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AMT Imm/Sero > AAB/Jarr imm/sero > Flashcards

AAB/Jarr imm/sero Flashcards

1
Q

Person makes ab, immunized/infection, memory

ie. rubella immunization

A

active immunity

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2
Q

ab transferred to, no memory

ie. neonatal syphilitic IgG ab titer

A

passive immunity

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3
Q

1st line, immediate
nonspecific, no memory
skin,acid,PMNs, NK

A

Natural, innate

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4
Q

Takes time
specific, memory
T/B cells (cytokines,ab)

A

Adaptive, acquired,anamnastic

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5
Q

Two parts to adaptive, acquired immunity

A

cellular, humoral

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6
Q

Kind of immunity…
viral,fungal, intracellular
tcell/lymphokines

type 4 delayed

A

cellular

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7
Q

type of immunity
bacteria,phagocytosis,extracellular

type 1(immediate)
type 2(ADCC,complement)
type 3 immune complex

A

humoral

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8
Q

4 things that make antigens more immunogenic

A

large
complex
protein/polysaccharide
foreign

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9
Q

4 subclasses of IgG

A

IgG 1,2,3,4

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10
Q

Immunoglobulin with highest concentration

A

IgG

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11
Q

Concen immunoglobulins high to low

A

G, A, M-D, E

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12
Q

Largest antibody

A

IgM

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13
Q

Pentamer, Jchain, fixes complement the best,
1st to appear in neonates

A

igM

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14
Q

Immunoglobulin on mature cells

A

IgD

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15
Q

Immunoglobulin type 1 hypersensitivity, histamines

A

IgE

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16
Q

Monoclonal ab made by

A

immunizing mouse
combining spleen cells w/myeloma cells

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17
Q

Hybridoma

A

plasma cell fused w/myeloma cells,
make monoclonal abs

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18
Q

Most circulating lymphoid cells are… and are…%

A

Tcells, 80%

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19
Q

5 T cell surface markers

A

CD…2,3,4, 8,25

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20
Q

CD4 surface markers are…
and release…

A

T helper, cytokines

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21
Q

CD3 surface markers are

A

associated w/TCR

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22
Q

CD2 surface markers

A

rosette w/SRBCs

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23
Q

2 Tcell surface markers that are regulatory cells that suppress immune response

A

CD4,25

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24
Q

CD8 is

A

cytotoxic

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25
Q

3 surface markers on B cells

A

CD 19,20,21

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26
Q

2 markers for NK cells

A

CD 16,56

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27
Q

cells that nonspecifically kill virus infected and tumor cells

A

NK

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28
Q

Normal T:B cell ratio

A

8:1

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29
Q

Normal T helper:Tcyto ratio

A

2:1

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30
Q

AIDs T helper:Tcyto

A

1:2

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31
Q

which pathway initiated by immune complexes (IgG/IgM)

A

classical

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32
Q

What consists of 21 proteins that controls inflammation, activates phagocytosis, opsonizes

Enhances ability of antibody, phagocytic cells to clear microbes/damaged cells, promotes inflammation and attack pathogen cell membrane

A

complement

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33
Q

In complement what is the major chemotatic agent

A

C5a

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34
Q

classical complement proteins and order of binding

A

C: 1,4,2,3

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35
Q

Most abundant complement protein in both pathways

A

C3

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36
Q

Alternative complement is activated by

A

lipopolysaccharides, polysaccharides

Pathogen surface

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37
Q

Proteins involved in alternative pathway

A

C3
Factors B/D, H/I
Properdin

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38
Q

complement proteins of MAC

A

C56789

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39
Q

Name of soluble ag+ab forms lattice and visibe precipitate forms

A

precipitation

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40
Q

Double diffusion(ouchterlony),
Single diffusion (radial),
Immunoelectrophoresis,
Immunofixation

All are what kinds of rxns

A

precipitation

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41
Q

antigen excess is called

A

postzone

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42
Q

antibody excess is called

A

prozone

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43
Q

IgE mediated, histamine, mast cell activation
(Bee sting,hay fever,asthma) all are what type of hypersensitivity rxns

A

Type 1, anaphylatic, immediate

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44
Q

Complement mediated cytolysis initiated by ag-ab

Transfusion rxn,AIHA, Hashimoto, Goodpasture all are what type of hypersensitivity rxn

A

Type 2, ab-dependent cytotoxicity

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45
Q

IgG at soluble ag, immune complexes damage tissue

RA, SLE, serum sickness all are what type hypersensitivity

A

Type 3 immunie complex

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46
Q

Type 2 is

A

antibody dependent

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47
Q

Type 1 is

A

anaphylatic, immediate

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48
Q

Type 3 is

A

immune complex

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49
Q

Type 4 is

A

delayed

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50
Q

Ag specific Tcell:
TB skin tests, contact dermatitis, poison ivy, GVHD all are what type of hypersensitivity

A

Type 4 delayed

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51
Q

Two skin tests for allergy

A

RIST,RAST

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52
Q

What test for IgE

A

ELISA

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53
Q

Eos/IgE in what type of hypersensitivity

A

Type 1, anaphylatic, immediate

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54
Q

natural active immunity seen in

A

infection

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55
Q

natural passive immunity seen in

A

maternal ab

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56
Q

2 primary lymphoid organs

A

thymus
bone marrow

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57
Q

What type of immunity with skin,mucous,BF

A

natural

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58
Q

what kind of immunity with vaccines

A

specific immunity
artificial active

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59
Q

adaptive immunity w/ab is called

A

humoral immunity

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60
Q

immunity inside infected cells

A

cell mediated

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61
Q

Plasma protein that activates complement system of innate not involving antibodies, alternate

A

properdin

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62
Q

enzyme that catalyzes destruction of cell walls of bacteria

A

lysozyme

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63
Q

signal protein release by cells due to virus

A

interferon

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64
Q

Subtance that stimulates cell locomotion/migration

A

chemotactic factor

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65
Q

Cell that kills tumor cells nonspecifically

A

NK

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66
Q

Have receptors that are specific for a tumor/microbe

A

cytotoxic cells

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67
Q

Combines to larger carriers to elicit immune response but doesn’t elicit on its own

A

hapten

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68
Q

Enhances immune response

A

adjuvant

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69
Q

molecule that can elicit an immune response

A

immunogen

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70
Q

3 secondary lymphoid organs

A

spleen,tonsils,lymph nodes

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71
Q

Which 2nd lymph organs respond to antigens by making lymphocytes and plasma cells

A

lymph nodes contain WBCS

spleen makes WBCs,ab

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72
Q

cell that specifically kills tumor cells/virally infected

needs exposure

A

T cytotoxic

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73
Q

cell nonspecifically kills tumor

innate/no need exposure

A

NK

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74
Q

Phagocytosis is main function of what cell

A

PMNs

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75
Q

Genes that control expresson of HLA antigens are called

A

MHC
major histocompatibility complex

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76
Q

3 Class I gene products

A

HLA
A,B,C

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77
Q

5 Class II gene products

present antigen outside of the cell of T lymphs

A

HLA
D-M,O,P,Q,R

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78
Q

Ab increases during convalescence phase(symptoms disappear, return to normal)

