AAAAAAAA Flashcards

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1
Q

conversion of an impulse or stimulus from one physical or chemical form to another. Also is the process by which a cell responds to an extracellular signal

A

Signal transduction

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2
Q

Communication between cells involves four essential elemnts

A
  1. signaling cell
  2. signaling molecule
  3. Target cell
  4. Receptor molecule
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3
Q

In intracellular communication signal is recieved by _______. It uses ________ messengers

A

receptors; second

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4
Q

a. Proteins or peptides
b. Amino acids or nucleotides
c. Steroids and fatty acid derivatives
d. Dissolved gases
Are all examples of what?

A

extracellular signal molecules

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5
Q

What are the 3 modes of signaling and the 1 mode of long distance signaling?

A

Short term:
(NPC) Neuronal, paracrine, contact-dependant;
Long term:
Endocrine

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6
Q

Endocrine signaling is _____ term and its signaling molecules are called _______. These are produced in endocrine glands.

A

long; hormones

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7
Q

pancreas produces insulin which regulates glucose uptake. This is an example of what type of signaling?

A

Endocrine

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8
Q

A type of local signaling. Signaling molecules released by one cell into the extracellular fluid act as local mediators. Signals act on neighboring target cells.

A

Paracrine Signaling

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9
Q

These are examples of what kind of signaling?
Growth factors – regulate growth and proliferation
Cytokines - molecules that regulate inflammation

A

Paracrine signaling

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10
Q

Type of Local signaling. Cells respond to signaling molecules that they themselves produce.
Example: Cancer cells

A

Autocrine signaling

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11
Q

Type of Local Signaling. Neuronal signals are transmitted electrically along a nerve cell axon.
Results in the release of neurotransmitters onto adjacent target cells. Message delivered quickly and specifically

A

Neuronal signaling

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12
Q

Involves direct contact between neighboring cells.
Cell-surface-bound signal molecule binds to a receptor protein on an adjacent cell.

A

Contact-Dependent Signaling

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13
Q

Insulin, Acetocholyine, EGF, and Delta are all examples of what?

A

signal molecules.

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14
Q

______ may be located on the cell surface or inside the cell.

A

receptors

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15
Q

_________ receptors bind extracellular signal molecules

A

Cell-surface receptors

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16
Q

Most Extracellular Signal Molecules are ______ and _____.

A

large; hydrophilic

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17
Q

These receptors are located in in the cytosol or in the nucleus. They respond to small hydrophobic signal molecules that can diffuse across the plasma membrane

A

Intracellular receptors

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18
Q

Steroid hormones are examples of small hydrophobic signal molecules that would bind to _______ receptors to regulate gene transcription or other functions

A

intracellular

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19
Q

Cells of multicellular organism encounter hundreds of different signaling molecules, but cells must respond to correct signal. The responding cell must express specific ________

A

receptor

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20
Q

T/F: A cell’s response to a signal can be fast or slow

A

true

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21
Q

In this type of cell response/signal, the signal affects the activity of protein already present inside the cell
Example: contraction of muscle cells

A

Fast signals

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22
Q

In this type of cell response/signal, the response requires changes in gene expression and production of new proteins
Examples: cell growth, cell division

A

Slow signals

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23
Q

Cell-surface ________ relay extracellular signals via intracellular signaling pathways.
Intracellular signaling molecules interact with specific ______ proteins. These change the behavior of the target cell

A

receptors; effector

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24
Q

T/F: Effector proteins change the behavior of the target cell

A

true

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25
Q

_______________:
-Relay signal
-Amplify signal
-Integrate signal: Detect signal from more than one signaling pathway
Distribute signal
Modulate signal via feedback

A

Intracellular signaling proteins

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26
Q

T/F: Feedback only occurs in specific parts of the signaling pathway

A

false, Feedback can occur anywhere along signaling pathway

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27
Q

Feedback can be _______ or _______

A

positive; negative

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28
Q

Molecular switches are ______ proteins. The receipt of signal causes them to toggle between ______ and _______ state.

A

effector; active; inactive

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29
Q

There are different classes of Molecular Switches.
Switches regulated by __________, such as protein ____________ and protein _______.

