AANP PMHNP Flashcards

1
Q

Side effect of Trazodone?

A

Priapism
Explanation: Priapism is a prolonged and painful erection, a rare but serious side effect of Trazodone.

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2
Q

What lab test is required for Carbamazepine?

A

CBC
Explanation: A complete blood count (CBC) is needed to monitor for potential blood dyscrasias (like agranulocytosis or leukopenia).

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3
Q

What is the most appropriate lab test for a patient on Depakote (Valproic Acid)?

A

Liver Function Tests (LFTs)
Explanation: Depakote can cause liver toxicity, so monitoring LFTs is crucial.

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4
Q

What lab test should be done for a patient on Lithium?

A

Creatinine
Explanation: Lithium is nephrotoxic, so kidney function (via creatinine) must be monitored regularly.

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5
Q

What lab test is needed for a patient on Clozapine?

A

ANC (Absolute Neutrophil Count)
Explanation: Clozapine can cause agranulocytosis, so monitoring ANC helps detect this potentially life-threatening condition.

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6
Q

What is the first-line treatment for depression in adolescents?

A

Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT)
Explanation: CBT is effective and recommended as the first-line treatment for adolescent depression, often alongside medication if necessary.

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7
Q

What is Tardive Dyskinesia (TD)?

A

Involuntary repetitive movements
Explanation: TD involves repetitive, involuntary movements of the face, tongue, and limbs, commonly seen with long-term antipsychotic use.

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8
Q

What scale is used to assess Tardive Dyskinesia?

A

AIMS (Abnormal Involuntary Movement Scale)
Explanation: AIMS is a clinical tool used to evaluate the severity of involuntary movements characteristic of Tardive Dyskinesia.

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9
Q

What are the initial signs of Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS)?

A

Fever, altered mental status, muscle rigidity, and autonomic instability
Explanation: NMS is a life-threatening reaction to antipsychotic drugs, requiring immediate discontinuation of the medication.

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10
Q

What is the first-line medication for pediatric depression?

A

Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRIs)
Explanation: SSRIs like fluoxetine are the first-line medications for pediatric depression, often combined with therapy.

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11
Q

What is the difference between Sleep Terrors and Nightmares?

A

Sleep Terrors
Explanation: Sleep terrors involve extreme agitation, screaming, and fear during sleep, typically with no memory the next day, whereas nightmares occur during REM sleep and are remembered.

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12
Q

What is Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS)?

A

Life-threatening reaction to antipsychotics
Explanation: NMS involves muscle rigidity, fever, altered mental status, and autonomic dysfunction, requiring discontinuation of the antipsychotic and urgent care.

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13
Q

What medication is commonly associated with Extrapyramidal Symptoms (EPS)?

A

Antipsychotics
Explanation: Antipsychotic medications, particularly first-generation ones, can cause EPS, including tremors, rigidity, and bradykinesia.

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14
Q

What is the chemical secreted by the pineal gland to help with sleep?

A

Melatonin
Explanation: Melatonin regulates the sleep-wake cycle, promoting sleepiness during the night.

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15
Q

What is the primary symptom of Lewy Body Dementia?

A

Visual Hallucinations
Explanation: Visual hallucinations are a hallmark of Lewy Body Dementia, often appearing early in the disease progression.

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16
Q

What is the first FDA-approved drug for PTSD in children?

A

None yet FDA-approved specifically for PTSD in children.
Explanation: Currently, no medications have been approved specifically for pediatric PTSD, although SSRIs may be prescribed off-label.

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17
Q

What is the most important lab to monitor for a patient on Valproic Acid (Depakote)?

A

Liver Function Tests (LFTs)
Explanation: Depakote can cause hepatotoxicity, so LFTs must be monitored to assess liver health.

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18
Q

Which stage of Erikson’s psychosocial development is the 45-year-old struggling with if they feel dissatisfaction with their career and lack of meaningful contributions?

A

Generativity vs. Stagnation
Explanation: In midlife, individuals work through the challenge of contributing to society (generativity) or feeling stagnant and unproductive.

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19
Q

What legal precedent did Tarasoff vs. Regents of the University of California set?

A

Duty to warn and protect
Explanation: The case established the legal requirement for mental health professionals to warn potential victims if a patient poses a threat of harm.

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20
Q

What is the most appropriate response to a child who has symptoms of Conduct Disorder?

A

Interview parent, teacher, and child
Explanation: A thorough assessment, including input from parents, teachers, and the child, helps identify the extent of the behavior and possible interventions.

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21
Q

What is the first-line treatment for pediatric depression?

A

Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT)
Explanation: CBT is the preferred first-line treatment for pediatric depression. Medication like SSRIs can be considered if therapy alone is insufficient.

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22
Q

What is the most appropriate lab test for a patient with insomnia, anxiety, and jitteriness?

A

Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH)
Explanation: Thyroid disorders (e.g., hyperthyroidism) can cause symptoms like anxiety and jitteriness, so checking TSH is essential.

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23
Q

What is the key distinguishing factor between Acute Stress Disorder (ASD) and Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)?

A

Duration of symptoms
Explanation: ASD occurs within three days to four weeks following trauma, while PTSD is diagnosed if symptoms persist for more than a month.

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24
Q

Which of the following medications is most likely to cause sexual dysfunction?

A

Paroxetine (SSRI)
Explanation: SSRIs like paroxetine are known to cause sexual dysfunction, including decreased libido and difficulty achieving orgasm.