A

IgG

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79
Q

Ig…best precipitin
soluble ag/specific ab

A

IgG

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80
Q

Ig..best agglutinin

A

IgM

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81
Q

has 4 subclasses

A

IgG

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82
Q

Ig…dimer

A

IgA

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83
Q

2 Ig…monomer

A

IgG, E

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84
Q

Ig…pentamer

A

IgM

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85
Q

2 Ig have Jchain

A

IgM, A

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86
Q

complement are heat…

A

labile

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87
Q

complement acts as an…

and end result of complement is…

A

opsonin

cell lysis

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88
Q

Which ab bind complement

A

IgG/M

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89
Q

First component to bind to immunoglobulin in recognition phase of complement

can bind bacteria,ab,CRP

A

C1q

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90
Q

Proteases of complement that don’t bind/aren’t active

A

Clr/s

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91
Q

Complement component that is chemotactic and anaphylatoxic

Mediator of inflammation and
is released to recruit phagocytes

A

C5a

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92
Q

Factor B,D and properdin is in what pathway

A

alternate

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93
Q

IgG ab binds/attaches to rbc and is reversible is called

A

sensitization

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94
Q

clumping ag w/ab after sensitization is called

A

agglutination (IgM best)

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95
Q

Antigen in agglutination inhibition is…

which is bound to

A

Pt serum

ab reagent

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96
Q

Positive test for aggulutination inhibition

A

no aggglutionation

PT has antigen(in serum) and reagent ab is bound to serum/antigen so it can’t react with indicator

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97
Q

Negative test for agglutination inhibition

A

agglutination

PT doesn’t have antigen in serum, and reagent ab isn’t bound thus reacting w/indicator

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98
Q

Two examples of agglutionation inhibition tests

A

hemaggutination inhibition (rubella)

latex agglutination inhibition (viruses)

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99
Q

complement fixation positive test is

A

no hemolysis

no C available, complement is fixed, not available to combine w/indicator (SRBC coated w/antiSRBC)

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100
Q

when complement finds/attaches to antibody-antigen complex

A

complement fixation

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101
Q

complement fixation negative test

A

hemolysis:

no antibody in serum and complement not bound, attaches to indicator/SRBC+antiSRBC and lyse

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102
Q

What type of rxn/test is ab-ag combined in presence of complement to see if hemolysis occurs

detects IgM ab w/sheep RBC/antiSRBC/hemolysin

A

complement fixation (CF)

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103
Q

…quantitatively determines the level of an antigen. Antibody is incorporated into liquefied agar and allowed to gel. The antigen is added to small wells and radiates throughout the antibody-containing medium, leaving a precipitate throughout the gel. The amount of diffusion is quantified.

A

radial immunodiffusion (RID)
OR
single immunodiffusion

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104
Q

single immunodiffusion also called

A

radial immunodiffusion (RID)

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105
Q

Rxn where diffusion occurs and a ring of precipitate forms on an agar plate with ab where serum/standards are added

A

Radial immunodiffusion(RID)

Single immunodiffusion

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106
Q

… … is an agar gel immunodiffusion.
It is a special precipitation reaction on gels where antibodies react with specific antigens forming large antigen-antibody complexes which can be observed as a line of the precipitate.
In…both the antibody and antigen are allowed to diffuse into the gel.
After application of the reactants in their respective compartments, the antigen and the antibody diffuse toward each other in the common gel and a precipitate is formed at the place of equivalence.

A

Double Immuno-diffusion

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107
Q

Another name for double diffusion

A

Ouchterlony

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108
Q

Test used to determine relationship between ag-ab
Ab is added around ab well and diffussion occurs with precipitation bands

Concentration and rate of diffusion dictates location of bands

Used to id ab w/autoimmune disorders

A

double diffusion/ouchterlony

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109
Q

Double diffusion pattern that fuse together is

A

identity

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110
Q

double diffusion pattern that intersect are

A

nonidentity

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111
Q

double diffusion patterns that parially intersect are

A

partial identity

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112
Q

Test where ab-ag diffuse thru agar after serum proteins are electrophoresed on agar

A

immuno-electrophoresis (IEP)

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113
Q

Serum IEP can detect

A

monoclonal gammopathies

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114
Q

urine IEP can dectect

A

Bence Jones protein or free light chains

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115
Q

In this method the sample goes through a complex process called electrophoresis. This process singles out the different proteins in your blood. A dye is used to bind to the proteins and stain them.

This method “fixes” certain proteins into place with antibodies and then washes away the others before staining them. On a computer screen, these proteins form a pattern of bands. Peaks and valleys in the bands may mean that you may be making too many or too few of certain proteins. The band pattern is specific for certain diseases.

A

Immunofixation

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116
Q

protein electrophoresis plus immuno-precipitation is called

A

immunofixation

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117
Q

Immunofixation is used to classify

A

monoclonal gammoopathies/determine heavy and light chains

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118
Q

name of test where ab-ag migrate toward each other and forms precipitate

rapid migration of the antibody and antigen out of their respective wells towards one another to form a line of precipitation

A

countercurrent
immunoelectrophoresis

CIE

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119
Q

Two examples of RIA, radioimmunoassay

A

RIST:
radio-immunosorbent test

RAST: radioallergosorbent test

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120
Q

Which RIA measures total IgE

A

RIST

radio-immunosorbent test

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121
Q

which RIA measures IgE to specific allergens

A

RAST

radio-allergosorbent test

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122
Q

Which test is a sanwhich tecnique with ab on solid

PT serum added

enzyme labeled ab
enzyme substrate

A

EIA/ELISA

enzyme immunoassay

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123
Q

HIV/Serum HcG/hepatitis mreausred by

A

EIA/ELISA

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124
Q

EMIT measures

enzyme multiplied immunoassay

A

small molecules like drugs, hormones

The enzyme multiplied immunoassay technique (EMIT) is one of the more common drug screening platforms.

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125
Q

Positive EMIT is

A

color
A change in absorbance is measured at 340 nm by a spectrometer

In this enzyme immunoassay (EIA), NAD is reduced to NADH when it reacts with the enzyme G6PD.

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126
Q

Negative EMIT is

A

no color

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127
Q

Test where insoluble complexes reflects scattered light

A

nephleometry

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128
Q

FTA-ABS STANDS FOR…
TESTS FOR…TO…

A

FTA-ABS

Fluorescent
Treponemal
Antibody
ABS: absorption

presence of antibodies to Treponema pallidum

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129
Q

Type of immunohistochemistry technique that utilizes fluorophores to visualize various cellular antigens such as proteins.