A

Phosphorylation; protein kinases; protein phosphates

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30
Q

Phosphorylation Cascade
Many switch proteins are themselves kinases.

A

yea

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31
Q

Molecular switches:

____________: activate when bound to GTP. It switches itself off by hydrolyzing its bound GTP to GDP

A

GTP-binding protein

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32
Q

Types of GTP-binding proteins:
_________proteins- relay messages from G-proteins coupled receptors.
________________- their activity is controlled by two types of regulatory proteins

A

Trimeric GTP-binding proteins; Monomeric GTPases.

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33
Q

The activity of Monomeric GTPases is controlled by two types of regulatory proteins: _____ & ______

A

GEF; GAP

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34
Q

T/F: GEF switches the protein off and GAP switches the protein on

A

false GEF on, GAP off

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35
Q

Cell-surface receptors fall into three main classes
_________ receptors
_________ receptors
_________receptors

A

Ion-channel-coupled; G-protein-coupled; enzyme-coupled

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36
Q

This type of receptor changes the permeability of the membrane to a specific ion and leads to change in membrane potential

A

Ion-channel-coupled receptors

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37
Q

This type of receptor activates membrane-bound G-protein. G-proteins like trimeric proteins initiate intracellular signaling cascade (activate or inhibit enzyme or ion channel in the plasma membrane)

A

G-protein-coupled receptors

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38
Q

These receptors act as enzymes to activate intracellular signaling pathways. They associate with enzymes that activate intracellular signaling pathways.

A

Enzyme-coupled receptors

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39
Q

T/F: Same extracellular signaling molecule can act on more than one type of receptor

A

true

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40
Q

These receptors are responsible for rapid transmission of signal across synapse. They convert chemical signals (neurotransmitter) into electrical signals (change in membrane potential).

A

Ion-channel-coupled receptors

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41
Q

T/F: G-protein-coupled receptors (GPCR) are the largest family of cell surface receptors

A

true

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42
Q

GPCRs associate with intracellular _____________. They mediate response to diverse extracellular signals

A

trimeric G proteins

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43
Q

GPCR Structure:
______(single/double) polypeptide chain
Is embedded in membrane
Has seven transmembrane ________

A

Single; alpha helices

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44
Q

Ligand binding causes what change in GPCR? And activates what?

A

causes conformational change in GPCR
Leads to activation of G protein

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45
Q

T/F: Several varieties of G-proteins share similar structure & mode of operation

A

true

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46
Q

In G-protein subunits the alpha and y subunits are tethered to membrane by _______.
However, the alpha subunit binds GDP/GTP.
GDP bound is ______
GTP bound is ______

A

lipid tail; inactive; active

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47
Q

Stimulation of GPCRs activates G-protein subunits.
-Conformational change of GPRC leads to conformation change of __________

A

g protein

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48
Q

Alpha subunit exchanges GDP for ____
- _____ required
- GTP binding leads to more conformational changes

A

GTP; GEF

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49
Q

Diverse signal molecules activate ______
- Proteins
- Small peptides
- Derivatives of amino acids
- Derivatives of fatty acids

A

GPCR

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50
Q

G protein activity:
An activated ________ interacts with its target protein. Target protein is activated (in this example). α subunit hydrolyzes bound GTP to GDP.

Activated By complex interacts with its target protein and inactive subunits reassemble.

A

α subunit

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51
Q

Some bacterial toxins cause disease by altering the activity of G Proteins
Examples are: _________toxin & _______ toxin.

A

Cholera ; Pertussis

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52
Q

T/F: Some G proteins directly regulate ion channels

A

true

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53
Q

Some G proteins directly regulate ion channels. Opening of ions channels causes immediate effect.
Example: heart pacemaker cells
Acetylcholine binds to GPCR which leads to activation of the Gprotein, G1. The activated βγ complex directly opens a K+ channel.
RESULT
Increased membrane permeability to ____ .
Also, makes membrane harder to activate and slows the heart rate

A

K+;

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54
Q

Many G proteins activate _____________.
Less rapid and more complex consequences.
Membrane-bound enzymes produce ____________ (aka
second messengers) which spread throughout a cell by diffusion. They then bind to specific signaling proteins in the cell and influence their activity.