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25
What is the first-line treatment for OCD in children?
**SSRIs (Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors)** *Explanation: SSRIs are commonly used as first-line treatment for pediatric OCD, often alongside cognitive-behavioral therapy.*
26
What is a common side effect of the antipsychotic Risperdal?
**Weight Gain** *Explanation: Risperdal (risperidone) is associated with significant weight gain, which may be a concern for long-term use.*
27
What is the most appropriate response to a patient presenting with muscle rigidity, fever, and altered mental status after starting an antipsychotic?
**Discontinue the antipsychotic immediately** *Explanation: These are signs of Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS), a medical emergency requiring immediate cessation of the antipsychotic.*
28
What lab test should be prioritized when starting Amitriptyline in an elderly patient?
**EKG** *Explanation: Amitriptyline (a tricyclic antidepressant) can cause heart conduction issues, especially in older adults, so an EKG should be performed to monitor for arrhythmias.*
29
What is the most common cause of Extrapyramidal Symptoms (EPS)?
**Antipsychotic medications** *Explanation: Antipsychotics, particularly first-generation (e.g., haloperidol), are most commonly associated with EPS, which can include tremors, rigidity, and bradykinesia.*
30
What are the typical symptoms of Tardive Dyskinesia (TD)?
**Involuntary, repetitive facial movements** *Explanation: TD often involves facial movements such as tongue protrusion, lip smacking, and chewing movements. It can also affect other body parts.*
31
What is the most important lab for a patient on Valproic Acid (Depakote)?
**Liver Function Tests (LFTs)** *Explanation: Valproic acid can cause liver toxicity, so LFTs should be monitored regularly to assess liver function.*
32
What is a primary symptom of Lewy Body Dementia?
**Visual Hallucinations** *Explanation: Visual hallucinations are a hallmark symptom of Lewy Body Dementia, along with fluctuating cognitive abilities.*
33
What neurotransmitter is primarily involved in depression?
**Serotonin** *Explanation: Depression is often associated with imbalances in serotonin, although other neurotransmitters (dopamine, norepinephrine) can also play a role.*
34
What is the most important consideration when prescribing medications for a pregnant patient?
**Medication safety for the fetus** *Explanation: When prescribing for pregnant patients, medications must be assessed for potential teratogenic effects or harm to the developing fetus.*
35
What is the most appropriate treatment for a 15-year-old presenting with ADHD and depression?
**Stimulant (e.g., methylphenidate) + Antidepressant (e.g., fluoxetine)** *Explanation: Stimulants are first-line for ADHD, and SSRIs (like fluoxetine) are commonly used to treat depression in adolescents.*
36
What is the best strategy to solidify change in a healthcare workflow during the refreezing phase?
**Create a system for recognizing and rewarding adherence** *Explanation: In the refreezing phase of change management, it’s important to reward and recognize staff who successfully adopt new behaviors to reinforce the change.*
37
What is the most effective treatment for a patient with Acute Stress Disorder (ASD)?
**Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT)** *Explanation: CBT is effective for treating ASD, focusing on processing the trauma and developing coping strategies before it progresses to PTSD.*
38
What is the difference between Adjustment Disorder and PTSD?
**Duration of symptoms** *Explanation: Adjustment Disorder has a shorter duration (less than six months), while PTSD symptoms persist for longer than a month and often involve re-experiencing the trauma.*
39
Which of the following is a sign of Fetal Alcohol Syndrome (FAS)?
**Smooth philtrum** *Explanation: A smooth philtrum (absence of the groove above the upper lip) is a characteristic facial feature of FAS, along with growth deficits and developmental delays.*
40
What is the most important assessment tool for evaluating suicidal ideation?
**Columbia-Suicide Severity Rating Scale (C-SSRS)** *Explanation: The C-SSRS is a widely used tool for assessing the severity of suicidal ideation and behaviors.*
41
42
What is the chemical secreted by the pineal gland that helps with sleep?
**Melatonin** *Explanation: Melatonin is a hormone produced by the pineal gland that regulates sleep-wake cycles. It is often used to help with sleep disorders. *
43
What is the most common cause of Extrapyramidal Symptoms (EPS)?
**Antipsychotic medications** *Explanation: Antipsychotics, particularly first-generation medications like haloperidol, are most commonly associated with EPS, which can include tremors, rigidity, and bradykinesia.*
44
What is the primary goal of Motivational Interviewing (MI)?
**To enhance motivation for change** *Explanation: MI is a client-centered counseling style aimed at helping individuals resolve ambivalence and increase motivation to make positive changes.*
45
What is the most appropriate first-line treatment for Pediatric Bipolar Disorder?
**Mood Stabilizers (e.g., Lithium or Valproic Acid)** *Explanation: Mood stabilizers, such as lithium or valproic acid, are typically used to manage the manic and depressive episodes in pediatric bipolar disorder.*
46
What is the most common side effect of Lithium?
**Tremors*** Explanation: Lithium, a mood stabilizer, commonly causes hand tremors, especially at higher levels. Regular blood tests are needed to monitor lithium levels.*
47
What is the recommended washout period when switching from an MAOI to an SSRI?
**Two weeks** *Explanation: To avoid serotonin syndrome, a two-week washout period is recommended when switching from an MAOI (Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitor) to an SSRI (Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor). *
48
What is the most important lab test for a patient on Clozapine?
**Absolute Neutrophil Count (ANC)** *Explanation: Clozapine can cause agranulocytosis, a serious reduction in neutrophil count, so monitoring the ANC is essential before prescribing and during treatment.*
49
What is the most effective way to assess suicidal ideation in a patient?
**Ask directly about suicidal thoughts and behaviors** *Explanation: Directly inquiring about suicidal ideation allows the healthcare provider to assess the risk and intervene appropriately, ensuring patient safety. *
50
What is the primary distinction between Bulimia Nervosa and Anorexia Nervosa?
**Eating behavior and body weight** *Explanation: Bulimia involves cycles of bingeing and purging without significant weight loss, while anorexia is characterized by severe restriction of food intake and significantly low body weight. *
51
What are the key features of Conduct Disorder in children?
**Aggression, theft, destruction of property** *Explanation: Children with conduct disorder may exhibit antisocial behavior, aggression toward people and animals, and destruction of property. Early intervention is crucial for treatment.*
52
What is the first-line medication for ADHD in children?
**Stimulants** (e.g., Methylphenidate or Amphetamine) *Explanation: Stimulants are the most commonly prescribed and effective medications for managing symptoms of ADHD in children. *
53
What are the signs and symptoms of Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS)?
**Fever, muscle rigidity, altered mental status, autonomic instability** *Explanation: NMS is a potentially life-threatening condition caused by antipsychotic medications. Immediate intervention is required to discontinue the antipsychotic and manage the symptoms.*
54
What is the most common symptom of Lewy Body Dementia?
**Visual Hallucinations** *Explanation: Visual hallucinations are a hallmark feature of Lewy Body Dementia, often occurring early in the disease course, along with cognitive decline and motor symptoms.*
55
What is the most important intervention for a patient with schizophrenia showing signs of Extrapyramidal Symptoms (EPS)?
**Discontinue or adjust the antipsychotic medication** *Explanation: EPS, including tremors and rigidity, are side effects of antipsychotic medications. Reducing or switching medications can help alleviate these symptoms.*
56
What neurotransmitter imbalance is associated with Parkinson's Disease?
**Dopamine deficiency** *Explanation: Parkinson's Disease is caused by the degeneration of dopamine-producing neurons in the brain, leading to symptoms like tremors, rigidity, and bradykinesia.*
57
What is the primary feature of Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)?
**Recurrent, intrusive thoughts and repetitive behaviors** *Explanation: OCD is characterized by obsessions (persistent, intrusive thoughts) and compulsions (repetitive behaviors or mental acts performed to alleviate anxiety).*
58
What is the most common side effect of SSRIs in the elderly population?
**Cognitive impairment** *Explanation: SSRIs can cause cognitive side effects, including memory and concentration difficulties, particularly in the elderly.*
59
What is the primary function of the prefrontal cortex?
**Decision making, impulse control, and social behavior** *Explanation: The prefrontal cortex plays a crucial role in executive functions, including planning, reasoning, and controlling impulsive behavior.*
60
What is the most effective first-line therapy for PTSD in children?
**Trauma-Focused Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (TF-CBT)** *Explanation: TF-CBT is evidence-based and helps children process traumatic experiences, develop coping skills, and address the impact of trauma on their emotional well-being.*
61
What does the Tarrasoff ruling establish?
**Duty to warn and protect** *Explanation: The Tarrasoff case established the legal obligation of healthcare providers to warn potential victims and take necessary actions if a patient expresses intent to harm someone.*
62
What is the first-line treatment for Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD) in adults?
**SSRIs or SNRIs** Explanation: Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRIs) and Serotonin-Norepinephrine Reuptake Inhibitors (SNRIs) are considered first-line pharmacologic treatments for GAD due to their efficacy and safety profile.
63
What is the primary symptom of Anorexia Nervosa?
**Severe restriction of food intake and extreme weight loss** *Explanation: Anorexia nervosa is characterized by an intense fear of gaining weight, leading to self-imposed starvation and drastic weight loss. Psychological factors often play a significant role in the disorder.*
64
What assessment tool is commonly used to screen for alcohol use disorders?
**CAGE questionnaire** Explanation: The CAGE questionnaire (Cut down, Annoyed, Guilty, Eye-opener) is a widely used screening tool for alcohol use disorders. A score of 2 or more suggests a potential alcohol problem.
65
Which of the following is the most common side effect of Lithium?
**Tremors** Explanation: One of the most common side effects of Lithium, especially at higher blood levels, is tremors. Regular monitoring of blood levels is necessary to avoid toxicity.
66
What is the best method for managing medication adherence in patients with Schizophrenia?
**Long-acting injectable antipsychotics** Explanation: Long-acting injectable antipsychotics can improve adherence by reducing the need for daily pills and ensuring consistent medication levels, thereby helping manage schizophrenia effectively.
67
What is the main difference between Acute Stress Disorder (ASD) and Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)?
**Duration of symptoms** Explanation: ASD occurs within 3 days to 4 weeks after a traumatic event, whereas PTSD is diagnosed when symptoms persist for more than a month.
68
What neurotransmitter is most affected in patients with Alzheimer's Disease?
**Acetylcholine** Explanation: Alzheimer's disease is associated with a decrease in acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter involved in memory and learning. This deficit contributes to the cognitive decline observed in the disease.
69
What is the most appropriate treatment for a patient with Bipolar I Disorder during a manic episode?
**Mood stabilizers (e.g., Lithium, Valproic acid)** Explanation: Mood stabilizers are commonly used to treat manic episodes in Bipolar I Disorder. Antipsychotics can also be prescribed in severe cases.
70