A

Immunofluorescence (IF)

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130
Q

ANA and FTA-Abs can be tested with

A

immuno-fluorescence

fluorescein labeled ab

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131
Q

Positive FPIA

A

reduction of polarized light

Inverse proportion, light hits analyze and is not polarized anymore

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132
Q

negative FPIA

A

increased polarized light

Inverse proportion, light still polarized

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133
Q

FP-IA stands for

A

Fluorescence polarization immunoassay

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134
Q

Time frame to test for infectious disease

A

acute and convalescent specimens 2weeks apart

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135
Q

Clinically sig titer for infectious disease is

A

4-fold or 2 tube rise

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136
Q

Ability of test to detect very small amount of a substancwe

A

sensitivity

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137
Q

ability of test to give positive result if PT has the disease-less false neg

A

sensitivity

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138
Q

ability of test to detect substance without interference from cross reacting substances

A

specificity

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139
Q

ability of test to give neg result if PT does not have disease-less false pos

A

speficity

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140
Q

Name of principle where if person has ab to virus, the virus on the RBCs added will be neutralized and inhibit agglutination

A

hemaaglutination inhibition

Ag are on rbcs

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141
Q

a substance in the blood of persons with syphilis responsible for positive serological reactions for syphilis

an antibody (such as IgE in humans) that mediates hypersensitive allergic reactions of rapid onset

A

reagin

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142
Q

fusing B lymphs w/a plasma myeloma cell is how you make

A

monoclonal ab

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143
Q

binding strength of single site

single antigenic determinent + individual ab

A

affinity

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144
Q

total binding strength, multivalent ag-b

A

avidity

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145
Q

reproducible technique for quantitation of a single protein, and is also applicable in a protein mixture.
The quantitation is based on measuring the height of the precipitate peak.

A

one dimensional
single electroimmuno-diffusion

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146
Q

one dimensional
single electroimmunodiffusion also called

A

rocket electrophoresis
LAUREL

In rocket immunoelectrophoresis, antigen migrates in an electric field in a layer of agarose containing an appropriate antibody.

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147
Q

fluorochrome that gives minimal false reading and is green

A

fuorescein
(isothiocyanate)

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148
Q

fluorochrome gives off red at 580nm

A

tetra-methyl
rhodamine isothicyanate

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149
Q

…tests are an indirect method in that they detect biomarkers that are released during cellular damage that occurs from the syphilis spirochete.

They are screening tests, very rapid and relatively simple, but need to be confirmed with…

A

Nontreponemal

confirm with treponemal tests

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150
Q

….tests look for Syphillis antibodies that are a direct result of the infection thus, IgG, IgM and to a lesser degree IgA.

A

Treponemal

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151
Q

The nontreponemal antigen in syphilis is

A

cardiolipin

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152
Q

The VDRL antigens are

A

cardiolipin and lecithin

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153
Q

Nontreponemal antibody

A

reagin

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154
Q

…is a fundamental process utilized to facilitate the aggregation of small particles in a liquid or solution to form larger clusters, known as flocs.

A

Flocculation

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155
Q

VDRL

A

venereal disease research laboratory

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156
Q

Ab-ag rxn in VDRL test is what type

A

flocculation

The VDRL test doesn’t look for the bacteria that cause syphilis. Instead, it checks for the antibodies (reagins) your body makes in response to antigens produced by cells damaged by the bacteria.

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157
Q

Which requires heat inactivation, VDRL or RPR

A

VDRL

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158
Q

In VDRL, each serum sample must be heat-inactivated for…minutes at …prior to testing.

If heat-inactivation occurs more than four (4) hours prior to testing, reheat the serum for an additional …minutes at…

A

Heat inactivate for 30 min at 56C

If >4hrs, reheat 10min at 56C

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159
Q

antigens for RPR

A

cardiolipin + charcoal

The rapid plasma reagin (RPR) test uses the same antigen as VDRL, but the antigen is bound to a carbon particle to allow visualization of the reaction without a microscope.

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160
Q

reactive RPR forms

A

black clumps

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161
Q

two nontreponemal tests/reagin tests

A

VDRL/RPR

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162
Q

Reiter strain serves as a ….
in FTA-ABS

Fluorescent
Treponemal
Antibody
ABS: absorption

A

absorbent, removes nonspecific ab

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163
Q

In FTA-ABS, what strain is used with serum after absorbed off

A

Nichols

FTA-ABS test system employs nonviable T. pallidum (Nichols strain) cells as a substrate (antigen).

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164
Q

Name of test
1.)Absorb ab, Reiter
2.)Add Nichols as a substrate to serum
3.)label, fluorescein

A

FTA
fluorescent treponemal ab absorption

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165
Q

most sensitive tests for syphillis

A

FTS-ABS and EIisa

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166
Q

MHA-TP…
Detects…

A

Microhemagglutination-
Treponema pallidum

detects antibodies

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167
Q

Less likely to be reactive in primary,secondary syphillis in which test

A

MHA-TP
Micro agglutination

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168
Q

Test name that detects treponemal ab

remove nonspecific ab w/sorbent, react serum w/Nichols strain of pallidium, add fluorecein label

A

FTA-ABs
fluorescent treponemal ab absorptoin test

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169
Q

Test you add live treponemes to PT serum

A

TPI
treponema pallidium immobilization test

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170
Q

positive TPI

A

treponemes immobilized

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171
Q

MHA-TP used to detect

A

ab to T.pallidium

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172
Q

in MHA TP what is PT serum added to

A

SRBCs sensitized w/T.pallidum

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173
Q

positive MHA TP

A

agglutination, ab

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174
Q

TP-PA
Treponema pallidum particle agglutination
Used to confirm and
uses what kind of particles

A

gellatin

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175
Q

Which microflocculation test is screen for CSF syphillis

A

VDRL

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176
Q

Whici microflocculation test for syphillis does not require heat

A

RPR

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177
Q

Virus that causes infectious mononucleosis

A

EBV
epstein barr virus

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178
Q

What does the screen for EBV test for

A

heterophile ab

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179
Q

What is a positive rxn for EBV using the screening rapid diff slide test

A

greater agg in kidney absorbed cells

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180
Q

What are the indicator cells for the EBV screen rapid diff slide test

A

Sheep, RBCs

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181
Q

What is the confirmation test for EBV

A

Tests for ab such as ELISA, CLIA

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182
Q

In chemiluminescent immunoassay test/CL-IA to confirm EBV, what stage of infection is it when there is a presesnce of IgG/IgM + anti-VCA in absense of anti-EBNA

A

current or recent

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183
Q

anti-VCA IgM/IgG
anti-EA
anti-EBNA all are antibodies to what virus

A

EBV

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184
Q

Anti-EBNA and IgG anti-VCA w/out IgM anti-VCA indicate what stage of infection of EBV

A

past

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185
Q

Name 5 streptococal ag

A

streptolysin, streptokinase
DNase: deoxyribo-nuclease B
NADase

Hyaluronidase

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186
Q

Streptozyme test:
Kind of rxn..
tests for…
reagent used..