A

membrane-bound enzymes; small messenger molecules

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55
Q

T/F: Cyclic AMP (cAMP) and Calcium ions are small messenger molecules

A

true

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56
Q

________:
Its an enzyme in the plasma membrane
One of the most frequent enzyme target for G proteins
Converts ATP to cAMP

A

Adenylyl cyclase

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57
Q

__________:
It converts cAMP to AMP
This terminates the cAMP signal

A

cAMP phosphodiesterase

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58
Q

cAMP usually activates AMP-dependent protein kinase (PKA).
cAMP binds to regulatory subunit of PKA releasing catalytic subunit.
Catalytic subunit of ______ phosphorylates various other proteins

A

PKA

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59
Q

In response to an extracellular signal, cAMP rises rapidly.

A

true

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60
Q

T/F: Epinephrin (aka adrenaline) binds to the GPCR adrenergic receptor.

A

true

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61
Q

Epinephrine stimulates _________ breakdown in skeletal muscle cells.
Increase in cyclic AMP activates ______
PKA phosphorylates and activates an enzyme called _________________
Phosphorylase kinase activates glycogen phosphorylase, the enzyme that breaks down glycogen.

A

glycogen; PKA; phosphorylase kinase

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62
Q

A rise in intracellular cyclic AMP can activate __________.
Activated PKA can enter the nucleus and phosphorylate specific transcription regulators

A

gene transcription

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63
Q

______________:
It’s one of the most frequent enzyme target for G proteins
Membrane bound enzyme.
Cleaves phospholipid – inositol phospholipoid
Generates second messengers IP3 and DAG

A

Phospholipase C

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64
Q

Phospholipase C cleaves a phospholipid called_____________.
And generates second messengers ____ and ____

A

inositol phospholipoid; IP3; DAG

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65
Q

The “hat” on the Inositol Phospholipid is what?

A

the sugar inositol

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66
Q

Inositol phospholipid pathway triggers a rise in intracellular _______-

A

Ca2+

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67
Q

DAG in the membrane recruits protein kinase C (PKC).
PKC is activated by _____. PKC activates intracellular proteins.

A

Ca2;

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68
Q

The cell maintains _______(high/low) cytosolic levels of Ca2+.
A _________(increase/decrease) in cytosolic Ca2+ signal triggers many biological processes.

A

low; increase

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69
Q

T/F: Fertilization of an egg by a sperm triggers an decrease in cytosolic Ca2+ in the egg

A

false, increase

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70
Q

Effects of Ca2+ mostly indirect through Ca2+-responsive proteins such as __________ which changes shape once Ca2+ binds.

A

Calmodulin

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71
Q

CaM-kinases are activated by _________. They phosphorylate select proteins

A

calmodulin

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72
Q

A GPCR signaling pathway generates a ____________.
The dissolved gas carries a signal to adjacent cells
Amino acid arginine broken down into NO
NO activates an enzyme guanylyl cyclase
Cyclic GMP (second messenger)

A

dissolved gas

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73
Q

This is the largest class of enzyme-coupled receptors. The cytoplasmic domain functions as a tyrosine kinase after activation. Full activation requires: Ligand binding & Autophosphorylation

A

Receptor Tyrosine Kinases (RTKs)

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74
Q

RTKs Activatio:n
Binding of signal molecule leads to dimerization of RTK.
Dimerization leads to _______________on specific tyrosine residues

A

auto-phosphorylation

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75
Q

Recruitment of intracellular signaling complex
Phosphorylated tail serves as________.

A

docking site;

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76
Q

_____ domains allow proteins containing those domains to dock to phosphorylated tyrosine residues on other proteins

A

SH2

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77
Q

Activation of an _____ stimulates the assembly of an intracellular signaling complex

A

RTK

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78
Q

Terminating the signaling cascade:
Protein Tyrosine phosphatases (PTPs) will ____________ RTK and intracellular signaling proteins. Then Receptor endocytosis (Degradation, Recycling) occurs.

A

dephosphorylate; endocytosis

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79
Q

Most RTKs activate the monomeric GTPase _____
adaptor recruits a Ras guanine nucleotide exchange factor (Ras‑GEF). Activated Ras can activate a MAP-kinase.