What is the primary feature of Borderline Personality Disorder (BPD)?
**Instability in interpersonal relationships, self-image, and emotions** Explanation: Individuals with BPD experience intense mood swings, fear of abandonment, and difficulty maintaining stable relationships. Treatment includes psychotherapy, particularly Dialectical Behavior Therapy (DBT).
71
What is the most important safety measure when prescribing Benzodiazepines for anxiety?
**Monitoring for dependency and tolerance** Explanation: Benzodiazepines, while effective for short-term anxiety relief, can lead to dependence and tolerance if used long-term. They should be prescribed cautiously and monitored closely.
72
What are the signs of Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS)?
**Fever, muscle rigidity, altered mental status, autonomic dysfunction** Explanation: NMS is a life-threatening reaction to antipsychotic medications and requires immediate medical intervention, including discontinuation of the antipsychotic.
73
What is the first-line treatment for Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)?
**Trauma-Focused Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (TF-CBT)** Explanation: TF-CBT is considered the most effective evidence-based psychotherapy for treating PTSD. Medications like SSRIs can also be used as adjunctive treatments.
74
What is the main treatment for Parkinson's Disease?
**Dopaminergic medications (e.g., Levodopa)** Explanation: Levodopa is the primary treatment for Parkinson's disease. It increases dopamine levels in the brain to alleviate symptoms like tremors, bradykinesia, and rigidity.
75
What type of therapy is most commonly used for patients with Narcissistic Personality Disorder (NPD)?
**Psychodynamic therapy or Dialectical Behavior Therapy (DBT)** Explanation: NPD is often treated with psychotherapy to help patients address underlying self-esteem issues, and DBT can be helpful for managing emotional dysregulation.
76
What is the primary feature of a Panic Attack?
**Sudden onset of intense fear or discomfort** Explanation: A panic attack is characterized by intense physical symptoms (e.g., rapid heartbeat, shortness of breath) that peak within minutes and are often associated with overwhelming fear.
77
What is the first-line medication for treating Major Depressive Disorder (MDD) in adults?
**SSRIs (e.g., Sertraline, Fluoxetine)** Explanation: SSRIs are considered first-line treatment for MDD due to their efficacy and favorable side effect profile, including fewer anticholinergic effects compared to older antidepressants.
78
What is the most effective treatment for ADHD in adults?
**Stimulant medications** (e.g., Methylphenidate, Amphetamine) Explanation: Stimulant medications are the most effective treatment for adult ADHD. Non-stimulant options, like atomoxetine, may be considered for those who cannot tolerate stimulants.
79
What is the best way to assess and document the cognitive functioning of a patient with suspected dementia?
**Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE)** Explanation: The MMSE is a widely used screening tool to assess cognitive function, including orientation, memory, attention, language, and visual-spatial skills.
80
Which lab is essential to monitor for a patient on Valproic Acid?
**Liver Function Tests (LFTs)** Explanation: Valproic acid can affect liver function, so LFTs are routinely monitored to detect potential hepatotoxicity.
81
What are the main symptoms of Tardive Dyskinesia (TD)?
**Involuntary, repetitive movements of the face, tongue, and limbs** Explanation: TD is a late-onset side effect of antipsychotic medications, characterized by repetitive movements such as lip smacking, tongue protrusion, and limb twitching.
82
What is the most common cause of hyperthyroidism?
**Graves' Disease** Explanation: Graves' Disease is an autoimmune disorder that causes the thyroid to produce excess thyroid hormones, leading to hyperthyroidism.
83
Which neurotransmitter is primarily involved in the pathophysiology of Parkinson's Disease?
**Dopamine** Explanation: In Parkinson's disease, there is a significant depletion of dopamine in the brain, which affects movement control and leads to symptoms such as tremors, rigidity, and bradykinesia.
84
What is the main difference between Bipolar I and Bipolar II Disorder?
**Bipolar I involves manic episodes; Bipolar II involves hypomanic episodes.** Explanation: In Bipolar I, individuals experience full manic episodes, whereas in Bipolar II, the individual experiences hypomania (less severe mania) and depressive episodes.
85
What is the most important factor in preventing relapse of Major Depressive Disorder (MDD)?
**Long-term medication adherence** Explanation: Continuing medication after the initial depressive episode can significantly reduce the risk of relapse. Psychotherapy can also be a key part of long-term management.
86
What is the most common side effect of SSRIs (Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors)?
**Sexual dysfunction** Explanation: Sexual side effects, including decreased libido, delayed ejaculation, and anorgasmia, are common with SSRIs. These side effects can sometimes be managed by adjusting the dosage or switching to another medication.
87
Which of the following is the first-line treatment for Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)?
**Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT) and SSRIs** Explanation: CBT, specifically Exposure and Response Prevention (ERP), is the most effective form of therapy for OCD. SSRIs are also commonly used as a first-line pharmacological treatment.
88
What is the first-line treatment for Panic Disorder?
**Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT) and SSRIs** Explanation: CBT is the most effective therapeutic intervention for Panic Disorder. SSRIs are the first-line pharmacological treatment to reduce panic attacks and anxiety.
89
What is the most common side effect of antipsychotic medications, particularly in the first few months of treatment?
**Extrapyramidal Symptoms (EPS)** Explanation: EPS includes symptoms like tremors, rigidity, and bradykinesia. These symptoms are more common with first-generation antipsychotics but can also occur with second-generation antipsychotics.
90
Which antidepressant class is most commonly associated with causing sexual dysfunction?
**SSRIs (Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors)** Explanation: SSRIs, such as fluoxetine and sertraline, are frequently associated with sexual side effects, including reduced libido, difficulty achieving orgasm, and erectile dysfunction.
91
What is the key characteristic of a manic episode in Bipolar I Disorder?
**Elevated or irritable mood, increased energy, and impulsive behavior lasting for at least 1 week** Explanation: Manic episodes in Bipolar I involve a significant shift in mood and behavior, often resulting in impaired functioning or hospitalization due to the severity of symptoms.
92
What is the first-line medication for treating ADHD in children?
**Stimulants** (e.g., Methylphenidate, Amphetamines) Explanation: Stimulants are the most effective medications for treating ADHD in children, improving attention, impulse control, and hyperactivity.
93
What does the AIMS scale assess?
**Tardive Dyskinesia (TD)** Explanation: The Abnormal Involuntary Movement Scale (AIMS) is used to assess and monitor the severity of Tardive Dyskinesia, a side effect of long-term antipsychotic use.
94
What is a primary symptom of Conduct Disorder in children?
**Aggressive behavior toward people and animals** Explanation: Children with Conduct Disorder may display aggressive behavior, deceitfulness, theft, and a disregard for social norms and the rights of others.
95
Which class of medications is commonly prescribed to manage Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD) in both adults and children?
**SSRIs (Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors)** Explanation: SSRIs are effective for treating GAD in both adults and children. They help reduce anxiety symptoms by increasing serotonin levels in the brain.
96
What is the primary function of the amygdala in the brain?
**Regulation of emotions, particularly fear and anxiety** Explanation: The amygdala is key in processing emotions and is often involved in the body's response to perceived threats. It plays a significant role in fear, anxiety, and emotional memory.
97
What is the first-line treatment for Major Depressive Disorder (MDD) in adolescents?
**Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT)** Explanation: CBT is the most effective evidence-based psychotherapy for treating depression in adolescents. SSRIs can also be prescribed, but therapy is prioritized.
98
What is the most common cause of delirium in hospitalized patients?
**Infections** (e.g., urinary tract infections, pneumonia) Explanation: Infections are one of the most common causes of delirium in older hospitalized patients. Delirium can also be caused by metabolic disturbances, medications, or withdrawal.
99
What is the most important side effect to monitor for when prescribing Lithium for Bipolar Disorder?
**Kidney function **(e.g., Creatinine levels) Explanation: Lithium is renally excreted, so it is important to monitor kidney function (creatinine and eGFR) regularly to avoid toxicity, especially with prolonged use.
100
What is the recommended approach for managing patients with Alcohol Use Disorder (AUD)?
**Combination of psychotherapy** (e.g., CBT, Motivational Interviewing) and pharmacotherapy (e.g., Disulfiram, Naltrexone) Explanation: Treatment for AUD typically includes behavioral therapies combined with medications to reduce cravings, discourage alcohol use, or induce aversion.
101
What is the primary use of SSRIs (Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors)?
**First-line treatment for depression and anxiety disorders** Explanation: SSRIs increase serotonin levels in the brain, which helps regulate mood and anxiety. Common SSRIs include fluoxetine, sertraline, and escitalopram. They're often prescribed for depression, generalized anxiety disorder, and panic disorder.
102
What is a major side effect of SSRIs?
**Sexual dysfunction** Explanation: SSRIs commonly cause sexual side effects like decreased libido, delayed ejaculation, and anorgasmia. These side effects can be bothersome but are usually manageable by adjusting dosage or switching medications.
103
Which atypical antipsychotic has the least risk for causing weight gain?
**Aripiprazole (Abilify)** Explanation: Aripiprazole is an atypical antipsychotic with a lower risk of weight gain and metabolic side effects compared to other atypical antipsychotics like Olanzapine and Clozapine.
104
What is the first-line treatment for Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD)?
**SSRIs and SNRIs (Serotonin-Norepinephrine Reuptake Inhibitors)** Explanation: SSRIs like sertraline or SNRIs like venlafaxine are first-line treatments for GAD. These medications help reduce excessive anxiety by increasing serotonin and norepinephrine in
105
What is the primary function of benzodiazepines?
**Short-term management of anxiety, insomnia, and muscle spasms** Explanation: Benzodiazepines (e.g., lorazepam, diazepam) act by enhancing GABA, an inhibitory neurotransmitter, resulting in sedative, anxiolytic, and muscle-relaxing effects. They are typically used short-term due to the risk of dependence.
106
What is the risk of using benzodiazepines long-term?
**Dependence and withdrawal** Explanation: Long-term use of benzodiazepines can lead to tolerance, dependence, and withdrawal symptoms upon discontinuation. They are not recommended for long-term management of anxiety disorders.
107
What is the primary use of lithium in psychiatry?
**Mood stabilization in Bipolar Disorder** Explanation: Lithium is a gold-standard treatment for Bipolar Disorder, particularly for preventing manic episodes. It has mood-stabilizing effects by affecting neurotransmitter systems, especially serotonin and dopamine.
108
What is the therapeutic range for lithium?
**0.6 to 1.2 mEq/L** Explanation: Lithium has a narrow therapeutic window. Levels above 1.5 mEq/L can lead to toxicity, with symptoms such as tremors, confusion, and seizures. Regular monitoring of lithium levels is essential.
109
Which class of medications is used to treat Parkinsonism induced by antipsychotic medications?
