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ABA Advanced Keywords > ABA Advanced Keywords > Flashcards

ABA Advanced Keywords Flashcards

1
Q

statistical test that compares categorical data; labels rather than numbers

A

Chi square

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2
Q

statistical test that compares 3 or more means

A

ANOVA

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3
Q

statistical test that compares 2 means of same study subjects at 2 different different times

A

paired t-test

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4
Q

statistical test that compares 2 means of 2 different study subject groups

A

unpaired t-test

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5
Q

statistical test that compares 2 means

A

t-test

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6
Q

musculocutaneous: motor

A

arm flexion

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7
Q

musculocutaneous: sensory

A

lateral forearm

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8
Q

median nerve: motor

A

lateral deviation of wrist, grip of thumb/index/middle finger

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9
Q

median nerve: sensory

A

medial palm, including thumb/index/middle fingers

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10
Q

ulnar nerve: motor

A

medial deviation of wrist, grip of 4th/5th digits

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11
Q

ulnar nerve: sensory

A

lateral aspect of hand including 4th/5th digits

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12
Q

radial nerve: motor

A

arm/wrist extension

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13
Q

radial nerve: sensory

A

extensor surfaces of arm/hand

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14
Q

initial dose of dantrolene for MH

A

2.5 mg/kg

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15
Q

causes of increased SID

A
  • dehydration
  • chloride loss (aggressive NG sxn)
  • “increase in unmeasured ions”
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16
Q

causes of decreased SID

A
  • free water excess
  • excessive normal saline
  • severe diarrhea
  • lactic acidosis, DKA
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17
Q

components of qSOFA score

A
  1. RR > 22
  2. AMS
  3. SBP < 100
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18
Q

TEG: treatment for prolonged R

A

FFP

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19
Q

TEG: treatment for prolonged K

A

cryo

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20
Q

TEG: treatment for decreased MA

A

platelets

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21
Q

TEG: treatment for teardrop configuration

A

antifibrinolytics

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22
Q

amount and pressure of full O2 tank

A

700 L at 2,200 psi

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23
Q

amount and pressure of full nitrous tank

A

1,590 L at 750 psi

-constant psi until 3/4 empty, so doesn’t start falling until <400L gas remain

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24
Q

How do you know how much nitrous is left?

A

must weigh cylinder

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25
Q

lab values associated with hyperparathyroidism

A

non-anion gap metabolic acidosis

  • hyperchloremia
  • renal bicarb loss (low bicarb on labs)
  • high Ca
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26
Q

effect on oxyHgb dissoc. curve: alkalosis

A

curve shifts left (tighter)

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27
Q

effect on oxyHgb dissoc. curve: hypothermia

A

curve shifts left (tighter)

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28
Q

effect on oxyHgb dissoc. curve: decreased 2,3-DPG

A

curve shifts left (tighter)

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29
Q

effect on oxyHgb dissoc. curve: carboxyHgb

A

curve shifts left (tighter)

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30
Q

effect on oxyHgb dissoc. curve: methemoglobin

A

curve shifts left (tighter)

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31
Q

effect on oxyHgb dissoc. curve: acidosis

A

curve shifts right (offloads easier)

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32
Q

effect on oxyHgb dissoc. curve: hyperthermia

A

curve shifts right (offloads easier)

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33
Q

effect on oxyHgb dissoc. curve: fetal Hgb

A

curve shifts left (tighter)

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34
Q

effect on oxyHgb dissoc. curve: increased 2,3-DPG

A

curve shifts right (offloads easier)

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35
Q

effect on oxyHgb dissoc. curve: hypercarbia

A

curve shifts right (offloads easier)

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36
Q

morphine equivalents: intrathecal to epidural

A

1 mg intrathecal = 10 mg epidural

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37
Q

morphine equivalents: epidural to IV

A

1 mg epidural = 10 mg IV

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38
Q

morphine equivalents: IV to PO

A

1 mg IV = 3 mg PO

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39
Q

hemophilia A affects factor __

A

hemophilia A = factor VIII

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40
Q

hemophilia B affects factor __

A

hemophilia B = factor IX

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41
Q

name the four predictors of MG postop resp failure

A
  1. dz duration > 6 yrs
  2. pyridostigmine daily dose > 750 mg
  3. FVC < 2.9
  4. other chronic lung dz
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42
Q