A

Ras;

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80
Q

Ras activates a _______ signaling module. Which is a three-kinase signaling module. Final kinase MAP kinase
activates various effector proteins.

A

MAP-kinase

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81
Q

RTKs recruit and activate phosphoinositide 3-kinase (PI 3-Kinase) . PI 3-kinase _________ an inositol phospholipid to produce lipid docking sites in the plasma membrane

A

phosphorylates

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82
Q

Inositol phospholipid attracts intracellular signaling proteins.
______ is a protein kinase that is activated at the membrane by two other protein kinases. It’s
released from the plasma membrane after phosphorylation and phosphorylates various downstream proteins on specific S/T residues.

A

Akt (PKB)

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83
Q

Activated Akt promotes __________
AKT phosphorylates and inactivates ______.
Bad promotes apoptosis by binding to and inhibiting Bcl2. Phosphorylated Bad releases Bcl2 and
Bcl2 blocks apoptosis and promotes cell survival.

A

cell survival; Bad

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84
Q

Akt stimulates cells to grow in size by activating the S/T kinase ______.

A

Tor

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85
Q

Akt stimulates cells to grow in size by activating the S/T kinase Tor. Akt acts on a Tor inhibitor (turns inhibitor off). Activated Tor stimulates ___________ and inhibits protein degradation.

A

protein synthesis

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86
Q

Some receptors activate a fast track to the nucleus.
Example: Notch Signaling (contact dependant)
nerve-cell production in the fruit fly Drosophila. Delta is the signaling molecule and Notch is the receptor.

A

Contact

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87
Q

T/F: Delta is the signaling molecule and Notch is the receptor.

A

true

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88
Q

After Delta (signal molecule ) binds to Notch (receptor) a protease cleaves tail of Notch. The Notch tail then migrates to nuclease and _____ Notch-responsive genes.

A

activates

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89
Q

Intracellular receptor proteins are found in the _________ or ________ of target cells

A

cytoplasm; nucleus

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90
Q

Protein kinase networks: ______ information and
Control complex cell behaviors

A

Integrate

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91
Q

Can GTP-binding proteins act as molecular switches,
letting a cell know that a signal has been received?

A

yes

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92
Q

What determines the direction that cellulose microfibrils are laid down in the extracellular space of a plant cell?

A

orientation of microtubules on the cytoplasmic side of the plasma membrane

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93
Q

What feature of glycosaminoglycans (GAGs) allows the extracellular matrix in cartilage to resist compression?

A

The negative charges on GAGs attract sodium ions, which draw water into the extracellular matrix to
form a water-filled gel.

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94
Q

Which statement is true about stem cells?

A. They can divide for the lifetime of the organism.

B. They are terminally differentiated.

C. They are usually present in large numbers, especially in tissues that undergo rapid renewal.

D. They always divide asymmetrically, giving rise to two different daughter cells.

A

A. They can divide for the lifetime of the organism.

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95
Q

Which is true of induced pluripotent stem (iPS) cells?

A. They can be used to produce whole organs for transplantation.

B. They can be produced artificially using a single transcription regulator.

C. They behave like embryonic stem cells.

D. They are produced by nuclear transplantation.

E. They can be produced by incubating adult fibroblasts with Ca2+.

A

They behave like embryonic stem cells.

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96
Q

In most cases, how many mutations are required for a normal cell to turn into a cancer cell?

A

more than three

97
Q

Which statement is true about human cells?

A. Cancer cells maintain their telomeres by reactivating the enzyme telomerase.

B. Cancer cells lose the ability to produce the enzyme telomerase.

C. Cancer cells tend to lack telomeres.

D. Unlike normal cells, cancer cells can only divide a limited number of times in culture.

E. In cancer cells, telomeres grow progressively shorter with each cell division.

A

Cancer cells maintain their telomeres by reactivating the enzyme telomerase.

98
Q

Which type of mutation would not typically convert a proto-oncogene into an oncogene?
A. chromosomal deletion of the region containing the proto-oncogene

B. chromosomal rearrangement that leads to overproduction of the normal proto-oncogene protein

C. gene amplification

D. mutation in the coding sequence that leads to the production of a hyperactive protein

E. chromosomal rearrangement that leads to the production of a hyperactive protein

A

chromosomal deletion of the region containing the proto-oncogene

99
Q

A small dye molecule injected into a plant cell can pass into adjacent plant cells because of the presence of…

A

plasmodesmata!