A

A two-minute slide
hemagglutination test

tests for all strep abs

SRBC w/5bstrep ag

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187
Q

Name of specific neutralizaton test for antibody made in group A strep infection

Strep enzyme that is neutralized by PT serum/ab

A

Anti-DNase B test

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188
Q

What is a positve rxn in the anti-DNase B test

A

green color

If anti DNase present it will neutralize the reagent and green color won’t change to clear

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189
Q

Test name where strep abs prevent the lysing of group O rbcs by neutralizing

Ab will bind ag and keep it from lysing

A

Anti-streptolysin O neutralization test

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190
Q

What indicates presence neutralizing ab in the anti-strepolysin O neutralizing test

A

Dilution of last tube shows no hemolysis

Ab will bind ag and keep it from lysing

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191
Q

Name of reciprocal of dilution of last tube in anti-streptolysin O neutralization test

A

Todd units

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192
Q

What is used to screen for HIV-1 ab

A

ELISA

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193
Q

2 ways to Confirmation for HIV

A

Western blot
Nucleic acid testing

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194
Q

Name of retrovirus that attackes CD4 cells

A

HIV-1

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195
Q

Cause of CMV

A

herpes virus

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196
Q

Testing for CMV

A

ELISA

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197
Q

HepB serology involved in acute phase

A

HBsAg, HBeAg

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198
Q

Hep B serology involved in early recovery

A

anti-HBc IgM

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199
Q

Hep B serology involved in recovery, immunity

A

anti-HBc total
anti-HBs
anti-HBe

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200
Q

Hep A serology recent infection

A

anti-HAV IgM

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201
Q

Order of Hepatitis B ag/ab

A

HBsAg, HBeAg
antiHBc, antiHBe, antiHBs

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202
Q

Paul Bunnell heterophil ab test uses what type of rbc

A

sheep

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203
Q

Paul Bunnell heterophil ab used to detect

A

ab from IM

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204
Q

Forssman ab are absorbed by what kind of kidney antigen

A

guinea pig

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205
Q

Davidsohn diff test uses what kind of rbc

A

sheep and horse

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206
Q

Which antigen is the somatic antigen used to determine antigenic grouping of enteric bacteria

A

O

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207
Q

which antigen is the flagellar antigen

A

H

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208
Q

Widal test tests for what

A

Salmonella typhi

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209
Q

An elevated O titer in the Widal test indicates

A

increase in agglutinins to S.typhi

210
Q

Weil-Felix test detects ab to

A

Rickettsia

211
Q

Proteus,OX19-2, agglutination all have to do with what organism

A

rickettsia

212
Q

What kinds of strains are OX19 and OX2 antigens

A

strains of Proteus vulgaris

213
Q

Widal(typhoid) and Weil-Felix (Rikettsial) detect

A

febrile agglutinins

Febrile (warm) agglutinins are active at normal body temperatures.

214
Q

Francisella tularensis will cross react with

A

Brucella abortus

franci-ella sounds like bruc-ella

215
Q

To diagnose aspergillosis, titer must be

A

1:512

216
Q

cryptococcal antigen test is replacing what test…

A

India in
Cryptococcal neoforman fungal CSF

217
Q

What inferes w/crytococcal antigen latex agg test

A

RF

218
Q

autoimmune disease where IgM/IgG ab are directed against Fc portion of human IgG

A

RA

219
Q

What type of hypersensitivity is RA, what is formed

A

Type 3
immune complexes

220
Q

what does screening test, RF assay for RA detect

A

serum IgM

221
Q

Confirmatory test for RA

A

anti-CCP

cyclic citrullinated peptide

Cyclic citrullinated peptides are circular proteins that contain citrulline. When inflammation is present, the body converts the amino acid arginine to the amino acid citrulline.

222
Q

Screen test for autoimmune dieases

A

ELISA

223
Q

Two tests for ANA are

A

ELISA
IIF
indirect immunofluorescence

224
Q

Antinuclear antibodies are seen in what conditions

A

SLE
Sjogrens
Scleroderma
RA
Mixed. Connective tissue disease

225
Q

In IIF for ANA what cells are fixed to a slide

A

HEp2 cells

226
Q

Disease where autoab to myelin sheath of nerves/myelin basic protein

Myelin is an insulating layer, or sheath that forms around nerves, including those in the brain and spinal cord

A

MS

227
Q

In MS, what kind of bands are in CSF but not in serum

A

oligoclonal IgG

228
Q

Disease name in hyperthyroidism

A

Graves Disease

229
Q

Disease where autoab are directed against TSH receptors (TSH-R)

A

Graves, hyperthyroidism

Less TSH means thyroid makes more T3/T4

230
Q

In Graves disease what are TSHs and T3/T4 levels

A

Low TSH
Increased T3/T4

231
Q

TPO…
High levels indicate both…

A

TPO:
Thyroid peroxidase antibodies (TPOAb)
High levels of these antibodies are seen in both Graves and Hashimoto’s

232
Q

TR-Ab…
Sign of…

A

TRAb:
Thyrotropin/TSH receptor ab (TRAb).

These antibodies can be a sign of Graves’ disease.

233
Q

TSI…
Seen in…

A

thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulin

High levels of TSI in the blood can indicate the presence of Graves’ disease

TSIs are antibodies that tell the thyroid gland to become more active and release excess amounts of thyroid hormone into the blood.

234
Q

TSHR ab…
Seen in…

A

Autoantibodies (Ab) against the thyroid-stimulating hormone receptor (TSHR) are frequently found in Graves

235
Q

3 ab elevated in Graves

A

TSHR-ab/TR-Ab
TSI
TPO

236
Q

Graves disease symptoms

A

anxious
weight loss
goiter

237
Q

Name of disease with hypothyroidism

A

Hashimotos thyroiditis

238
Q

Tg/Tg-Ab…
Sign of…

A

Thyroglobulin antibodies (TgAb)

Hashimotos thyroiditis

239
Q

Autoab made against thyroglobulin

Thyroglobulin antibodies (TgAb). High levels of these antibodies are a sign of this disease.

thyroglobulin helps make T3/T4, decreased equals less T3/T4

A

Hashimotos thyroiditis

240
Q

In Hashimotos, what are the TSH levels

A

increased TSH

241
Q

In Hashimotos, what ab are present

A

TPO
Tg/Tg-Ab

242
Q

Symptoms of Hashimotos

A

Tired
Weight gain
intolerance to cold

243
Q

A type of cancer that develops in the lymph system and has Reed-Sternberg cells

A

Hodgkin lymphoma, also called Hodgkin disease

244
Q

IM
Burkitts, Hodgkin’s
Carcinoma
Lymproloferative all associated with

A

EBV

245
Q

is an aggressive non-Hodgkin B-cell lymphoma, worse prognosis than Hodgkins

A

Burkitt lymphoma (BL)

246
Q

Lab finding in IM

A

Lymphocytosis>50%
20% atypical
Hetetophile ab
Ab EBV ag

247
Q

Name of ab formed against Forssman ag (discovered in guinea pig tissue)

A

Forssman hetetophile ab

248
Q

Name of test screens for hetetophile ab using titer of ab

Incubated with sheep RBC

Highest dilution of agglutination

A

Paul Bunnell test

249
Q

Paul Bunnell test titer needs to be

A

> 56

250
Q

Performed when Paul Bunnell is >56

A

David-sohn diff test

251
Q

True false, Paul Bunnell diff between hetetophile ab

A

False

252
Q

Test that diff hetetophile ab, uses sheep and horse RBC

A

Davidsohn diff test

253
Q

Sig titer in Davidsohn

A

> 224

254
Q

2 EBV antigens in early acute phase

A

EAR, EAD

(restricted,nuclear)
(diffuse, nucleus, cytoplasm)