LAD:

  • what part of heart affected
  • what leads affected
A
  • anterior, anteroseptal

- leads V1-6

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43
Q

LCx:

  • what part of heart affected
  • what leads affected
A
  • lateral, posterior wall

- leads 1, AVL, V5-6

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44
Q

RCA:

  • what part of heart affected
  • what leads affected
A
  • inferior, midseptal

- leads II, III, AVF

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45
Q

harsh systolic murmur heard using diaphragm at 2nd/3rd intercostal space when pt is supine; may disappear during inspiration

A

pulmonic stenosis

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46
Q

low holosystolic or mid-systolic decrescendo murmur heard during inspiration with diaphragm at L sternal border at 3rd interspace

A

tricuspid regurg

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47
Q

continuous machine-like murmur heard best at L upper sternal border

A

PDA

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48
Q

low-pitched diastolic rumble best heard over PMI during exhalation

A

mitral stenosis

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49
Q

blowing pan diastolic murmur heard best at L/R sternal borders at 3rd/4th intercostal interspace while pt sitting up and leaning forward; use diaphragm

A

aortic regurg

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50
Q

harsh systolic ejection murmur, can radiate to carotids

A

aortic stenosis

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51
Q

CRPS associated with previous minor injury

A

CRPS I

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52
Q

CRPS associated with previous nerve injury

A

CRPS II

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53
Q

borders of femoral triangle

A 
superior = inguinal ligament
medial = adductor longus
lateral = sartorius (if sartorius twitch only, move needle laterally)
54
Q

where do most myxomas arise from

A

left atrium (70%)

55
Q

pacer indications

A
  • second degree type II AV block
  • third degree block
  • symptomatic brady
  • refractory SVT
56
Q

CVP waveform: loss of a wave

A

afib

57
Q

CVP waveform: canon a wave

A

AV dissociation

58
Q

CVP waveform: tall c and v waves, loss of x descent

A

tricuspid regurg

59
Q

CVP waveform: tall a and v waves, minimal y descent

A

tricuspid stenosis

60
Q

CVP waveform: tall a and v waves, steep x and y descent, M or W config

A

RV ischemia, pericardial constriction

61
Q

CVP waveform: exaggerated X descent, attenuated y descent

A

tamponade

62
Q

best lead for detecting P waves, arrhythmias

A

lead II

63
Q

most sensitive lead for MI detection

A

V4

64
Q

minimum inflation of tourniquet

A

systolic + 50

65
Q

lab changes after 3 days at high altitude

A
  • resp alkalosis
  • PaO2 50-65
  • bicarb loss in CSF after 2-4 days
66
Q

local anes administration: order of most to least systemic absorption

A

IV > tracheal > intercostal > caudal > epi > brachial plexus > femoral/sciatic > subQ

67
Q

What reverses dabigatran (NOAC)?

A

idarucizumab

68
Q

Name the 3 nerve blocks/locations required for awake intubation

A
  1. glossopharyngeal = palatoglossal folds
  2. superior laryngeal = injection at horn of hyoid, or pledget in pyriform sinus
  3. recurrent laryngeal = transtracheal injection
69
Q

possible causes of increased peak pressure, normal plateau pressure

A

kinking
plugging
bronchospasm

70
Q

possible causes of increased peak pressure, increased plateau pressure

A 
tension pneumo
atelectasis
pulm edema
pneumonia
bronchial intubation
71
Q

causes/indications of distributive shock

A

due to decreased SVR: septic shock, anaphylaxis, neurogenic shock
- usually decreased CVP, decreased or normal CO, increased PAOP

72
Q

what two drugs can improve SSEPs

A
  1. etomidate

2. ketamine

73
Q

what’s the main problem with hydroxyethyl starches

A

coagulopathy:

  • dilution
  • reduced factor VIII, vWF
  • reduced glycoprotein IIb/IIIa
74
Q

labs seen with hyperaldosteronism

A

high Na, low K, reduced renin

-tx: cortisol, K repletion

75
Q

EKG findings with hypoK

A
  • prolonged PR interval, incr P wave amplitude
  • ST depression
  • T wave flattening/inversion
  • prominent U waves
76
Q

lung resection postop resp risk assessment components and cutoffs

A
  1. O2 usage: VO2 max > 15 mL/kg/min
  2. spirometry: predicted postop FEV1 < 30%
  3. O2 delivery: DLCO < 40%
77
Q

If lung resection postop resp risk assessment doesn’t meet criteria, what can you do?

A

consider split function testing (to see which lung contributes more)
- occlusion of PA to lung being resected must result in PAs < 35 or PaO2 > 45

78
Q

issues with old blood after storage

A
  • excess H+, K+

- progressively less 2,3-DPG, so has less O2-releasing capacity

79
Q

main mechanism of acupuncture analgesia (in theory)

A

stimulation of type I/II afferent nerves or A-delta fibers in muscles => send impulses to anterolateral tract of cord => release of enkephalin, dynorphin
- prevents pain messages from ascending in spinothalamic tract

80
Q

What are the 3 types of von Willebrand dz? Anything special about them?

A

types 1-3, with 3 being worst (total deficiency; recessive)

type 2b: desmopressin will cause drop in plts, so use factor concentrate to tx preop instead

81
Q

treatment for cyanide tox

A

1st. hydroxycobalamin (FIRST), then
- sodium thiosulfate (sulfur donor; can excrete via kidneys)
- amyl nitrate: converts Hgb => metHgb that binds CN
- bicarb to help with acidosis

82
Q

lab values with cyanide tox

A
  • anion gap metabolic acidosis

- increased PaO2, SvO2 (can’t use the O2 present)

83
Q

What can happen with high dose NTP

A

cyanide tox:

  • normal ferrous (Fe2+) iron in RBCs => ferric (Fe3+)
  • SNP becomes unstable with extra electron, so breaks into 5 CN- molecules
  • inactivates cytochrome oxidase => stops oxidative phosphorylation (so you’re in anaerobic resp)
84
Q

Indications for dialysis

A 
Acidemia
Electrolytes
Ingestions
Overload
Uremia
85
Q

Name some conditions that cause reduced FRC

A 
Pregnancy
Ascites, Advanced age
Neonates
GA
Obesity
Supine
86
Q

What issue does echothiophate cause?

A

inhibits butyrylcholinesterase

- sux lasts longer

87
Q

What happens to MAC at advanced age?

A

after age 40, MAC decreases 6% per decade

88
Q

initial treatment of airway fire

A

First: extubate + stop flow of gases at same time

  1. remove flammable materials from airway
  2. saline in airway
89
Q

Tx for long QT syndrome issues

A
  • IV mag
  • replace K, Ca
  • avoid amiodarone
90
Q

umbilical _______ gas: assesses maternal side

umbilical _______ gas: assesses fetal side

A

umbilical venous = assesses maternal side

umbilical arterial gas = assesses fetal side

91
Q

what happens to protein C in pregnancy

A

(c)resistance to protein C

92
Q

what happens to protein S in pregnancy

A

decreaSsssssed level of protein S

93
Q

What factors increase with pregnancy?

A

Hypercoagulable, so decreased PT/APTT

  • fibrinogen
  • factors VII, IX, X, XII, vWF
94
Q

What factors decrease with pregnancy?

A
  • factor XI
  • factor XIII
  • antithrombin 3
  • tPA
95
Q

What are the four parts of SIRS

A
  1. temp >38 or <36
  2. HR > 90
  3. RR > 20 or PaCO2 < 32
  4. WBC > 12,000 or < 4,000
96
Q

What pulm measurements are generally unchanged in elderly?

