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MCAT Practice Test 5 > AAMC Test 5 Corrections > Flashcards

AAMC Test 5 Corrections Flashcards

1
Q

Equation: Free energy change in a reaction

A

∆G(rxn) = ∆Gf(products) - ∆Gf(reactants)

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2
Q

∆Gf

A

free energy of formation

multiply ∆Gf for each species by the number of moles of that species in the net reaction

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3
Q

a rxn diagram will always show an initial ______ in energy as the activation energy is reached; E decreases as stable products are formed

A

increase

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4
Q

Equation: Hess’s Law (∆S)

A

S(rxn) = S(products) - S(reactants)

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5
Q

Absolute entropy values (S)

A

specific entropy value for a species
multiply by number of moles of that species present in net reaction to use in Hess’s law
Extensive quantity: depends on the amount of material (i.e. number of moles)

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6
Q

Formation of 3 moles of a simple gas from 2 moles of a complex gas causes S (entropy) to ______

A

Increase; 2 moles reacted to form 3 moles–increases randomness / disorder

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7
Q

Radicals are recycled, so they act as _______ and can be used in the next rxn to produce much product.

A

catalysts

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8
Q

One mole of Ideal Gas at STP will occupy _______ L.

A

22.4 Liters

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9
Q

Equation: Speed of a wave

A

v = frequency * wavelength

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10
Q

Equation: frequency (wave)

A

f = 1 / sec (1 / x seconds) (cycles / second)

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11
Q

wavelength is measured between adjacent

A

peak to peak or trough to trough; if measured peak-trough = 1/2 * wavelength

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12
Q

Equation: Circumference of a circle

A

C = 2 * pi * r

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13
Q

Equation: Equilibrium constant / Acid Dissociation constant (Ka)

A

Ka = [A-][H+] / [HA]

Note: Constant value, so ratio of conjugate base/ weak acid is FIXED

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14
Q

Equation: Acid dissociation constant (pKa)

A

pKa = -log10 * Ka

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15
Q

Equation: Henderson-Hasselback Equation to find pH

A

pH = pKa + log ([conjugate base] / [weak acid])

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16
Q

Find the number of atoms after (n) half lives

A

2^n (n = number of half lives) * current number of atoms in sample

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17
Q

Equation: Average Kinetic Energy

A

K.E.(avg) = m * v^2 / 2

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18
Q

Equation: Energy of a photon

A

E(photon) = h * c / wavelength

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19
Q

Do not expect a _______ rxn w/ neutral NaCl. Will likely be displacement rxn instead.

A

Redox

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20
Q

Oxidation state of Cd if it is reacted w/ S?

A

S is in the same column in the periodic table as Oxygen, so expect it to have oxidation state of -2. For CdS to be neutral, Cd must have 2+ oxidation state to balance out Sulfur.

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21
Q

Most likely gas to be let off when Cu placed in HNO3?

A

NO(g); Redox rxn where Cu is oxidized (loses electrons) and N is reduced (gains electrons).

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22
Q

In the reaction b/w HNO3 and Cu, nitric acid is the _____

A

oxidizing agent (and is reduced)

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23
Q

In the reaction b/w HNO3 and Cu, Cu is _______

A

reducing agent (and is oxidized)

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24
Q

A more electronegative atom will undergo ________ more readily.

A

Reduction (gain of electrons)

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25
Q

Boiling point is a _______, meaning it depends only on the number of solute particles, NOT the type of particles in the solute.

A

Colligative

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26
Q

When Cu is placed in AgNO3, a metal is formed on the copper b/c it is….