255
Q

PT sero neg, lacks ab to VCA they are

A

Susceptible to EBV

256
Q

Has IgM to VCA, EBNA absent
High IgG VCA is what stage of infection

A

Primary infection

257
Q

Ab to EBNA, increased EA ab what stage of EBV

A

Reactivation

258
Q

Ab to VCA and EBNA what stage

A

Past infection

259
Q

Gliadin is also called

A

Gliadin is primarily found in major sources of gluten

260
Q

Disease that is hypersensitive to gliadin/gluten

A

Celiac disease/sprue

261
Q

2 HLA markers in all celiac

A

HLA-
DQ 2, 8

262
Q

Disease where autoab directed against TSH receptors

A

Graves

263
Q

Disease where autoab directed against basement mebrane of kidney and lungs

A

Goodpastures

264
Q

Goodpastures disease has autoab against basement membrane of …and…

A

kidney and lungs

265
Q

Disease where autoab directed against thyroglobulin

A

Hashimotos

266
Q

Disease where autoab directed against myeline sheath of nerves or myelin basic protein

A

MS

267
Q

Disease where autoab directed against acetylcholine receptors at neuromuscular joints

A

MG
myasthenia gravis

268
Q

Disease where IgM autoab directed against Fc portion of IgG

A

RA

269
Q

Disease where autoab directed against salivary duct,tear duct

A

SJogrens syndrome

270
Q

ANA centromere pattern associated with

A

CREST

271
Q

Nucleolar ANA pattern associated with these two diseases

A

Scleroderma
CTD connective tissue

272
Q

SLE ANA patterns

A

Most suggestive: Homogenous(diffuse)

Peripheral(rim)

273
Q

What is used in diagnosing, determining progression, choosing drugs, monitoring diseases

A

tumor markers

274
Q

Tumor markers tested using

A

ELISA

275
Q

AFP, Alpha Fetoprotein associated with these 3 cancers/organs

A

liver
ovary, testes

276
Q

CEA, carcinoembryonic ag associated with this main one and two other cancer/organs

A

colon

breast
lung

277
Q

CA 15-3 associated with this cancer/organ

A

breast

278
Q

4 Breast tumor markers:

3 main…
1 general…

A

CA-15-3
BR 27-29
Estsrogen/Progesterone receptors

CEA

279
Q

2 ovary tumor markers

A

CA 125
AFP

280
Q

CA 125 what organ/tumor marker

A

ovary

281
Q

CA 19-9 what organ/tumor marker

A

pancreas

282
Q

2 testes/testicular markers
1 prostate

A

HCG
AFP
PSA

283
Q

Beta-2 microglobulin marker for

A

MM, CLL

284
Q

Disease with ineffective phagocytosis, defect in neutrophils thus recurrent bacterial infections

A rare heterogeneous condition described as a series of recurrent life-threatening infections. Defective phagocyte NADPH oxidase causes the disease. The ultimate result is the inability of phagocytes such as neutrophils, monocytes, and macrophages to destroy certain microbes.

A

CGD
chronic granulomatous

285
Q

Disease with impaired neutrophil function

A

Chediak-Higashi syndrome

286
Q

T cell deficiency disease, no thymus

A

DiGeorge’s syndrome

287
Q

DiGeorge has no thymus

A

…

288
Q

Decreased TH, TH/TS ratio/Tcell proliferation

A

HIV

289
Q

Partial combined immunodef, thrombocytopenia at birth

A

Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

290
Q

Complete or marked def of T and B

A

SCID
severe combined immunodef

291
Q

Name of test where dilute serum is added to latex coated AHG to detect ag against IgG

A

RF latex slide test

292
Q

Which test…
detects IgM, positive doesn’t agg, is a screen, and synovial fluid can be a source

A

RF factor latex

293
Q

Anti-RNP indicates

A

Mixed connective tissue disease

294
Q

Ab to proteins in centromere of chromosome indicates…

A

CREST

295
Q

anti-dsDNA or anti-histone indicates these two diseases…

ANA pattern of…

A

SLE
drug induced lupus

Homogenous/diffuse

296
Q

anti-ds DNA highly suggestive of…
has a ANA pattern of…

A

SLE
Homogeneous
Peripheral/rim

297
Q

Anti-RNA, anti-ENA has what ANA pattern…

Associated w/most but not…

A

speckeled

not CREST

298
Q

2 SLE pattern

A

peripheral/rim, homogenous/diffuse

299
Q

Anti-I ab seen in present infections with what ogranism

A

Mycoplasma penumoniae

300
Q

After infection with Myco pneumo, what forms

A

cold agglutinins

301
Q

Acute/chronic infection HB ag

A

HBsAg, HBeAg

302
Q

Vaccinated HB ab

A

anti-HBs

303
Q

early recovery HB…
recovery HB…

A

early: antiHBcIgM
recovered: antiHBc,HBs,HBe

304
Q

HSV that can cause urogenital infections/genital herpes…

which one more common in genital herpes

A

HSV 1,2

HSV 2 is 90% of genital herpes

305
Q

HSV more related to sex, mom passing on, genital

A

HSV 2

306
Q

HSV more related to oral, break in skin

A

HSV 1

307
Q

HSV 3 is which virus

A

varicella zoster virus

308
Q

How to type HSV with high specificity

A

ELIAA

309
Q

Serotype HSV with

A

DFA
direct fluoresecent ab

310
Q

Cause of chicken pox, spread thru respiratory, spreads to blood, skin and lays dormant in nerves