**Anticholinergics **(e.g., Benztropine) Explanation: Anticholinergics like benztropine can help alleviate Parkinsonism (tremors, rigidity) caused by antipsychotic medications. These medications balance acetylcholine levels in the brain.
110
What is the first-line medication for treating Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)?
**SSRIs** (e.g., fluoxetine, sertraline) Explanation: SSRIs, particularly fluoxetine and sertraline, are first-line treatments for OCD. These medications reduce the frequency and severity of obsessive thoughts and compulsive behaviors.
111
Which medication is most commonly used for treatment-resistant schizophrenia?
**Clozapine** Explanation: Clozapine is an atypical antipsychotic used in treatment-resistant schizophrenia. It has a unique mechanism of action and can be highly effective, but it requires regular monitoring for side effects, including agranulocytosis.
112
What is the black-box warning for Clozapine?
**Agranulocytosis (low white blood cell count**) Explanation: Clozapine carries a black-box warning due to the risk of agranulocytosis, a severe decrease in white blood cells, which requires regular monitoring of the patient’s white blood cell count.
113
Which atypical antipsychotic is most commonly associated with causing significant weight gain?
**Olanzapine** Explanation: Olanzapine is one of the atypical antipsychotics that can lead to substantial weight gain and metabolic changes, such as increased blood sugar and cholesterol levels, making it less ideal for patients with these concerns.
114
What is the primary use of Valproic Acid (Depakote) in psychiatry?
**Mood stabilization in Bipolar Disorder and anticonvulsant** Explanation: Valproic Acid is used for treating mania in Bipolar Disorder and is also an anticonvulsant for epilepsy. It works by increasing GABA activity in the brain, which has calming effects.
115
What is a common side effect of Valproic Acid?
**Liver toxicity** Explanation: Valproic Acid can cause liver toxicity, especially during the first 6 months of treatment. Liver function tests (LFTs) are monitored regularly to ensure safe use.
116
What is the first-line treatment for Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD) in children?
**Stimulants** (e.g., Methylphenidate, Amphetamine) Explanation: Stimulants are the most effective treatment for ADHD in children. They help increase dopamine and norepinephrine activity in the brain, which improves attention and impulse control.
117
What is a common side effect of stimulant medications used for ADHD?
**Decreased appetite and sleep disturbances** Explanation: Stimulants can decrease appetite and may cause difficulty sleeping. These side effects can often be managed by adjusting the timing or dose of the medication.
118
Which medication is commonly prescribed to treat Major Depressive Disorder (MDD) in elderly patients?
**SSRIs** (e.g., Sertraline, Escitalopram) Explanation: SSRIs are generally preferred for elderly patients with MDD due to their safety profile and lower risk of anticholinergic side effects compared to older antidepressants like TCAs (Tricyclic Antidepressants).
119
What is the primary use of Tricyclic Antidepressants (TCAs)?
**Treatment of depression, neuropathic pain, and insomnia** Explanation: TCAs, such as amitriptyline, are effective for depression and also used off-label to treat chronic pain and insomnia. However, they have a higher side effect profile than SSRIs and SNRIs.
120
Which class of antidepressants is associated with the lowest risk of sexual dysfunction?
**Atypical Antidepressants **(e.g., Bupropion) Explanation: Bupropion, an atypical antidepressant, is associated with a lower risk of sexual side effects compared to SSRIs and SNRIs. It is also used for smoking cessation.
121
What is Lithium primarily used for in psychiatry?
**Mood stabilization in Bipolar Disorder** Explanation: Lithium is a gold-standard treatment for Bipolar Disorder, especially for preventing manic episodes. It stabilizes mood by affecting neurotransmitter systems, primarily serotonin and dopamine.
122
What is the therapeutic range for Lithium?
**0.6 to 1.2 mEq/L** Explanation: Lithium has a narrow therapeutic window, meaning blood levels need to be carefully monitored. Levels higher than 1.5 mEq/L can lead to toxicity, which can be life-threatening.
123
What lab should be regularly monitored when a patient is on Lithium?
**Renal function (Creatinine), Thyroid function (TSH), and Lithium levels** Explanation: Regular monitoring of lithium levels is crucial to avoid toxicity. Kidney function should be checked due to the drug's renal excretion, and thyroid function should be monitored as Lithium can cause hypothyroidism.
124
What is the most common early sign of Lithium toxicity?
**Tremors** Explanation: Early signs of lithium toxicity include tremors, confusion, and gastrointestinal symptoms like nausea and vomiting. These signs can be subtle, so it's important to monitor closely.
125
What are common side effects of Lithium?
**Polyuria, Polydipsia, Tremors, Weight gain, Hypothyroidism** Explanation: Lithium can cause increased urination (polyuria) and excessive thirst (polydipsia). Other side effects include hand tremors, weight gain, and potential thyroid dysfunction (hypothyroidism).
126
What serious condition can result from severe Lithium toxicity?
**Nephrogenic Diabetes Insipidus (NDI)** Explanation: High levels of Lithium can damage the kidneys, leading to Nephrogenic Diabetes Insipidus, where the kidneys are unable to concentrate urine properly, causing excessive urination and thirst.
127
Which patients should avoid Lithium?
**Patients with kidney disease, heart disease, or thyroid disorders** Explanation: Lithium is cleared through the kidneys, so patients with renal dysfunction are at higher risk for toxicity. It can also exacerbate thyroid and heart conditions, so caution is needed in these populations.
128
What are signs of severe Lithium toxicity?
**Severe tremors, confusion, ataxia, seizures, and coma.** Explanation: Severe toxicity can present with neurological symptoms such as tremors, ataxia (lack of coordination), confusion, and even seizures or coma. This is a medical emergency requiring immediate intervention.
129
What should be done if a patient on Lithium presents with signs of toxicity?
**Discontinue Lithium and monitor closely, possibly requiring hospitalization** Explanation: If signs of toxicity appear, Lithium should be stopped immediately. The patient may need hospitalization for supportive care, intravenous fluids, and close monitoring of kidney function and electrolytes.
130
How does dehydration affect Lithium levels?
**Dehydration can increase Lithium levels and lead to toxicity** Explanation: Dehydration reduces kidney function, which can cause Lithium to build up in the blood to dangerous levels. Patients taking Lithium should be advised to maintain adequate hydration.
131
What is the effect of Sodium on Lithium levels?
**Low sodium levels (hyponatremia) can increase Lithium levels** Explanation: Lithium competes with sodium for renal clearance. If sodium levels drop, the kidneys may retain more Lithium, increasing the risk of toxicity. Patients should be advised to maintain consistent sodium intake.
132
What is a common complication of long-term Lithium use?
**Chronic kidney disease (CKD) and hypothyroidism** Explanation: Long-term use of Lithium can lead to renal damage, including Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD). It can also affect thyroid function, often resulting in hypothyroidism, which may require treatment with thyroid hormone replacement.
133
What is the first action if a patient on Lithium presents with symptoms of toxicity?
**Check Lithium blood levels immediately** Explanation: The first step is to check the Lithium levels in the blood to confirm if the patient is in the toxic range. If levels are high, further interventions, such as discontinuing Lithium and monitoring kidney function, are necessary.
134
What are the early warning signs of Lithium toxicity?
**Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, tremors, and confusion.** Explanation: Early symptoms of Lithium toxicity may include gastrointestinal distress (nausea, vomiting, diarrhea), as well as neurologic symptoms like tremors and confusion. Early detection is key to preventing severe toxicity.
135
What effect does Lithium have on pregnancy?
**Can cause teratogenic effects, especially in the first trimester.** Explanation: Lithium is classified as a Category D medication during pregnancy, meaning it has been shown to cause fetal harm, particularly cardiac defects (e.g., Ebstein's anomaly). It should be avoided during pregnancy unless absolutely necessary.
136
What should be monitored for a patient taking Lithium who develops a fever or infection?
**Lithium levels and kidney function.** Explanation: Infections or fever can increase the risk of dehydration, which in turn can increase Lithium levels. It's crucial to monitor for signs of toxicity and adjust the Lithium dose accordingly.
137
What is a major interaction when combining SSRIs with MAOIs?
**Serotonin Syndrome** Explanation: SSRIs (Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors) and MAOIs (Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors) can cause serotonin syndrome, a potentially life-threatening condition marked by agitation, hyperreflexia, high fever, and autonomic instability. These drugs should never be combined due to this risk.
138
What should be monitored when a patient on Lithium is prescribed a Diuretic (e.g., HCTZ)?
**Increased risk of Lithium toxicity** Explanation: Diuretics, especially thiazide diuretics like HCTZ, can reduce sodium levels (hyponatremia), leading to increased Lithium retention, which increases the risk of Lithium toxicity. Regular monitoring of Lithium levels and electrolytes is necessary.
139
How does St. John's Wort affect antidepressant medications?
**Can reduce the efficacy of SSRIs, SNRIs, and other antidepressants** Explanation: St. John's Wort is an herbal supplement that can induce the CYP450 system, potentially reducing the effectiveness of SSRIs and other antidepressants. This interaction can lead to decreased therapeutic levels of the medication.
140
What interaction occurs between Warfarin and SSRIs?
**Increased bleeding risk.** Explanation: SSRIs, particularly fluoxetine, paroxetine, and sertraline, can increase the anticoagulant effect of warfarin, leading to an increased risk of bleeding. Monitoring INR levels and adjusting the warfarin dose may be necessary.
141
What is the effect of combining Benzodiazepines with Alcohol?
**Increased risk of respiratory depression, sedation, and overdose.** Explanation: Both benzodiazepines and alcohol are CNS depressants. When combined, they synergistically depress the central nervous system, significantly increasing the risk of respiratory depression, sedation, and overdose.
142
How does Carbamazepine interact with oral contraceptives?
**Carbamazepine induces CYP450 enzymes, reducing the effectiveness of oral contraceptives.** Explanation: Carbamazepine is a potent CYP450 enzyme inducer, which can lower the plasma levels of oral contraceptives, increasing the risk of contraceptive failure. Alternate or additional contraceptive methods should be considered.
143
What happens when Lithium is combined with NSAIDs (e.g., Ibuprofen)?
**Increased risk of Lithium toxicity.** Explanation: NSAIDs can reduce renal clearance of Lithium, increasing the risk of Lithium toxicity. Patients on Lithium should use acetaminophen (Tylenol) instead of NSAIDs, or the Lithium dose may need to be adjusted.
144
What is the result of combining an MAOI with Tyramine-rich foods (e.g., aged cheese, red wine)?
**Hypertensive crisis** Explanation: MAOIs inhibit the breakdown of tyramine, which can accumulate when consuming tyramine-rich foods (like aged cheese or wine), leading to a hypertensive crisis characterized by severe hypertension, headaches, and possible stroke.
145
What happens when an SSRI is combined with a TCA (Tricyclic Antidepressant)?
**Increased risk of serotonin syndrome and cardiotoxicity.** Explanation: Combining SSRIs and TCAs can increase the risk of serotonin syndrome (due to excessive serotonin) and cardiotoxicity (because TCAs can affect cardiac conduction). Careful monitoring is necessary when combining these medications.
146
What is the interaction between Lithium and ACE inhibitors (e.g., Lisinopril)?