100
Q

Which is the name of a specialized cell junction that allows rapid spread of electric current via the flow of ions between animal cells?

A

Gap junction

101
Q

In animal cell junctions, _______ seal intercellular spaces, _______ reinforce attachments, and _______ allow for communication between cells.

A

tight junctions;
desmosomes;
gap junctions

102
Q

Connexons are channel structures that make up…

A

gap junctions.

103
Q

Which of the following junctions is most abundant in tissues such as skin that are required to resist significant mechanical stress?

A. gap junctions

B. desmosomes

C. focal adhesions

D. tight junctions

E. All are abundant in tissues resisting stress.

A

desmosomes

104
Q

The type of adhesive junction that connects epithelial cells to the basal lamina is a…

A

hemidesmosome.

105
Q

Proteoglycans in the extracellular matrix of animal tissues…

A

allow cartilage to resist compression.

106
Q

A basal lamina is…

A

a thin layer of extracellular matrix underlying an epithelium.

107
Q

Adherens junctions…

A. can be used to bend epithelial
sheets into tubes.

B. are most often found at the basal surface of cells.

C. are found only in adult tissues.

D. involve fibronectin and integrin interactions.

A

can be used to bend epithelial sheets into tubes.

108
Q

Cells that are terminally differentiated…

A

can no longer undergo cell division.

109
Q

When a terminally differentiated cell in an adult body dies, it can typically be replaced in the body by a stock of

A

proliferating precursor cells.

110
Q

Induced pluripotent stem (iPS) cells…

A

can be created by the expression of a set of key genes in most somatic cell types, including cells derived from adult tissues.

111
Q

A metastasis is…

A

a secondary tumor in a different part of the body that arises from a cell from the primary tumor.

112
Q

Which of the following statements about tumor suppressor genes is FALSE?

A. Gene amplification of a tumor suppressor gene is less dangerous than gene amplification of a proto-
oncogene.

B. Cells with one functional copy of a tumor suppressor gene will usually proliferate faster than normal
cells.

C. Inactivation of tumor suppressor genes leads to enhanced cell survival and proliferation.

D. Individuals with only one functional copy of a tumor suppressor gene are more prone to cancer than
individuals with two functional copies of a tumor suppressor gene.

A

Cells with one functional copy of a tumor suppressor gene will usually proliferate faster than normal
cells.

113
Q

Ras is a GTP-binding protein that is often defective in cancer cells. A common mutation found in cancer cells causes Ras to behave as though it were bound to GTP all the time, which will cause cells to divide inappropriately. From this description, the [NORMAL] Ras gene is a…

A

proto-oncogene.

114
Q

A set of cells in the intestinal epithelium divides continually in order to replace dead cells. A microscopic examination of this population of cells would show that most of them…

A

are in interphase.

115
Q

T/F: The cytoskeleton is flexible and dynamic

A

true

116
Q

Which phase of the cell cycle is not part of interphase?
A. S
B. G0
C. G1
D. G2
E. M

A

M

117
Q

How does a nucleus in G2 differ from a nucleus in G1?

A

The G2 nucleus has double the amount of DNA as the G1 nucleus.

118
Q

Which of the following statements is false?

A. Activated S-Cdk initiates DNA replication.

B. Activated G1-Cdks and G1/S-Cdks help drive cells through G1 into S phase.

C. Activated M-Cdk triggers the onset of cytokinesis.

A

Activated M-Cdk triggers the onset of cytokinesis.

119
Q

Which of the following occurs at specific times in the cell cycle?

A. Some cyclins are ubiquitylated and degraded in proteasomes.

B. Some cyclins are methylated and degraded in proteasomes.

C. Some Cdks are ubiquitylated and degraded in proteasomes.

D. Some Cdks are phosphorylated and degraded in proteasomes

A

Some cyclins are ubiquitylated and degraded in proteasomes.

120
Q

What is true about the phosphorylation of condensins by M-Cdk?

