complement

76
Q

What inhibits the formation and/or binding of the terminal MAC complex?

A

CD59 and factor S

77
Q

more than 50% of patients with C1q, C2 and C4 deficiencies develop what additional disease?

A

SLE

78
Q

which of the complement deficiency leads to risk of pyogenic infections.

A

C3, highlighting its importance in opsonozation and phagocytosis; C2 and C4 deficiency does not typically lead to large increased susceptibility to infections; deficiency of properidin and Factor D can result in increased susceptibility to pyogenic infections

79
Q

factor H deficiency is associate with what condition?

A

macular degeneration; HELLP (polymorphisms); also atypical HUS

80
Q

CR3 and CR4 deficiency

A

mutations in B chain of CD18, shared by the CD11CD18 integrin family; results in LAD and risk for pyogenic infections

81
Q

What can GP41 on HIV bind that may make it more pathogenic?

A

Factor H (steals inhibitory action on complement); HIV also incorporates DAF and CD59 as complement regulatory proteins

82
Q

major gut homing integrin on B and T lymphocytes

A

a4b7, which binds to madcam-1 (on endothelium in lamina propria). monoclonal ab to a4 chain has been trailed to treat IBD

83
Q

gut homing chemokine and receptor

A

CCL25 produced by intestinal epithelial cells binds to CCR9 on B and T lymphocytes

84
Q

major cytokine required for IgA isotype switching in the gut

A

TGFb

85
Q

HLA phenotypes associated with Celiac

A

HLA DQ2 and DQ8

86
Q

phenotypic markers of Treg cells

A

CD25 (IL-2Ra) high; foxp3 high; ctla4 high; il7r (cd127) LOW

87
Q

graft between individuals of the same species that are genetically different.

A

allograft

88
Q

graft between individuals of a different species

A

xenograft

89
Q

FK506

A

tacrolimus- binds to calcinuerin and inhibits NFAT from going to nucleus to transcribe IL2, which is necessary for T cells.

90
Q

rapamycin

A

sirolimus-binds to FKBP, but instead of binding calcinuerin, it binds mTOR and inhibits production of proteins that normally promote T cell survival and proliferation

91
Q

What adhesion molecules are important for eosinophil migration? chemokine?

A

express E-selectin and VCAM1 (the ligand for VLA-4); eotaxin is the chemokine (CCL11) which is produced by epithelial cells and binds to CCR3 which is constitutively expressed on eos

92
Q

cause of LAD I

A

mutation in B chain of integrins (CD11aCD18 - LFA-1; cd11bcd18- Mac-1; cd11cCD18- p150,95)

93
Q

LAD2

A

defect in sialyl Lewis X, which binds to E selectin and P selectin in endothelium; mutation in GDP-fucose transporter, also contributes to Bombay phenotype; associated with mental retardation

94
Q

LAD3

A

mutation in KINDLIN3; interferes with inside-out signaling; can have increased bleeding in patients

95
Q

Src family kinases

A

Fyn Lck, Lyn

96
Q

coreceptor For HIV

A

CCR5 (expressed on Macs) and CXCR4 (expressed on T cells)

97
Q

patients with a mutation in this receptor gene are resistant to HIV infection

A

CCR5

Abbas (1 decks)

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