A
  1. TLC

2. PaCO2

97
Q

most common bugs associated with later VAP

A

late VAP is > 72 hrs after tubing = more virulent

  • MRSA
  • Pseudomonas
  • Acinetobacter
98
Q

Name some risk factors for VAP

A
  • paralytics
  • witnessed aspiration
  • enteral feeding
  • prolonged intubation
  • extremes of age
99
Q

What’s the WHO analgesic ladder for cancer pain?

A
  1. non opioid +/- adjuvant
  2. weak opioid for mild/mod pain (tramadol, codeine)
  3. strong opioid for moderate/severe pain
100
Q

What’s the point of the Cochrane collaboration?

A

conducts systematic reviews and meta-analyses of healthcare interventions/diagnostic tests

101
Q

What does it mean to quench MRI?

A

loss of superconductivity + release of He gas

  • MCC: intentional shutdown for life-threatening emergency
  • if tube is blocked/disconnected, lethal amts of helium can escape into scanner
102
Q

What metals are safe for MRI?

A
  • aluminum

- brass

103
Q

What nerves are covered with popliteal block, and what is your goal?

A

tibial > common peroneal

  • tibial: plantar flexion, inversion
  • peroneal: dorsiflexion, foot eversion
104
Q

If doing a pop block and get foot eversion, what do you do?

A

redirect medial (you’re getting common peroneal instead)

105
Q

If doing a pop block and get foot semimembranosus twitch, what do you do?

A

redirect lateral

106
Q

If doing a pop block and get local biceps femoris twitch, what do you do?

A

redirect medial

107
Q

____: can be missed in axillary block, but can supplement medial to brachial artery in antecubital fossa

A

median nerve

108
Q

_____: runs lateral to biceps tendon in antecubital fossa

A

radial nerve

109
Q

SSEPs monitor what part of spinal cord?

A

Dorsal columns

110
Q

MEPs monitor what part of spinal cord?

A

Corticospinal tract

111
Q

____ = primary determinant of local anesthetic potency

A

lipid solubility

112
Q

____ = primary determinant of speed of onset of local anesthetic

A

pKa

113
Q

What does higher frequency ultrasound probe mean in terms of:

  • resolution
  • depth
A

higher frequency probe = lower resolution, deeper penetration

114
Q

What happens to K+ for each 0.1 decrease in pH?

A

plasma K+ increases by 0.6

115
Q

Formula for how many mEq sodium are needed to correct a deficit

A

Na+ dose = weight * 0.6 * (desired # - actual #)

116
Q

safe dose of epi per kg

A

5 mcg/kg

117
Q

What can you use in pts that need to go on bypass but have HIT type II (immune)?

A

Hirudin, bivalirudin

118
Q

What’s the p50 for normal adult Hgb?

A

25 mm Hg

119
Q

MOA argatroban

A

direct thrombin inhibitor

120
Q

MOA -irudins

A

direct thrombin inhibitors

121
Q

MOA abciximab

A

glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitors

122
Q

MOA eptifibatide

A

glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitors

123
Q

MOA tirofiban

A

glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitors

124
Q

MOA fondaparinux

A

anti-Xa antagonist

125
Q

MOA -xabans (apixaban, rivaroxaban)

A

anti-Xa antagonist (factor Xa inhibitors)

126
Q

Alpha-1 receptor activity

A 
Mydriasis 
BronchoC
VasoC
Uterine ctx 
GI/GU sphincter ctx 
Inhibition of insulin secretion and lipolysis
\+inotrope
127
Q

What adrenergic Rs are in the heart?

A

Alpha-1 Rs

Beta-1 Rs

128
Q

What do alpha-2 Rs do?

A

Inhibits adenylyl cyclase

At CNS level:
Sedation
Reduced sympathetic outflow
Peripheral vasoD

129
Q

What does stimulation of Beta-1 Rs do?

A

+chronotrope
+dromotrope
+inotrope

130
Q

What does stimulation of beta-2 Rs do?

A

BronchoD
VasoD
Uterine relax
Insulin release, lipolysis, glycogenolysis, gluconeogenesis

Basically opposite of alpha-1 stimulation

131
Q

MOA dabigatran

A

direct thrombin inhibitor

ABA Advanced Keywords (1 decks)

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