A

It triggers their assembly onto DNA, compressing chromosomes into a more compact form.

121
Q

Which extracellular signal proteins trigger a wave of G1/S-Cdk activity?

A

mitogens

122
Q

Which of the following statements is false?

A. Cyclins help activate Cdks by phosphorylating them.

B. Cyclins vary in concentration at different stages of the cell cycle.

C. Cyclins are degraded at specific times in the cell cycle.

D. Cyclins have no enzymatic activity on their own.

A

Cyclins help activate Cdks by phosphorylating them

123
Q

Most of the diversity in the rates of cell division in the adult body lies in variations in the time that each cell spends in which phase(s)?

A

G1 phase and G0 phase

124
Q

Why does the activation of M-Cdk begin abruptly?

A

Each M-Cdk complex can activate more M-Cdk.

125
Q

Chromosomes line up at the spindle equator during which phase of the cell-division cycle?

A

metaphase

126
Q

The anaphase-promoting complex or cyclosome (APC/C) triggers the onset of anaphase by doing which of the following?

A

triggering the destruction of the cohesins that hold the sister chromatids together

127
Q

Which of the following statements is true?

A. Many cells die by necrosis in many normal, adult human tissues.

B. Many cells die by necrosis during normal animal development.

C. Many cells die by apoptosis in many normal, adult human tissues.

A

Many cells die by apoptosis in many normal, adult human tissues.

128
Q

Which situation would be the most likely result of a mutation in a eukaryotic organism that causes it to produce less p21 protein than normal?

A

Cells with radiation-induced DNA damage would continue through the cell cycle without repairing
the damaged DNA.

129
Q

An environmental change that leads to the production of less than the expected amount of cyclin would tend to _______ the activity of the Cdk. This would lead to _______ phosphorylation of the target protein, which in turn
would lead to _______ cells being stopped at the checkpoint.

A

decrease; decreased; more

130
Q

At the milestone that defines [anaphase], the chromosomes…

A

Separate

131
Q

The structures that line up the chromatids on the equatorial plate during metaphase are called

A

polar and kinetochore microtubules.

132
Q

The microtubules of the mitotic spindle attach to a specialized structure in the centromere region of each chromosome called the

A

kinetochore

133
Q

At the milestone that defines [metaphase], the chromosomes…

A

line up at the equatorial plate.

134
Q

In mitotic metaphase, a cell with eight sister chromatids has _______ centromere(s).

A

Four

135
Q

At the milestone that defines [telophase], the chromosomes…

A

are at opposite poles.

136
Q

Chromosomes decondense into diffuse chromatin

A. at the end of telophase.

B. at the beginning of prophase.

C. at the end of interphase.

D. at the end of metaphase.

A

at the end of telophase.

137
Q

The event in the cell division process that clearly involves actin microfilaments is…

A

cytokinesis in animal cells.

138
Q

In which phase of the cell cycle do cells check to determine whether the DNA is fully and correctly replicated?

A

at the end of G2

139
Q

Which of the following statements about the cell cycle is FALSE?

A. Once a cell decides to enter the cell cycle, the time from start to finish is the same in all eukaryotic
cells.

B. An unfavorable environment can cause cells to arrest in G1.

C. A cell has more DNA during G2 than it did in G1.

D. The cleavage divisions that occur in an early embryo have short G1 and G2 phases.

A

Once a cell decides to enter the cell cycle, the time from start to finish is the same in all eukaryotic
cells.

140
Q

The concentration of mitotic cyclin
(M cyclin)

A

falls toward the end of M phase as a result of ubiquitylation and degradation.

141
Q

Which of the following statements is FALSE?

A. Cdc25 dephosphorylation of Wee1 activates the kinase, promoting the G2/M transition.

B. Phosphorylation of mitotic Cdk by the inhibitory kinase (Wee1) makes the Cdk inactive.

C. Inhibiting the Cdc25 phosphatase will delay the G2/M transition.

D. The activating phosphatase (Cdc25) removes the phosphates from mitotic Cdk that were added by Wee1, so that M-Cdk will be active.

A

Cdc25 dephosphorylation of Wee1 activates the kinase, promoting the G2/M transition.

142
Q

The G1 DNA damage checkpoint…

A

involves the inhibition of cyclin–Cdk complexes by p21.