**Increased risk of Lithium toxicity.** Explanation: ACE inhibitors like lisinopril can reduce sodium levels (hyponatremia) and affect renal function, leading to increased Lithium retention. This raises the risk of Lithium toxicity, requiring careful monitoring of renal function and Lithium levels.
147
How does Clozapine interact with smoking?
**Smoking induces CYP1A2, increasing the metabolism of Clozapine.** Explanation: Cigarette smoke contains compounds that induce CYP1A2, an enzyme responsible for metabolizing Clozapine. This leads to a reduction in Clozapine levels, which could reduce its efficacy. Smoking cessation may require a dose adjustment.
148
What is the effect of combining Lithium with Sodium depletion (e.g., from excessive sweating)?
**Increased risk of Lithium toxicity.** Explanation: Sodium depletion, often caused by dehydration or excessive sweating, leads to increased Lithium retention by the kidneys, which can cause Lithium toxicity. Patients on Lithium should be advised to maintain normal fluid and electrolyte balance.
149
What happens when a patient on an SSRI takes a triptan (e.g., Sumatriptan) for migraines?
**Increased risk of serotonin syndrome.** Explanation: Both SSRIs and triptans increase serotonin levels in the brain. When combined, they can increase the risk of serotonin syndrome, a potentially life-threatening condition. Caution should be used, and alternatives should be considered for migraine management.
150
What is the interaction between Antipsychotics and Anticholinergic drugs (e.g., Benztropine)?
**Increased risk of anticholinergic side effects** (e.g., dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation) Explanation: Antipsychotics often have anticholinergic effects themselves, and combining them with additional anticholinergic drugs can increase the risk of anticholinergic side effects, such as dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, and urinary retention.
151
What is the primary focus of Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT) in children with anxiety?
**Identifying and challenging irrational thoughts** Explanation: In CBT for pediatric anxiety, the focus is on helping children identify negative or irrational thoughts and replace them with more realistic, balanced thinking. This approach helps manage anxiety symptoms by teaching coping mechanisms and problem-solving skills.
152
What is Play Therapy and why is it used in pediatric psychotherapy?
**Using play to help children express emotions and resolve conflicts.** Explanation: Play therapy allows children to express their feelings, fears, and experiences through play, a medium they can often understand better than words. It’s particularly effective for younger children who may not have developed the cognitive or verbal skills to articulate complex emotions.
153
What role does the therapeutic relationship play in pediatric psychotherapy?
**Building trust and providing a safe space for expression.** Explanation: A strong therapeutic alliance is critical in pediatric therapy, as children are often hesitant to open up about their feelings. A trusting relationship with the therapist provides a safe space where the child feels understood and supported, encouraging them to share their thoughts and concerns.
154
Which approach is often used for treating children with ADHD?
**Behavioral Therapy (BT) and parent training** Explanation: Behavioral therapy is effective for children with ADHD, focusing on reinforcing positive behaviors and reducing negative behaviors through rewards and consequences. Parent training is also crucial to teach parents effective techniques for managing symptoms and maintaining structure at home.
155
What is the first-line treatment for childhood depression?
**Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT)** Explanation: CBT is considered the first-line psychotherapy treatment for childhood depression because it helps children identify and challenge negative thinking patterns, promotes problem-solving skills, and builds coping strategies to manage their depression.
156
What is Trauma-Focused Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (TF-CBT) used for?
**Treating children and adolescents with trauma-related symptoms.** Explanation: TF-CBT is an evidence-based therapy for children and adolescents who have experienced trauma. It integrates cognitive-behavioral techniques with trauma-sensitive principles to help children process trauma, reduce symptoms of PTSD, and improve emotional regulation.
157
How does Family Therapy benefit children with psychological issues?
**Improves family dynamics and provides support for the child.** Explanation: Family therapy helps improve communication within the family, resolves conflicts, and promotes understanding of the child’s issues. Involving the family provides additional support for the child, creating a more conducive environment for therapy and overall recovery.
158
What is the main goal of Interpersonal Psychotherapy (IPT) for children?
**Improving social and communication skills** Explanation: IPT for children focuses on improving relationships with peers and family by addressing difficulties in social interactions and communication. The goal is to help children improve their interpersonal skills and resolve conflicts, which can alleviate emotional distress.
159
What is the role of Parental Involvement in pediatric psychotherapy?
**Key to reinforcing therapy outside of sessions.** Explanation: Parental involvement is crucial in pediatric psychotherapy, as it helps reinforce the strategies and skills learned in therapy at home. Parents may be involved in sessions or given specific assignments to support their child's progress in managing symptoms and applying coping mechanisms in real-life situations.
160
What are Common therapeutic techniques used in pediatric therapy for anger management?
**Relaxation techniques, cognitive restructuring, and emotional regulation training.** Explanation: In pediatric therapy for anger management, children learn relaxation techniques (e.g., deep breathing), cognitive restructuring (identifying triggers and changing thought patterns), and emotional regulation (recognizing and expressing emotions in appropriate ways).
161
What is Parent-Child Interaction Therapy (PCIT) used for?
Managing disruptive behaviors and improving parent-child relationships Explanation: PCIT is an evidence-based therapy designed to improve parent-child relationships and reduce disruptive behaviors, particularly in children with oppositional defiant disorder (ODD) and conduct disorder (CD). It focuses on improving communication, discipline, and positive reinforcement.
162
What is the role of Behavioral Modification in treating pediatric anxiety?
**Teaching children to change anxious behaviors through rewards and consequences.** Explanation: Behavioral modification uses reinforcements and consequences to encourage adaptive behaviors while discouraging anxious or avoidance behaviors. For example, a child might receive praise or a small reward for facing feared situations or managing anxiety successfully.
163
What is the typical focus of Cognitive Behavioral Play Therapy?
**Combining play and cognitive restructuring to address childhood disorders.** Explanation: Cognitive Behavioral Play Therapy (CBPT) blends play therapy techniques with CBT principles, allowing children to express their emotions and work on changing their thinking patterns. This can help treat conditions like anxiety, depression, and trauma in a child-friendly way.
164
How is DBT (Dialectical Behavior Therapy) adapted for children and adolescents?
**Incorporating mindfulness, emotional regulation, and distress tolerance skills.** Explanation: DBT for children and adolescents emphasizes the development of mindfulness, emotional regulation, and distress tolerance skills. It's often used for children with self-harming behaviors, suicidal ideation, and difficulties with emotional control, such as those seen in borderline personality traits or mood disorders.
165
What is a key aspect of pediatric psychotherapy for children with autism spectrum disorder (ASD)?
**Social skills training and communication support.** Explanation: For children with ASD, psychotherapy often focuses on social skills training to improve interactions with peers, communication support, and helping children develop coping strategies for sensory issues or social challenges. Therapy is often tailored to the child’s developmental level and individual needs.
166
What is the main goal of individual therapy?
**To help the patient gain insight into their issues and develop coping strategies** Explanation: The primary goal of individual therapy is to provide a safe space for the patient to explore personal issues, gain insight, and develop coping strategies or skills to manage emotions, behaviors, or mental health conditions on an individual basis.
167
What is the main therapeutic approach used in individual therapy?
**Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT) or Psychodynamic Therapy.** Explanation: CBT is often used in individual therapy to help clients identify and change negative thought patterns and behaviors, while Psychodynamic therapy explores the unconscious mind and past experiences to uncover underlying causes of current issues
168
What is the role of the therapist in individual therapy?
**To facilitate self-exploration, provide support, and offer insight into the client’s issues.** Explanation: In individual therapy, the therapist creates a supportive and non-judgmental space to help the client explore personal challenges, set goals, and develop effective coping mechanisms. The therapist also guides the process to ensure meaningful progress.
169
What is a primary benefit of family therapy?
**Improving communication and resolving conflicts within the family system** Explanation: Family therapy aims to enhance communication, resolve conflicts, and improve relationships within the family. It recognizes that mental health issues often affect family dynamics, and therapy helps families develop skills to support each other and create a healthier environment.
170
How does family therapy differ from individual therapy?
**Family therapy involves the entire family system, while individual therapy focuses on the individual’s experiences.** Explanation: In family therapy, the focus is on the family dynamic, communication, and patterns of behavior, whereas individual therapy focuses on the individual’s psychological needs and personal development. Family therapy includes all family members or significant others, whereas individual therapy is one-on-one.
171
172
What is the primary goal of Structural Family Therapy (SFT)?
**To restructure family interactions to promote healthier patterns.** Explanation: SFT, developed by Salvador Minuchin, focuses on restructuring family roles and interactions to improve family functioning. It helps families establish boundaries, redefine roles, and improve communication patterns to reduce dysfunctional behaviors.
173
What is a key technique in Strategic Family Therapy?
**Reframing and assigning tasks to change family dynamics** Explanation: Strategic Family Therapy involves identifying problematic family dynamics and using strategies like reframing (changing the way an issue is viewed) or assigning tasks (homework assignments) to encourage behavioral change within the family system.
174
What is the main objective of group therapy?
**To provide social support and promote self-awareness in a group setting** Explanation: The main goal of group therapy is to allow individuals to share their experiences, gain insight from others, and receive support in a group setting. It promotes self-awareness and the ability to learn new coping strategies through interaction with peers facing similar issues.
175
What is a common therapeutic approach used in group therapy?
**Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT) or Process-Oriented Therapy** Explanation: In group therapy, CBT may be used to focus on changing negative thought patterns within a group dynamic. Process-oriented therapy focuses on how group members interact, facilitating discussions that explore emotions, behaviors, and relationships in a supportive group environment.
176
How does group therapy help individuals with social skills?
**By providing opportunities to practice interpersonal interactions and receive feedback** Explanation: Group therapy offers a unique environment for individuals to practice social skills, engage in peer interactions, and receive feedback from both the therapist and other group members. This environment encourages self-reflection and allows participants to learn from others’ experiences.
177