A

Oxidized and Ag+ is reduced. Cu is oxidized (loses electrons) to form Cu+2. Neutral Cu (a metal) won’t gain electrons (be reduced) bc it is more prone to lose electrons to form + cations

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27
Q

∆S for the sublimation of iodine: I2(s) —-> I2(g)

A

∆S > 0 (increase in entropy); gas is less ordered (more random) than a solid

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28
Q

phase change from solid to gas

A

Sublimation

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29
Q

measure of disorder

increases w/ value of S

A

entropy; ∆S

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30
Q

+∆S

A

increase in entropy / randomness

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31
Q

-∆S

A

decrease in entropy / randomness

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32
Q

map of pressure and temperature conditions under which individual phases are stable / where phase changes will occur

A

phase diagram

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33
Q

trace increase in pressure at constant temperature by moving ______ from the starting point on a phase diagram

A

vertically

34
Q

line on a phase diagram indication where vapor and solid phases meet and are at equilibrium

A

sublimation line

35
Q

line on a phase diagram where solid-liquid phases meet and are at equilibrium

A

solid-liquid line; melting point

36
Q

What is the motion of a - charged particle when placed near a fixed +Q?

A

the - charged particle ACCELERATES toward + charge (Coulomb force b/w unlike charges causes neg particle to accelerate toward positive particle; does not more w/ constant speed)

37
Q

why do some compounds lose weight when heated from 20º to 700ºC?

A

volatile components are released. Increase in temperature will increase vapor pressure of volatile (reactive) components. If Temp gets high enough, volatile components will vaporize and mass will go down

38
Q

Elements in the same ______ in the periodic table will show the greatest similarity in reactivity

A

group (column)

39
Q

Equation: Energy lost to friction when an item moves down an incline plane

A

E lost to F(f) = F * d (over when Force acts)

40
Q

Equation: Coefficient of Friction:

A

Coefficient of Friction = F(f) / F(n)

41
Q

Equation: F(n) on a level surface

A

F(n) = m * g

Note: g = 10 m/s^2

42
Q

If the initial height of an incline is reduced by 1/2, how is speed affected?

A

speed decreases by a factor of √2; If the object experiences no friction when moving down the hill, set P.E. = mgh equal to K.E. = (m * v^2) / 2.
Set the ratio of the speed at the bottom of the hill from h2/h1 and take √.

43
Q

What is the distance b/w adjacent nodes in a standing wave pattern?

A

distance = wavelength / 2.
A half wavelength has a node at each end. Spacing b/w nodes is wavelength/2 when both sides are either nodes or antinodes

44
Q

Equation: wavelength (lambda max)

A

wavelength = c / f

45
Q

Equation: Buoyant force

A

F(b) = (density of the liquid) * (volume displaced by object) * g

46
Q

Equation: specific gravity

A

S.G. = ratio of certain density / density of H2O

47
Q

What happens if acidity of saturated sol’n of Ca(OH)2 is increased?

A

Ksp is unchanged (solubility constant) and additional Ca(OH)2 will dissolve.
If acidity is increased, H+ will react w/ OH- present from dissolved solid in a neutralizing rxn. Removing OH- will shift equilibrium to the R (forward) to balance loss of product.

48
Q

solution that contains as much of a dissolved solid as can be dissolved at that temperature

A

saturated sol’n

49
Q

the value of the equilibrium constant is _____ by other species

A

unaffected

50
Q

only the _____ will change ∆K(eq) for a sol’n rxn

A

temperature

51
Q

a nearsighted person, the image of a distant object is focused _______ the retina, requiring ________ lens correction.

A

in front of the retina, divergent lens corrected

52
Q

a person who cannot see far away. Focal length is _____ than it should be.

A

near sighted; shorter focal length

53
Q

what type of lens corrects near-sightedness?

A

divergent lens

54
Q

what type of lens corrects far-sightedness?

A

converging lens

55
Q

Fastest way to counteract the effect of a noncompetitive inhibitor?

A

INcrease metabolism rate and elimination from the body. Altering concentration of other substances won’t affect non-competitive inhibition

56
Q

type of inhibitor; often a poison; attaches to effector molecule and alters its function; only way to stop inhibition is to eliminate from body

A

noncompetitive inhibitor

57
Q

which organelle will be abnormal in an animal w/ an autosomal recessive, nonlethal mutation (deletion) of Ach receptor gene?