143
Q

Condensins

A

assemble into complexes on the DNA when phosphorylated by M-Cdk.

144
Q

At the end of DNA replication, the sister chromatids are held together by the

A

cohesins.

145
Q

Sister chromatid separation occurs because __________ are destroyed by the APC/C.

A

securins

146
Q

Programmed cell death occurs

A

by means of an intracellular suicide program.

147
Q

Apoptosis differs from necrosis in that necrosis

A

causes cells to swell and burst, whereas apoptotic cells shrink and condense.

148
Q

The overall shape of an animal cell is determined by its

A

cytoskeleton

149
Q

The cytoskeleton is composed of three major components, each with distinct functions. Which represents the correct order of these components, from smallest to largest size?

A

Microfilaments, intermediate filaments, microtubules

150
Q

Which of the following is not a function of the cytoskeleton?

A

passive transport

151
Q

Researchers observe that while the actin microfilaments in an amoeba seem to be intact, the organism appears incapable of forming pseudopods for movement. They conclude that its immobility may be caused by the absence of the protein

A

myosin.

152
Q

Microtubules are made of…

A

tubulin, and they are essential in chromosome movement during mitosis.

153
Q

What type of agent would be most likely to disrupt the structures of microvilli?

A

Actin depolymerizing agent

154
Q

A cancer drug is being tested, and it is found that although the cancer cells can divide, the nuclear envelope cannot re-form. It is determined that a protein substance is sequestered so that it cannot be polymerized into
the necessary structure. What is the most likely protein target of the drug?

A

Lamin

155
Q

A patient is admitted to the hospital for dehydration and malnutrition. On close observation of the intestine, it appears that the cells lining the intestine have fully formed microvilli. However, these microvilli are not uniformly standing upright and protruding into the lumen of the intestine, but are lying down so that full exposure to the contents of the intestine cannot be obtained. The doctors conclude that the patient may have a defect in what cellular component?

A

Actin

156
Q

A cultured cell line appears to be having trouble surviving. Upon closer examination, you find that the cells do not appear to have normal chromosome separation. Based on this observation, you decide to check for the presence of a mutated protein. You will be sure to analyze the gene for which protein?

A

Tubulin

157
Q

At a cellular level, what is the mechanism behind rigor mortis?

A

After death, ATP production ceases and ATP is needed for myosin release from actin.

158
Q

The _______ is a cell structure with an internal cross section showing a characteristic “9 + 2” morphology.

A

cilium

159
Q

Microfilaments function in

A

a. muscle contraction.
b. cytoplasmic streaming.
c. cell division.
d. maintenance of animal cell shape.
(All of these)

160
Q

Tubulin may assemble onto one end while disassembling from the other end of the same microtubule simultaneously in a process known a

A

treadmilling.

161
Q

Dynamic assembly and disassembly of a cytoplasmic microtubule in a cell occurs primarily at its plus end,
because its minus end is usually anchored to

A

a microtubule organizing center.

162
Q

Mutations of keratins in the ________ that resist tensile forces in the skin cause the blistering disease known as
epidermolysis bullosa simplex.

A

intermediate filaments

163
Q

Actin bundles give shape and support to ________ found in intestinal mucosal cells.

A

microvilli

164
Q

Activation of which of the following is associated with the formation of focal adhesions and stress fibers?

A

Rho

165
Q

Each monomer of actin binds one molecule of the nucleotide triphosphate

A

ATP

166
Q

Actin exists in cells in two major forms called

A

G actin and F actin.

167
Q

ATP is hydrolyzed by actin…

A

after assembly but before disassembly.

168
Q

Branching of actin filaments can be initiated by

A

Arp2/3.

169
Q

Actin filaments are bound into bundles of parallel filaments by the proteins…

A

(alpha symbol)-actinin and fimbrin.

170
Q

Which of the following movements is NOT based on actin–myosin interactions?

a. Cell migration (crawling) over surfaces

b. Chromosome movement during anaphase A

c. Cytokinesis of animal cells

d. Phagocytosis

A

Chromosome movement during anaphase A

171
Q

Myosin _______ is present in muscle sarcomeres

A

II

172
Q

Microtubules are assembled from…

A

dimers of (alpha)- and (beta)-tubulin.