A

Varicella zoster virus

311
Q

Latent varicella zoster turns into

A

Herpes Zoster, shingles

312
Q

Serological test for VZV

A

ELIAA

313
Q

CMV is diagnosed serologically by detecting

A

IgM and IgG ab

314
Q

IgM ab with 4 fold increased in IgG indicates what stage of CMV

A

active

315
Q

IgG, no IgM ab indicates what stage of disease in CMV

A

inactive

316
Q

Which virus attacks monos/grans/lymphs/epis

is spread by STI, tranplant tissue, thru placenta

A

CMV

317
Q

Why is indirect immunofluorescence not a great test for CMV

A

Has false positives

318
Q

Screening test for immunity to rubella

A

IgG ab

319
Q

Serological test for rubella, VZV, HSV, and T.gondii

A

ELIAA
enzyme linked immunosorbent assay

320
Q

Serological test for T.gondii is called

A

ELIAA
IgG, IgE

321
Q

Mantoux skin/TB test type of hypersensitivity

A

Type 4 delayed

322
Q

Type III rxn due to

A

immune complexes

323
Q

Type II due to

A

antibody, transfusion, AIHA

324
Q

Type I due to

A

anaphylactic

325
Q

Ataxia telangiectasia

A

Louis bar

genetic, nervous, immune

ataxia

326
Q

Brutons aggamaglobulinemia

A

sex linked immunodef, absense of plasma cells thus lack of ab made

327
Q

Tcell subset enumeration by flow cytometry can be used in what syndrome

A

DiGeorge

they have no thymus, tcell def

328
Q

West nile caused by

A

arbovirus, bite from mosquito (female culex) that feed on birds

329
Q

Virus that Can attach immune cells, can make BBB more impermeable

A

WNV

330
Q

Serologic method for WNV

A

IgM ab

331
Q

Giardia common in

A

water, water parks, vegetables

332
Q

Diagnositc forms of Giardia

A

in feces
infective is cyst
troph

333
Q

Diagnosis Giardia thru 3 ways

A

fecal ag test, EIA/direct IFA
examine stool cyst/troph
biopsy troph

334
Q

Lyme diease caused by vector/organism

A

ticks, Borrelia

335
Q

2 step testing Serological testing for Lyme

A

1.)EIA
2.)Western blot

336
Q

Tick that spreads B.Burgdorferi

A

Ixodes tick, deer

337
Q

Which Borrelia is in US and causes lyme disease

A

B.Burgdorferi

338
Q

Serological diagnosis of Lyme

A

ELISA

339
Q

Crytosporidium parvum infectious stage

A

sporulated oocyst

340
Q

How is C.parvum transmitted

A

oocyst is ingested from fecal contam food etc

diarrhea, AIDs

341
Q

Testing for C.parvum

A

PCR, Antigen, NAAT
Stool not so sensitive, acid fast stain

342
Q

Cryptococus

A

soil, pidgeon droppings
inhalation

narrow based budding
india ink, halos form
latex agg test for ag PCA

AIDs,lung infections, meningitis

343
Q

Process tags foreign pathogens to be eliminated by phagocytosis

A

opsonization

344
Q

process that cells takes in fluid along with dissolved small molecules

A

pinocytosis

345
Q

process where person becomes protected against a disease thru vaccination

A

immunization

346
Q

plasma glycoprotein that activates the complement system of the innate immune system

A

properdin

347
Q

enzyme that catalyzes the destruction of cell walls of certain bacteria

A

lysozymes

348
Q

signaling protein made and released by host cells in response to presence of several viruss

A

interferon

349
Q

substances that stimulate cellular locomotion/migration

A

chemotactic factors

350
Q

3 types of phagocytes in innate immunity that ingest/destroy damaged cells/bacteria in antigen independent fashion and all are from myeloid

A

macrophages (tissue monos)
Neutrophils/PMNs

Dendritic cells (DCs):
are antigen-presenting cells that capture, process, and present antigens to lymphocytes to initiate and regulate the adaptive immune response.

351
Q

complement and acute phase reactants are part of the

A

innate immune system

352
Q

In adaptive immunity, dendritic cells act as

A

APC
engulf and present to B/T cells

353
Q

Which 3 classes of hypersensitivity are involved in humoral immunity of adaptive system

A

I
II
III

354
Q

Immediate, IgE hypersensitivity

A

I

355
Q

Immune complex hypersensitivity

A

III

356
Q

ADCC, complement hypersensitivity

A

II

357
Q

An antigen that ellicit a response from an organisms adaptive immune system

A

immunogen

358
Q

ability of agent to elicit a immune response

A

immunogenicity

359
Q

enhances immune response

A

adjuvant

360
Q

this is recognized by the immune system, the part of an antigen molecule to which an antibody attaches itself

A

epitope

361
Q

can combine to larger carrier to elicit immune/doen’t elicit on its own;

smaller molecules that are antigenic but can’t be immunogenic unless bound to larger molecule such as a protein

A

hapten

362
Q

vaccination is a type of

A

artifical active immunity

363
Q

two organs that respond to circulating antigens by filtering/producing lymphs and plasma cells

A

lymph nodes and spleen

364
Q

T cells differentiate/are dependent in the…
B cells differentiate in the…

A

T cells…thymus
B cells..bone marrow

365
Q

Main function of Thelper…
Two other functions..

A

-activate Bcells to secrete antibody

-help macrophages destroy/ingest
-activate cytotoxic Tcells

366
Q

Ab production turned off by

A

Suppressor T cells

367
Q

Small polypeptides given off by Tcells that regulate function of phagocytic cells

A

lymphokines

368
Q

T cell that specificially kills tumor/virally infected cells

A

cytotoxic T cells, CD8

369
Q

effector lymphs that nonspecifically destroy infected cells/cancer that don’t need previous exposure, part of innate

A

NK

370
Q

Two types of T helper cells

A

TH1
TH2

371
Q

which T helper activates macrophages

A

TH1

372
Q

which T helper activates B to make antibodies

A

TH2

373
Q

Which T cell marker recognizes MHC 1 which is on most cells

A

CD8

374
Q

Which T cell marker recognizes MHC 2 which are APC

A

CD4

375
Q

Cells of innate that are antigen presenting

A

dendritic

376
Q

Foreign body or molecule that will bind to specific antibody or T cells

A

antigen

377
Q

The principal function of the… is to present antigen to T cells to discriminate between self (our cells and tissues) and nonself (the invaders or modified self).

A

MHC

378
Q

Another name for epitope

A

determinant

379
Q

reactive sites of an antigen

A

epitope/determinant

380
Q

antibody whose production did not induce

A

heterologous antigen

381
Q

Most potent antigen

A

protein

382
Q

The 5 types of immunoglobulins are distinguished by their…
And is called … …which determines their antibody class

A

constant region of heavy chain

antigenic variation

383
Q

Term when soluble antigen and soluble antibody form insoluble

A

precipitin

384
Q

Best precipitin immunoglobulin

A

IgG

385
Q

Term where one antibody binds many antigens

A

agglutinin

386
Q

Best agglutinin immunoglobulin

A

IgM

387
Q

When symptoms start to disappear and return to normal its called

A

covalescence

388
Q

Immunoglobulin in convalescence phase

A

IgG

389
Q

IgG has how many subclasses

A

4

390
Q

Ig M and A have how many subclasses

A

2

391
Q

Two immunoglobulins with J chains

A

IgM,IgA

392
Q

Immunglobulin thought to function as antigentic receptor site on B cell surface

A

IgM

IgM is the first class of immunoglobulin made by B cells as they mature, and it is the form most commonly present as the antigen receptor on the B-cell surface.