A

Plasma membrane. ACh releases from presynaptic vesicle, crosses the synapse, and stimulates specific receptors in the plasma membrane

58
Q

Why is glycine a dipolar ion in aqueous sol’n?

A

Glycine has a high dipole moment

59
Q

_______ in neutral molecules is due to an uneven distribution of electron density or can be caused by separation of like charges.

A

Polarity

60
Q

Substances (molecules) w/ strong electron-withdrawing or electron-donating groups are high _______ with strong ______

A

polar; dipole moments

61
Q

What recombinant process depends on F factor plasmids?

A

Conjugation (1 way bacteria exchange genes)

62
Q

3 ways in which bacteria exchange genes

A

Conjugation, Transformation, and Transduction

63
Q

1 bacterium produces a sex pilus and transfers DNA through it to another bacterium. Needs genes for sex pilus; genes located on a plasmid; requires fertility (F) factor plasmid
char. of gram negative bacteria

A

conjugation

64
Q

way in which bacteria exchange genes

bacteria take up DNA from its surroundings

A

transformation

65
Q

way in which bacteria exchange genes

genes transferred via a virus

A

transduction

66
Q

not specific to nacteria; general term to describe movement

Ex: genes on chromosome, proteins in a cell, sap in a tree

A

translocation

67
Q

what is the compound formed by replacing the O between the two carbonyl groups in acetic anhydride w/ an NG group?

A

Imide. (R-CO-NH-CO-R)

68
Q

Hydrolysis of acetic anhydride can be reversed by:

A

acidification followed by heating

69
Q

the first step in the reaction mechanism breaking acetic anhydride into amide and COOH

A

Attack carbonyl C by lone pair electrons on Nitrogen on amino group
Nucleophilic attack by N(R-NH2) push electrons up to form O-

70
Q

aniline and benzylamine are both ______ amines

A

primary; both structures are R-NH2

71
Q

contraction of the diaphragm results in….

A

more negative IPP and inspiration
diaphragm flattens when it contracts during inspiration and the volume of thoracic cavity increases.
increased volume reduces pressure (IPP) in pleural cavity b/w thoracic wall and lung; air flows in to equalize pressure and inflates the lung

72
Q

air flows into pleural cavity to restore equilibrium during negative gauge pressure

A

inspiration

73
Q

the left ventricular wall is _______ compared to the right ventricular wall and generates ______ pressure when it contracts.

A

thicker
generates higher pressure
pumps blood from heart to rest of the body, thicker wall pumps w higher pressure

74
Q

the right ventricular wall is _______ and generates ______ pressure when it contracts. This is because it pumps blood to the _____.

A

thinner
lower pressure
pumps blood from the heart to the lungs

75
Q

if an artery that supplies blood to the lung was blocked but ventilation was ok, how would alveolar partial pressures change?

A

P(O2) would increase and P(CO2) would decrease. There would be no hemoglobin-rich RBCs to take away O2 and no influx of CO2 from blood.

76
Q

Do all arthopods have to have a true Coelom because they have a nervous system?

A

No, coelom development is completely independent of nerve tissue development.

77
Q

A coelom (body cavity) forms as pouches in the _______.

A

Mesoderm

78
Q

The vertebrate central nervous system is formed from the _____.

A

Ectoderm

79
Q

An uncharged N always has _____ bonds.

A

three

80
Q

T/F: Virions are obligate parasites

A

True. Virions cannot reproduce without host cell’s metabolic machinery

81
Q

What media would be used to grow virions in the lab?

A

a tissue culture; Virions needs intracellular machinery of a host cell to divide / survive.
Nutrient baths / suspensions will not support virions.

82
Q

A microbe pathogen would be suspected to be the agent of disease if….

A

the disease is infectious.

MCAT Practice Test 5 (1 decks)

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