What is the therapist’s role in group therapy? Back:
**To facilitate discussions, ensure the group remains focused, and provide guidance when necessary.** Explanation: The therapist in group therapy acts as a facilitator, encouraging discussion, ensuring all members have a chance to speak, and intervening if necessary to maintain a safe and respectful environment. The therapist also provides guidance and structure to keep the group focused on therapeutic goals.
178
What are some challenges in group therapy?
**Confidentiality issues, group dynamics, and resistance to sharing.** Explanation: In group therapy, challenges can include maintaining confidentiality within the group, managing negative group dynamics, and overcoming resistance from participants who may feel uncomfortable sharing personal issues in a group setting. These challenges require careful management by the therapist.
179
What is the main difference between family therapy and group therapy?
**Family therapy focuses on improving family dynamics, while group therapy involves a diverse group of individuals sharing similar issues.** Explanation: Family therapy specifically focuses on improving the relationships and communication within the family unit. In contrast, group therapy involves a group of individuals with common challenges (e.g., addiction, anxiety) sharing experiences and learning from one another.
180
How does family therapy help with children who have behavioral issues?
**By addressing family dynamics, improving communication, and teaching conflict resolution skills** Explanation: Family therapy can help children with behavioral issues by addressing underlying family dynamics that may contribute to the child’s behavior. It promotes open communication, improves problem-solving and conflict resolution skills, and helps families work together to support positive change.
181
What is the focus of Psychoeducational Group Therapy?
**Providing education and skills training to improve mental health management.** Explanation: Psychoeducational group therapy focuses on educating participants about their conditions (e.g., depression, anxiety) and providing them with practical skills to manage symptoms. The focus is on teaching coping strategies, problem-solving, and emotional regulation in a group format.
182
What are the core features of Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD)?
**Impairments in social communication, restrictive and repetitive behaviors.** Explanation: Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD) is characterized by social communication deficits (difficulty with verbal and nonverbal communication, social reciprocity) and restricted, repetitive behaviors (e.g., hand-flapping, insistence on sameness, intense focus on specific interests).
183
At what age do symptoms of Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD) typically appear?
**Before the age of 3.** Explanation: ASD symptoms typically emerge before the age of 3, although signs may be noticeable as early as 18 months. Early signs include delays in speech development, difficulty engaging socially, and a lack of response to social cues.
184
What is the primary treatment approach for Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD)?
**Behavioral therapy, such as Applied Behavior Analysis (ABA)** Explanation: The primary treatment for ASD often includes behavioral interventions like ABA, which focuses on reinforcing positive behaviors and teaching new skills. Speech therapy, occupational therapy, and social skills training are also common interventions.
185
What is the most common comorbid condition with Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD)?
**Intellectual Disability.** Explanation: Many individuals with ASD also have intellectual disabilities. However, some individuals with autism may have average or even above-average intellectual abilities, but cognitive impairment is still common among the population with ASD.
186
What is a key difference between Schizophrenia and Schizoaffective Disorder?
**Schizophrenia is characterized by psychosis without mood disturbances, whereas schizoaffective disorder includes both psychosis and mood episodes (depression or mania).** Explanation: Schizophrenia involves psychotic symptoms (e.g., hallucinations, delusions, disorganized thinking) but without significant mood disturbances. Schizoaffective disorder, on the other hand, includes mood episodes (e.g., depression or mania) alongside the psychotic symptoms.
187
What is the hallmark symptom of Schizophrenia?
**Hallucinations (especially auditory) and delusions** Explanation: The hallmark symptoms of Schizophrenia are hallucinations (most commonly auditory) and delusions (false beliefs, such as believing someone is plotting against you). These psychotic symptoms disrupt a person’s perception of reality.
188
Which neurotransmitter is primarily involved in the pathophysiology of Schizophrenia?
**Dopamine** Explanation: Schizophrenia is thought to be related to dopamine dysregulation, particularly an overactivity of dopamine in certain brain areas (e.g., the mesolimbic pathway) contributing to positive symptoms (hallucinations, delusions), and underactivity in other areas (e.g., prefrontal cortex), contributing to negative symptoms (flat affect, cognitive deficits).
189
What is the first-line treatment for Schizophrenia?
**Antipsychotic medications.** Explanation: Antipsychotic medications, particularly atypical antipsychotics like risperidone, olanzapine, and aripiprazole, are commonly used as first-line treatment for managing the symptoms of schizophrenia. They target dopamine receptors to reduce psychotic symptoms.
190
What is a defining characteristic of Bipolar I Disorder?
**The presence of at least one manic episode.** Explanation: Bipolar I Disorder is characterized by the occurrence of at least one manic episode, which lasts at least one week (or any duration if hospitalization is necessary) and may be accompanied by depressive episodes. Mania involves elevated mood, increased energy, grandiosity, and sometimes risky behaviors.
191
What is the main difference between Bipolar I Disorder and Bipolar II Disorder?
**Bipolar I involves full manic episodes, while Bipolar II involves hypomanic episodes (less severe manic symptoms)** Explanation: The key distinction is that Bipolar I involves full manic episodes (which can be more disruptive), whereas Bipolar II involves hypomanic episodes, which are less severe and shorter in duration. Both disorders also involve depressive episodes.
192
What is the treatment of choice for managing Bipolar Disorder?
**Mood stabilizers, such as lithium or anticonvulsants (valproate, lamotrigine)** Explanation: The mainstay treatment for Bipolar Disorder includes mood stabilizers like lithium and anticonvulsants (e.g., valproate, lamotrigine) to help manage mood swings. Antipsychotic medications may also be used, especially in cases with mania or psychotic features.
193
Which class of medication is often used to treat acute manic episodes in Bipolar I Disorder?
**Atypical antipsychotics** Explanation: Atypical antipsychotics like risperidone, olanzapine, and aripiprazole are frequently used for the acute management of manic episodes in Bipolar I Disorder because they help stabilize mood and reduce agitation.
194
What is a common symptom of Pediatric Psychopathology in children with ADHD?
**Inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsivity.** Explanation: Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD) in children is characterized by inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsivity. These symptoms can affect academic performance, relationships, and daily functioning.
195
What are common behavioral signs of Conduct Disorder in children?
**Aggression toward people or animals, destruction of property, deceitfulness, and violation of rules** Explanation: Conduct Disorder is characterized by patterns of aggressive, antisocial behavior, including harming others, destroying property, and violating societal rules. Children with this disorder may show a lack of empathy and disregard for others' rights.
196
What is the treatment approach for Pediatric Bipolar Disorder?
**Mood stabilizers, with careful monitoring for side effects, and psychotherapy** Explanation: Treatment for pediatric bipolar disorder typically includes mood stabilizers like lithium or valproate, as well as psychotherapy (including CBT) to help with mood regulation and coping strategies. Antipsychotics may be used for acute manic episodes.
197
Which assessment tool is often used to assess ADHD symptoms in children?
**Conners’ Rating Scales** Explanation: The Conners’ Rating Scales are commonly used to assess ADHD symptoms in children, collecting data from parents, teachers, and others involved in the child’s life to help diagnose and monitor the condition.
198
What is a typical treatment for Oppositional Defiant Disorder (ODD) in children?
**Parent training, behavioral therapy, and family therapy** Explanation: Treatment for ODD in children often involves behavioral therapy and parent training to address negative behaviors and improve communication and discipline. Family therapy is helpful to improve family dynamics and conflict resolution skills.
199
What is the main purpose of a Psychiatric Assessment?
**To gather comprehensive information about a patient's mental health status, symptoms, and history to inform diagnosis and treatment.** Explanation: The psychiatric assessment helps the clinician understand the patient's mental health history, current symptoms, and functional impairments. It guides the clinician in making an accurate diagnosis and formulating an appropriate treatment plan.
200
What does the Chief Complaint (CC) refer to in a psychiatric assessment?
**The main reason the patient is seeking help, often expressed in their own words.** Explanation: The Chief Complaint is the primary concern or symptom that prompted the patient to seek psychiatric help. It often serves as the starting point for the rest of the assessment and can help focus the clinician's questions and diagnostic process.
201
What is the role of Psychiatric History in a psychiatric assessment?
**To gather detailed information about the patient's previous mental health conditions, treatments, hospitalizations, and family history of psychiatric illnesses.** Explanation: The psychiatric history helps the clinician understand the patient's past psychiatric conditions, the effectiveness of prior treatments, and any family history of psychiatric disorders, which can provide insight into the patient's risk factors and prognosis.
202
What is included in the Social History during a psychiatric assessment?
**Information about the patient's social circumstances, including their relationships, living situation, work history, and cultural background.** Explanation: The social history provides context for understanding the patient’s support systems, social stressors, and cultural factors that may influence their mental health and treatment. It may also include details about the patient's substance use, education, and economic status.
203
What is the focus of the Physical Examination in a psychiatric assessment?
**To rule out medical conditions that could be contributing to the psychiatric symptoms, such as neurological or endocrine issues.** Explanation: The physical examination is done to assess the patient’s physical health and identify any underlying medical conditions (e.g., thyroid issues, neurological disorders) that could contribute to psychiatric symptoms, like mood swings, cognitive issues, or behavioral changes.
204
What does the Family History in a psychiatric assessment focus on?
**The presence of psychiatric disorders in the patient’s family, as genetics can play a role in mental health.** Explanation: Family history helps identify potential genetic factors that could predispose the patient to conditions such as schizophrenia, bipolar disorder, or depression. Understanding family dynamics and mental health trends can also provide context for the patient’s current condition.
205
What is assessed in the Cognitive Assessment during a psychiatric evaluation?