393
Q

Immunoglobulins in order of decreasing concentration

A

G>A>M>D>E

394
Q

Immunoglobulin has …light chains and …heavy chains

A

2,2

395
Q

Which region of the immunoglobulin binds to antigen

A

variable region

396
Q

Which part has the disulfide bridge

A

constant region

397
Q

proteolytic enzyme that fragments IgG into 3 fragments

A

papain

398
Q

Fragment termed the antigen binding fragment after cleaved by papain

A

Fab

399
Q

F(ab)2 is cleaved by

A

pepsin

400
Q

Fc is which fragment of the ab molecule

A

crystallizable

401
Q

Hinge region is between

A

CH1 and CH2

402
Q

3 functions of complement

A

inflammation
mediates ag/ab reactions
defends against bacteria viruses

403
Q

small peptide that is formed during complement activation causing increased vascular permeability, contraction of smooth muscle, release of histamine from mast cells

A

anaphylatoxin

404
Q

Plasma proteins normally in circulation that are heat labile and designated by letters and numbers

A

complement

405
Q

Complement component in highest concentration in serum in both classical and alternative pathways

A

C3

406
Q

All 3 pathways generate protease C3 convertase which binds to pathogen and generates…

…is the middle man, binds to C3 convertase to form C5 convertase; activates MAC

A

C3b

407
Q

Ultimate goal of MAC/complement activation

A

cell lysis

408
Q

3 things that affect ag-ab binding
1 that doens’t affect

A

ph, temp, incubation time
enzyme concentration not part of it

409
Q

Pathway that binds to pathogen surface, C3/B/D/properdin, MAC and cell lysis

A

alternate

410
Q

Pathway that binds mannose on pathogen, immune complexes, opsonizes

A

MB-Lectin

411
Q

Pathway that is ag-ab, starts with C1q then goes to 4,2,3; involves C5a; inflammation, chemotaxis, anaphlatoxin

A

classical

412
Q

Place where optimal precipitation occures, forms lattice;
most ab is precipitated by the least of amt of ag

A

zone of equivalence

413
Q

Precipitation can be converted to agglutination by increasing the size of the antigen (may be by adding beads etc and getting it to visibly agglutinate)

A

indirect agglutination

as opposed to direct where the antigen can agglutinate without adding anything

414
Q

Movement of ag or ab to make ag-ab complexes in semi solid media

A

immuno-diffusion

diffusion=movement

415
Q

Ag and ab BOTH free to move toward each other to form a precipitate

A

2 D diffusion

416
Q

Ab added to center well, PT sera/stds in weels around center and diffusion results in bands of precipitation.

Identity of ab associated with autoimmune disorders

A

double diffusion
ouchterlony

417
Q

Gull wing formation (looks like a seagull wing where precipitan line occurs in middle of ag-ag meet)

occurs when an abnormal protein is electrophoretically displaced from the normal position in what method

ag toward one electrode, ab toward other, meet in middle

A

CIE
countercurrent immunoelectrophoresis

418
Q

Heavy and light chains in gammopathies and Bence Jones protein in urine in this method

A

immuno-electrophoresis

419
Q

Immunoassay type requires step to separate bound from free label/wash

A

heterogenous

420
Q

Immunoassay that doesn’t require a wash step

A

homogenous

421
Q

Electrophoresis+immunoprecipitation

consists of an electrophoresis phase and a fixation phase

After electrophoresis, this method applies antiserum directly to a plate w/strips of agar; antisera added, ag-ab precipitate, wash, stain

used for monoclonal gammopathies

A

immuno-fixation

422
Q

EMIT is used for urine drugs of abuse where free drug binds to antibody blocking active site;

enzyme activity=amt free drug;

type of immunoassay is

A

homogenous

423
Q

Type of assay where it’s noncompetitive, heterogenous;
solid phase wells/ELISA plates/beads;
activity/absorbance of detection molecule directly proportional to amount of antigen

A

sandwich immunoassay

424
Q

Energy source for fluorescence microscopes

A

mercury vapor lamp

425
Q

Fluorochrome used to stain tissue/culture and id microbes with exceedingly bright fluorescence

A

biotin-avidin

426
Q

In ELISA, what is attached to the solid phase…

ab/ag of unknown sample is added, ab specific for ag w/label is added and then washed

A

ab or ag

427
Q

In ELISA AHG is conjugated with…

A

horseradish peroxidase

428
Q

Two systems in complement fixation

A

Test: antibody in serum
Indicator: SRBC/antiSheep hemolysin

429
Q

Indicator in complement fixation

A

SRBC which are sensitized by anti sheep hemolysin

430
Q

When checking for anticomplementary factors when using controls for complement fixation there will be…

A

hemolysis=neg test

431
Q

Positive control in complement fixation will show..

A

no hemolysis

432
Q

Sydrome with tear/salivary glands affected, lymphocytic infiltration; can get bcell lymphoma

A

Sjogrens

433
Q

autoantibodies SSA,SSB seen in

A

sjogrens synydrome(SS)

434
Q

Condition that can turn into B cell lymphoma

A

Sjogrens syndrome

435
Q

Progressive systemic sclerosis also called

A

scleroderma

436
Q

SCL-70 antibodies seen in

A

SCLeroderma

437
Q

mulitisystem disease, rashes, renal; malar rash (butterfly)

A

SLE
systemic lupus erthyematosis

438
Q

SLE has ….and a ….ana pattern.

A

dsDNA, homogenous

439
Q

CREST symtoms seen in

A

limited sclerosis

440
Q

centromere ANA seen in

A

limited CREST

441
Q

ab to RNP only seen in

A

mixed connective tissue

442
Q

In Rhematoid arthritis, the antibody is Ig… against the Fc portion of Ig…

A

IgM against Fc of IgG

443
Q

anti-CCP

A

cyclic citrullinated peptide

444
Q

anti CCP seen in

A

RA

445
Q

Screen for ANA..
follow up…

A

ELISA
IFA (indirect immunofluorescence)

446
Q

In IFA, what cells are used in the interphase

A

Hep2 cells

447
Q

ANA pattern with even staining of dsDNA…
indicative of…

A

homogenous, SLE/lupus

448
Q

ANA pattern with nucleoli staining, RNA

A

Nucleolar

449
Q

ANA pattern with SSA, SSB

A

speckled

450
Q

ANA pattern with dots, CREST

A

centromere

451
Q

Thyroid disease with autoantibodies against thyroid

A

Hashimotos

452
Q

autoantibody in hashimoto

A

Tg-ab thyroglobulin

453
Q

Thyroid disease with stimulating and blocking ab against TSH receptor

A

Graves

454
Q

3 Antibodies against TSH-R

A

TSI, TRab, TSH-R ab

455
Q

Distinguish Brutons agammaglobuneia versus transient hypoagammaglobunemia

A

Brutons agammaglobuneia:
<100mg/dL CD19 Bcell

transient hypoagammaglobunemia:
absense of mature CD19B cells

456
Q

Xlinked, males immunodef dealing with CD19 B cells

A

brutons agammaglobulinemia

457
Q

Leukemia versus lymphoma

A

leukemia blood, lymphoma tissue

458
Q

Two conditions from sequalea of S.pyogens infection

A

rheutmatic fever
acute glomerlonephretitis

459
Q

syphillis Stage with lesion/chancre

A

primary

460
Q

syphillis stage thats contagious

A

secondary

461
Q

syphillis stage thats noninfectious

A

latent

462
Q

syphillis stage with scarring, CNS invovlement

A

late

463
Q

Nontreponemal tests for…
Treponemal tests for…

A

cardilipins
proteins of T.pallidum

464
Q

In EBV, presence of antiVCA and EA indicate

A

recent infection

465
Q

In EBV, presence of only EBNA indicates

A

past infection

466
Q

Two parasites water borne, diarhea

A

cryptosporidium, Giardia

467
Q

Syphillis nontreponemal antigen and antibody produced to it

A

cardiolipin=ag
reagin=ab

468
Q

cardiolipin and lecithin used in what test

A

VDRL

469
Q

How often are the needles used to deliver VDRL antigen checked and the stability of the VDRL antigen suspension checked…

how many drops for antigen needle qualitative VDRL…

how many drops for saline needle quantitative VDRL…

A

daily

antigen qualitative 60drops/mL

saline quantitative 100drops/mL

470
Q

Nontreponemal:
cardiolipin,lethicin
heat inactivation (to destroy complement)
CSF