**The patient's cognitive abilities, including memory, attention, problem-solving, and orientation to time, place, and person.** Explanation: A cognitive assessment helps to evaluate memory (short-term and long-term), attention span, problem-solving skills, and the patient's orientation (knowing who they are, where they are, and what time it is). Cognitive deficits are often seen in conditions like dementia and delirium.
206
What is the purpose of assessing Risk Factors in a psychiatric assessment?
**To identify any risks the patient may pose to themselves or others, including thoughts of self-harm or violence.** Explanation: Assessing risk factors involves identifying any signs of suicidal ideation, self-harm, homicidal thoughts, or impulsive behaviors that may require immediate intervention. This step is crucial for ensuring patient safety and determining the appropriate level of care.
207
What is assessed during the Mental Health Screening portion of a psychiatric assessment?
**Screening tools are used to identify specific conditions such as depression, anxiety, and psychosis.** Explanation: The mental health screening often involves standardized tools like the PHQ-9 for depression, GAD-7 for anxiety, or the CAGE questionnaire for alcohol use. These help identify common psychiatric disorders and guide further assessment.
208
What is the purpose of the Insight and Judgment section in a psychiatric assessment?
**To evaluate the patient’s awareness of their illness and their ability to make sound decisions.** Explanation: Insight refers to the patient's awareness and understanding of their condition, while judgment assesses their ability to make appropriate decisions in daily life. Impaired insight and judgment are common in psychotic disorders and may impact treatment compliance.
209
What lab test is crucial for monitoring Lithium therapy?
**Creatinine and Lithium levels.** Explanation: Lithium can affect kidney function, so creatinine is tested to assess renal health. Lithium levels should be checked regularly to ensure they stay within the therapeutic range (0.6 to 1.2 mEq/L) to avoid toxicity.
210
What lab test is essential when prescribing Valproic acid (Depakote)?
**Liver function tests (LFTs).** Explanation: Valproic acid can cause liver toxicity, so monitoring LFTs (ALT, AST, bilirubin) is important to detect any early signs of liver damage. CBC (complete blood count) is also important to assess for potential bone marrow suppression.
211
What lab tests are needed before starting Carbamazepine (Tegretol)?
**Complete blood count (CBC), liver function tests (LFTs), and sodium levels.** Explanation: Carbamazepine can cause bone marrow suppression, so a CBC is necessary to monitor for leukopenia and thrombocytopenia. LFTs are monitored for liver toxicity, and sodium levels should be checked due to the risk of hyponatremia.
212
What lab is required before starting Clozapine (Clozaril)?
**Absolute Neutrophil Count (ANC).** Explanation: Clozapine has a risk of agranulocytosis, which can lead to a dangerously low white blood cell count. ANC must be checked before starting treatment and monitored regularly during therapy.
213
What is the most important lab for a patient on Quetiapine (Seroquel)?
**Fasting glucose and lipid panel.** Explanation: Quetiapine is an atypical antipsychotic known to cause weight gain and metabolic changes, including increased blood glucose (risk of diabetes) and elevated lipids (risk of hyperlipidemia). Monitoring these labs helps track these adverse effects.
214
What lab test should be monitored for a patient on Risperidone (Risperdal)?
**Prolactin levels.** Explanation: Risperidone can increase prolactin levels, leading to side effects like galactorrhea (milk production), gynecomastia (enlarged breasts in men), and sexual dysfunction. Monitoring prolactin levels is important for managing these side effects.
215
Which lab test is important when prescribing Antidepressants (e.g., SSRIs, SNRIs)?
**Thyroid function tests (TSH).** Explanation: Antidepressants like SSRIs and SNRIs can affect thyroid function, especially in patients with a history of thyroid issues. Monitoring TSH is important to ensure the thyroid is functioning properly and to avoid worsening symptoms of hypothyroidism.
216
What is the recommended lab test for a patient who is on Benzodiazepines long-term?
**Liver function tests (LFTs).** Explanation: Benzodiazepines are metabolized by the liver, and long-term use can lead to liver toxicity. Regular LFTs should be monitored to detect any liver impairment.
217
What lab test should be done for a patient on Mirtazapine (Remeron)?
**Complete blood count (CBC).** Explanation: Mirtazapine can cause agranulocytosis or bone marrow suppression, so it is essential to monitor CBC regularly during therapy to check for neutropenia or other blood abnormalities.
218
What lab test is important for patients on Antipsychotics (e.g., Haloperidol, Olanzapine)?
**Electrolytes and glucose levels.** Explanation: Antipsychotics can cause electrolyte imbalances (e.g., low sodium or potassium) and glucose dysregulation, including hyperglycemia and diabetes. Regular monitoring of electrolytes and glucose levels is important to track these potential side effects.
219
What lab should be monitored for a patient on Trazodone?
**Liver function tests (LFTs) and electrocardiogram (EKG).** Explanation: Trazodone can affect liver function, and in some cases, it may cause QT prolongation on the EKG, which can lead to serious heart arrhythmias. LFTs and EKG should be monitored during treatment.
220
What is the most important lab for a patient on Bupropion?
Electrolyte panel, especially sodium. Explanation: Bupropion can lower the seizure threshold, and electrolyte imbalances, especially hyponatremia, can increase this risk. Monitoring sodium levels and electrolytes is essential, especially in elderly patients or those on diuretics.
221
Which lab test is necessary for monitoring Lamotrigine (Lamictal) therapy?
**Skin rash and CBC (Complete Blood Count).** Explanation: Lamotrigine can cause severe skin rashes, which may indicate Stevens-Johnson Syndrome (a life-threatening condition). CBC is important for monitoring for signs of blood dyscrasias (e.g., leukopenia).
222
What is the most important lab for a patient on Topiramate (Topamax)?
**Bicarbonate (to monitor for metabolic acidosis).** Explanation: Topiramate can lead to metabolic acidosis, so bicarbonate levels should be monitored regularly. This is especially important in patients with renal impairment or other risk factors for acidosis.
223
What lab is important for a patient on Aripiprazole (Abilify)?
**Blood glucose and lipids.** Explanation: Like other atypical antipsychotics, Aripiprazole can cause weight gain, elevated glucose, and lipid abnormalities. Monitoring blood glucose and lipid profiles is important for managing these potential side effects.
224
What is the first-line medication for Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD) in children and adolescents?
**Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRIs), particularly Fluoxetine or Sertraline.** Explanation: SSRIs are the first-line treatment for OCD in children and adolescents due to their efficacy in reducing obsessive thoughts and compulsive behaviors. Fluoxetine and Sertraline are commonly used.
225
What is the first-line treatment for Attention Deficit Disorder (ADD) in pediatric patients?
**Stimulants **(e.g., Methylphenidate or Amphetamine salts). Explanation: Methylphenidate (e.g., Ritalin) and Amphetamine salts (e.g., Adderall) are the first-line treatment for ADD in children and adolescents, as they help increase attention and decrease impulsivity.
226
What is the first-line treatment for Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD) in children?
**Stimulants** (e.g., Methylphenidate or Amphetamine salts). Explanation: Like ADD, ADHD is most effectively treated with stimulant medications. Methylphenidate (e.g., Concerta) and Amphetamine salts (e.g., Adderall) are the most common first-line choices.
227
What is the first-line medication for Depression in pediatric patients?
**Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRIs), primarily Fluoxetine.** Explanation: SSRIs like Fluoxetine are considered first-line due to their safety profile and efficacy in treating depression in children and adolescents. Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is also a key treatment component.
228
What is the first-line treatment for Anxiety in pediatric patients?
**Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRIs), especially Sertraline or Fluoxetine.** Explanation: SSRIs such as Sertraline or Fluoxetine are effective and commonly used to treat generalized anxiety disorder (GAD), social anxiety, and other anxiety disorders in children and adolescents.
229
What is the first-line medication for Nightmares in children?
**Prazosin (alpha-1 blocker).** Explanation: Prazosin is often used as a first-line treatment for nightmares, especially those associated with PTSD. It helps decrease the frequency of nightmares and promotes better sleep.
230
What is the first-line treatment for Night Terrors in children?
**No medication is typically needed; however, Scheduled awakenings or Behavioral therapy may help.** Explanation: Night terrors are often self-limited and do not always require medication. Scheduled awakenings, where the child is gently awakened before the terror typically occurs, can reduce their frequency. If needed, a benzo like Clonazepam may be used, but this is rare.
231
What is the first-line medication for Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD) in adults?
**Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRIs), especially Fluoxetine, Sertraline, or Fluvoxamine.** Explanation: SSRIs are the first-line pharmacological treatment for OCD in adults. They are effective at reducing obsessive thoughts and compulsive behaviors.
232
What is the first-line medication for Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD) in adolescents?
**Stimulants** (e.g., Methylphenidate or Amphetamine salts). Explanation: Methylphenidate (e.g., Ritalin) and Amphetamine salts (e.g., Adderall) are first-line treatments for ADHD in adolescents, as they help improve focus and reduce hyperactivity.
233
What is the first-line medication for Depression in geriatric patients?
**Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRIs), particularly Sertraline or Citalopram.** Explanation: SSRIs, such as Sertraline or Citalopram, are preferred in the geriatric population due to their lower side-effect profile compared to other antidepressants like TCA or MAOIs. They are effective in treating depression and are well tolerated in older adults.
234
What is the first-line medication for Anxiety in geriatric patients?
**Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRIs), particularly Escitalopram or Sertraline.** Explanation: For older adults, SSRIs are the first-line treatment for generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) and other anxiety disorders due to their safer side-effect profile compared to benzodiazepines, which carry a risk of sedation and dependence.
235
What is the first-line treatment for Bipolar Disorder in pediatric patients?
**Lithium or Atypical Antipsychotics** (e.g., Risperidone or Aripiprazole). Explanation: Lithium is a classic first-line treatment for bipolar disorder, though atypical antipsychotics like Risperidone and Aripiprazole are also commonly used as first-line options for managing both manic and depressive episodes in children.
236
What is the first-line treatment for Bipolar Disorder in geriatric patients?
**Lithium or Atypical** Antipsychotics (e.g., Quetiapine or Lurasidone). Explanation: In older adults, Lithium is effective but should be used cautiously due to renal and thyroid risks. Atypical antipsychotics such as Quetiapine are often used for bipolar disorder in elderly patients, especially for managing mood episodes with fewer side effects.
237
What does COWS stand for, and what is its use?
**COWS = Clinical Opiate Withdrawal Scale** Explanation: COWS is a tool used to assess the severity of opioid withdrawal symptoms. It evaluates symptoms like sweating, chills, gastrointestinal distress, and pupil size to gauge the level of withdrawal and help guide treatment.
238
What does CIWA stand for, and what is it used for?
**CIWA = Clinical Institute Withdrawal Assessment for Alcohol** Explanation: CIWA is a tool used to assess the severity of alcohol withdrawal. It evaluates symptoms such as nausea, tremors, anxiety, and confusion, and helps guide the decision for medication treatment (e.g., benzodiazepines) in patients going through alcohol withdrawal.
239