A

VDRL

471
Q

Nontreponemal
cardiolipin,
Plastic coated cards

A

RPR

472
Q

Initial time/temp to heat inactivate VDRL…

Reheat time/temp to heat inactivate VDRL…

A

initial 30min @56C
reheat 10min @56C

473
Q

VDRL:

serum:antigen…

small clumps, many free particle interp…
titer reactive/weak reactive perform…
report quant as…

A

3:1 more serum

-small clumps/many free: weakly reactive
-titer reactive/weak perform quantitative
-quantitation titer is highest dilution giving reactive result

474
Q

RPR antigen needle drops…
RPR rotated at…for…

A

60 drops/mL
100rpm for 8 mins

475
Q

False pos not caused by syphilis seen in what test

A

nontreponemal testing

476
Q

antistreptolysin O (ASO) measures

A

ab to streptolysin O

477
Q

antistreptolysin O slide test postive is..
antistreoptolysin O tube test pos is…

A

slide: agglutination
tube: no hemolysis

478
Q

in antistreptolysin O tube test, a positive test is…
measured in…

A

positive is no hemolysis
last tube with no hemolysis in Todd units=neutralizing ab present

The unit in which the results of testing for antistreptolysin O (ASO) are expressed. It denotes the reciprocal of the highest dilution of test serum at which there continues to be neutralization of a standard preparation of the streptococcal enzyme streptolysin O

479
Q

classic antistreptolysin O test the reagent is destroyed by…

A

destroyed by oxygen

480
Q

Streptoccocal extracellular product that dissolves fibrin clots

Used to dissolve blood clots that have formed in the blood vessels

A

streptokinase

481
Q

Heterophil ab test screens for…
Reported as…

A

EBV,IM
highest dilution w/agglutination

482
Q

Paul Bunnell heterophil ab test uses

A

SRBCs

that agglutinate with heterohile ab from IM

483
Q

Heterogenic antigen on tissue/organs(kidney) of guinea pig

A

Forssman antigen

484
Q

What are absorbed by guinea pig kidney antigen

A

Forssman antibodies

485
Q

What test differentiates the 2 types of heterophil ab

A

Davidsohn heterophil antibody test

486
Q

Davidsohn heterophil ab test uses these two rbcs

A

sheep, horse

487
Q

Antigen for somatic antigenic grouping of enteric bacteria…

Antigen for flagellar…

antigen for capsular…

Vi for…

A

O=somatic

H=flagellar

K=capsular

Vi=S.typhi

488
Q

Somatic antigen O used in…
Elevated titer means increase in…to…

A

Widal
increase agglutinins to S.typhi

Widal Test is an agglutination test which detects the presence of serum agglutinins (H and O) in patients serum with typhoid and paratyphoid fever.

489
Q

Weil-Felix detects ab to…
OX19/OX2 antigens used in this test are…

A

rickettsia

Proteus strains

490
Q

Widal and Weil-Felix both detect…
Widal detects this organism…
Weil-Felix detects this organism…

A

both detect febrile agglutinins
Widal: S,typhi
Weil-Felix: Rickettsia

491
Q

Cryptococcal antigen test is replacing…
Crytococcal antigen latex agg interferce by..

A

Ink ink
RF

492
Q

RF latex:
uses PT serum with latex covered with…
Detects Ig…
Pos is…
Used to…
can use.. fluid

A

covered with AHG
detects IgM
pos is agglutination (not rbc, latex)
used to screen RA
synovial fluid can be used

493
Q

ANA with antiRNP suggestive of

A

mixed connective tissue disease

494
Q

Autoantigen of thyroid seen in Hashimotos

ab seen in Hashimotos

A

thyrogobulin

TgAb

495
Q

Cold agg test incubates sample at…

cold reacting ab seen in…with anti…

A

4C

mycoplasma pneumoniea, anti I

496
Q

Herpes simplex virus that is 90% of genital herpes, sex, mom/baby1

A

HSV 2

497
Q

Herpes simplex that is mostly oral, break in skin

A

HSV1

498
Q

Herpes simplex that cause urogenital infections

A

both 1/2 can

499
Q

Used to serotype HSV…
High specificity to type HSV…

A

serotype: DFA
specificity: ELISA

500
Q

Chicken pox caused by…
shingles caused by…

A

chicken pox varicella zoster
shingles Herpes zoster

501
Q

Serological testing for HSV, VZV, Rubella, toxoplasma

A

ELIAA/ELISA

502
Q

circular proteins that contain citrulline. When inflammation is present, the body converts the amino acid arginine to the amino acid citrulline.

A

cyclic citrullinated peptide

Cyclic citrullinated peptides are circular proteins that contain citrulline. When inflammation is present, the body converts the amino acid arginine to the amino acid citrulline.

503
Q

Confirmatory test for RA

A

anti-CCP

504
Q

CCP

A

cyclic citrullinated peptide

Cyclic citrullinated peptides are circular proteins that contain citrulline. When inflammation is present, the body converts the amino acid arginine to the amino acid citrulline.

505
Q

Reed-Sternberg cells Seen in…

A

Hodgkin lymphoma, also called Hodgkin disease

506
Q

Burkitt lymphoma is also called

A

(BL) is an aggressive non-Hodgkin B-cell lymphoma.

507
Q

TSH another name

A

Thyrotropin

508
Q

Thyrotropin also called

A

TSH

509
Q

Electroimmunodiffusion is also called

A

Rocket immunodiffision

Ids single protein

510
Q

SCL70 seen in

A

SCLeroderma

511
Q

IgM and CCP antibodies seen in

A

RA

512
Q

Sm and dsDNA antibodies seen in

A

SLE

513
Q

RNP antibodies seen in

A

MCTD
Mixed connective tissue disease

514
Q

SSA, SSB antibodies and Bcell lymphoma seen in

A

Sjogrens syndrome

515
Q

CREST symptoms and centromere antibodies seen in

A

Limited scelerosis

516
Q

Serological Test that’s good for many viruses

A

ELISA

517
Q

A rare genetic immunodeficiency that keeps a child’s immune system from functioning properly. It also makes it difficult for a child’s bone marrow to produce platelets, making a child prone to bleeding.

It occurs mostly in males.

Thrombocytopenia at birth

A

Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

518
Q

AntiDNase, AntiStreptolysin tube and complement are all

A

Neutralization tests

519
Q

Anti streptolysin O tube and complement positive is, negative if

A

Positive: no hemolysis
Negative: Hemolysis

520
Q

Ig with 4 subclasses

A

IgG

521
Q

Ig with lowest concentration

A

E

AMT Imm/Sero (1 decks)

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