What does AUDIT stand for, and what is it used to assess?
**AUDIT = Alcohol Use Disorders Identification Test.** Explanation: AUDIT is a screening tool used to identify individuals at risk for alcohol use disorders. It includes questions related to alcohol consumption, dependence, and the consequences of alcohol use.
240
What does CAGE stand for, and what does it assess?
**CAGE = Cut, Annoyed, Guilty, Eye-opener** Explanation: CAGE is a brief screening tool used to identify alcohol use disorders. It asks four questions related to cutting down on drinking, being annoyed by others' comments, feeling guilty about drinking, and using alcohol as an eye-opener.
241
What is the difference between Hypnopompic and Hypnagogic hallucinations?
**Hypnopompic = Hallucinations upon waking. Hypnagogic = Hallucinations upon falling asleep.** Explanation: Hypnopompic hallucinations occur when waking from sleep, and Hypnagogic hallucinations occur while falling asleep. Both are common in sleep disorders like narcolepsy and can include vivid visual or auditory experiences.
242
What does GGT stand for, and what is it used to assess?
**GGT = Gamma-Glutamyl Transferase** Explanation: GGT is a liver enzyme used to assess liver function. Elevated GGT levels may indicate alcohol abuse, liver disease, or bile duct issues. It is often used to evaluate suspected alcohol-related liver damage.
243
Most appropriate lab for a patient presenting with avolition, anhedonia, decreased appetite, and lack of sleep?
**Lab: Thyroid Function Tests (TSH, T3, T4)** Explanation: Symptoms such as avolition, anhedonia, decreased appetite, and sleep disturbances can suggest depression or hypothyroidism. Thyroid tests help rule out hypothyroidism, which can present with similar symptoms.
244
Best strategy in engaging an adolescent in a psychiatric interview, who is accompanied by her mother?
**Strategy: Start with adolescent, ensure confidentiality, and build rapport.** Explanation: Engaging the adolescent directly and ensuring the conversation is confidential fosters trust. Start with questions directed at the adolescent, gradually involving the mother in the discussion.
245
Best open-ended question in initiating a psychiatric interview?
Question: "**Can you tell me what brought you in today?**" Explanation: Open-ended questions allow the patient to express their concerns freely without feeling guided or limited. This sets a comfortable tone for the session.
246
What legal precedent did Tarasoff vs Regents of the University of California set?
**Precedent: Duty to warn and protect potential victims** Explanation: The Tarasoff case established the duty to warn a potential victim if a patient expresses intent to harm them, even if it breaches confidentiality.
247
An older adult starting Amitriptyline: What test should be a priority?
**Test: EKG** Explanation: Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant that can cause cardiac conduction abnormalities, so an EKG is necessary to assess baseline heart function before starting the medication.
248
Which antidepressant is likely to cause adverse cognitive effects in older adults: Amitriptyline vs SSRIs?
**Amitriptyline** Explanation: Amitriptyline, a tricyclic antidepressant, is more likely to cause anticholinergic effects (e.g., cognitive impairment) in older adults compared to SSRIs, which are generally better tolerated in this population.
249
The parents report that within 4 hours of sleep every night, the patient screams, sweats, and is inconsolable. The episode lasts for at least 10 minutes. The next morning, the patient has no recollection of what happened. What is the diagnosis: Night terrors vs nightmares?
Diagnosis: **Night terrors** Explanation: Night terrors occur in the first few hours of sleep, involve intense fear or screaming, and the patient usually has no memory of the event. In contrast, nightmares happen later in the night and are often remembered.
250
Patient on Valproic acid. Most important lab?
Lab: **Liver Function Tests (LFTs)** Explanation: Valproic acid can cause liver toxicity, making LFTs critical in monitoring its use.
251
Patient on Quetiapine. What is the most important lab?
Lab: **Lipid Profile** Explanation: Quetiapine can lead to weight gain and metabolic changes, so monitoring a lipid profile is important to assess risk for hyperlipidemia.
252
Findings in a patient experiencing the initial stages of Alzheimer’s disease?
Findings: Memory loss, difficulty with word-finding, disorientation Explanation: In the early stages of Alzheimer's disease, patients often have short-term memory problems, trouble recalling recent events, and difficulty finding words.
253
Identifying symptoms of tardive dyskinesia
Symptoms: Involuntary movements of the face, tongue, and limbs Explanation: Tardive dyskinesia is characterized by repetitive, involuntary movements, typically affecting the tongue, face, and limbs, often due to prolonged use of antipsychotic medications.
254
Switching from MAOI to SSRI: What is the washout period?
Washout period: 2 weeks Explanation: When switching from a Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitor (MAOI) to a Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor (SSRI), a 2-week washout period is required to avoid serotonin syndrome.
255
Presentation of insecure or avoidant attachment of an infant?
Presentation: Avoids or ignores caregiver, may not seek comfort Explanation: Insecure or avoidant attachment occurs when an infant shows indifference or avoidance towards the caregiver, especially in stressful situations, reflecting insufficient emotional bonding.
256
First-line treatment for OCD?
Treatment: SSRIs (e.g., Sertraline, Fluoxetine) Explanation: SSRIs are considered first-line pharmacological treatment for Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD) due to their ability to reduce the severity of obsessions and compulsions.
257
Screening tool for depression: PHQ-9
Tool: PHQ-9 (Patient Health Questionnaire-9) Explanation: The PHQ-9 is a commonly used screening tool for depression. It assesses the frequency and severity of depressive symptoms over the past two weeks.
258
A 45-year-old patient expresses dissatisfaction with their career and feels they haven’t made meaningful contributions to society. According to Erikson’s stages of development, which task is this patient struggling with?
Answer: A) Generativity vs. Stagnation Explanation: Generativity vs. Stagnation is the stage in Erikson's theory where adults focus on contributing to society and future generations. A lack of fulfillment in this area can lead to stagnation.
259
After implementing a new workflow, staff begin reverting to old habits, undermining the change. What is the most effective strategy to solidify the change during the refreezing phase?
Answer: B) Create a system for recognizing and rewarding staff who successfully follow the new workflow Explanation: The refreezing phase is about ensuring that the change becomes the new norm. Recognizing and rewarding adherence to the new workflow reinforces desired behaviors.
260
261
A 25-year-old expresses difficulty maintaining close relationships and fears being alone. Which stage of development are they struggling with?
Answer: A) Intimacy vs. Isolation Explanation: The Intimacy vs. Isolation stage occurs in young adulthood (18-40 years), where individuals struggle with forming intimate, meaningful relationships. Fear of being alone is a hallmark of this stage.
262
263
Labs for Carbamazepine?
Lab: Complete Blood Count (CBC) Explanation: Carbamazepine can cause blood dyscrasias (e.g., leukopenia), so a CBC is important for monitoring blood cell counts during treatment.
264
Lab for Depakote?
Lab: Liver Function Tests (LFTs) Explanation: Valproic acid (Depakote) can cause hepatotoxicity, so regular LFTs are necessary to monitor liver function.
265
Lab for Lithium?
Lab: Creatinine or TSH Explanation: Lithium can affect renal function and thyroid activity, so monitoring creatinine levels and TSH (for hypothyroidism) is crucial for safe use.
266
Lab for Clozapine?
Lab: Absolute Neutrophil Count (ANC) Explanation: Clozapine can cause agranulocytosis, which significantly reduces neutrophil counts, so regular monitoring of the ANC is required.
267
Which component of the psychiatric assessment focuses on gathering information about the patient's current symptoms, their duration, and severity?
Answer: Chief Complaint Explanation: The Chief Complaint section focuses on understanding the main issue or concern that led the patient to seek psychiatric evaluation, including the nature, duration, and severity of the symptoms.
268
Which component of the psychiatric assessment involves gathering information about the patient's past medical conditions, treatments, and hospitalizations?
Answer: Medical History Explanation: The Medical History gathers information about the patient's previous medical conditions, treatments, and hospitalizations, which are important for understanding overall health and medication history.
269
Which component of the psychiatric assessment focuses on gathering information about the patient's family history of psychiatric disorders?
Answer: Family History Explanation: The Family History provides insights into the genetic or hereditary factors that might contribute to the patient's psychiatric conditions
270
Which component of the psychiatric assessment focuses on gathering information about the patient's family history of psychiatric disorders?
Answer: **Family History** Explanation: The Family History provides insights into the genetic or hereditary factors that might contribute to the patient's psychiatric conditions.
271
Which component of the psychiatric assessment involves observing and documenting the patient's behavior, appearance, and speech patterns?
Answer: **Mental Status Examination (MSE)** Explanation: The MSE assesses the patient's appearance, behavior, speech, mood, and cognitive function during the psychiatric evaluation.
272
A 45-year-old man with schizophrenia has been taking an antipsychotic medication for the past six months. He presents to the emergency department with symptoms of muscle stiffness, tremors, and difficulty walking. The healthcare provider suspects Extrapyramidal Symptoms (EPS). Which class of medications is most commonly associated with the development of Extrapyramidal Symptoms (EPS)?
Answer: **Antipsychotics** Explanation: Antipsychotic medications, especially first-generation (typical) antipsychotics, are most commonly associated with Extrapyramidal Symptoms (EPS), which include muscle stiffness, tremors, and other movement issues.
273
Which of the following symptoms is NOT typically associated with Parkinsonism, a subtype of Extrapyramidal Symptoms (EPS)?
Answer: **Akathisia** Explanation: Akathisia (restlessness) is not a hallmark of Parkinsonism, which primarily presents with tremors, rigidity, and bradykinesia (slowness of movement).
274
Which of the following statements about Tardive Dyskinesia (TD) is true?
Answer: TD is characterized by involuntary, repetitive movements of the face, tongue, and limbs. Explanation: Tardive Dyskinesia (TD) is characterized by involuntary, repetitive movements, especially of the mouth, tongue, and limbs, and often occurs as a side effect of long-term antipsychotic use.
275
Which of the following assessment tools is commonly used to assess the severity of Tardive Dyskinesia (TD) symptoms?
Answer: Abnormal Involuntary Movement Scale (AIMS) Explanation: The AIMS is a widely used tool for assessing the severity of involuntary movements in patients with Tardive Dyskinesia (TD).
276
60-year-old man with a history of schizophrenia presents to the emergency department with fever, altered mental status, muscle rigidity, and autonomic instability. He has been taking an antipsychotic medication for several years. The healthcare provider suspects Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS). Which of the following interventions is the most appropriate initial step in managing this patient?
Answer: Discontinuing the offending antipsychotic medication Explanation: The most important first step in managing Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS) is to discontinue the antipsychotic medication, as it is the primary cause of the syndrome. Supportive care and medications may follow.