173
Q

The GTP bound to (beta)-tubulin hydrolyzes to GDP and Pi

A

following polymerization but before depolymerization.

174
Q

The major microtubule-organizing center in most animal cells is the…

A

centrosome.

175
Q

At the end of interphase, the part of the microtubule farthest from the centrosome is the _______ end.

A

plus

176
Q

Rings of the protein _______ in the pericentriolar material nucleate microtubule assembly.

A

y-tubulin

177
Q

Microtubules are not involved in…

A

cytokinesis

178
Q

The cargo carried by kinesin along microtubules binds to kinesin on which region?

A

Tail

179
Q

The beating of cilia and flagella occurs by means of _______-based _______.

A

dynein; microtubule sliding

180
Q

The basal bodies of cilia and flagella are similar in structure to (and can form from)

A

centrioles.

181
Q

Keratin intermediate filaments are anchored to junctions called

A

desmosomes.

182
Q

Autocrine signals bind to…

a. receptors on adjacent cells.

b. receptors on neighboring cells.

c. receptors on the cell that produced them.

d. internal receptors located inside cells.

e. receptors on cells far away from the cell that produced them.

A

receptors on the cell that produced them.

183
Q

Paracrine signals bind to

A

receptors on neighboring cells.

184
Q

Signals that travel to distant cells through the circulatory system are

A

Hormones

185
Q

The major difference between a cell that responds to a signal and one that does not is the presence of a

A

receptor

186
Q

Which statement about cell signaling is false?

a. Cells are bombarded with numerous signals, but they do not respond to all of them.

b. A cell must possess the specific receptor to respond to a particular signal.

c. Chemical signaling molecules have specific binding sites.

d. Receptor specificity in cells allows a response to a specific signal.

e. There are only a few kinds of receptor proteins.

f. does not exist, since the molecule can diffuse across the cell membrane.

A

There are only a few kinds of receptor proteins.

187
Q

Receptors can be divided into two general classes according to their cellular location: _______ receptors and _______ receptors.

A

intracellular; membrane

188
Q

A researcher working with mammalian kidney cells grown in culture observed that cells treated with a proteolytic enzyme (an enzyme that breaks down proteins) lost the ability to respond to the hormone vasopressin but not to the hormone aldosterone. Which is a reasonable explanation for this observation?

A

The vasopressin receptor is embedded in the cell membrane with an external portion that binds its ligand, whereas the aldosterone receptor is an intracellular receptor.

189
Q

Which of the following has its receptors on a gated ion channel for sodium ions (Na+)?

A

Acetylcholine

190
Q

A benefit of the many steps involved in a protein kinase cascade is that they involve

A

amplification of the signal being communicated.

191
Q

In a signal transduction pathway involving G protein-coupled receptors, the receptor first binds the ligand and activates a G protein. After the GTP-bound subunit of the G protein separates from the rest of the G protein, it travels until it encounters

A

an effector protein.

192
Q

When a G protein is activated in a signal transduction pathway,

A

GDP is released from the G protein, and GTP occupies the nucleotide-binding site.

193
Q

Which statement about ligand‒receptor complexes is false?

a. For most ligand–receptor complexes, binding, as opposed to dissociation, is favored based on chemistry’s law of mass action.

b. Ligand–receptor interactions are reversible.

c. Drugs that prevent binding of receptors’ specific ligands can alter human behavior.

d. After binding to a cell membrane receptor, a ligand participates in the cellular response.

e. A ligand is a chemical signal.

A

After binding to a cell membrane receptor, a ligand participates in the cellular response.

194
Q

A deer smells a predator as it passes by and quickly bounds to safety. Which sequence represents the correct
order of steps in the signal transduction pathway that is involved?

A

Signal travels to target cell, receptor binds signal, conformational change occurs in receptor, signal is
transduced within cell, effects from signal transduction occur

195
Q

The hydrolysis of phosphatidyl inositol-bisphosphate (PIP2) results in

A

inositol trisphosphate and diacylglycerol.

196
Q

Inositol triphosphate (IP3) is released into the cytoplasm when phosphatidyl inositol-bisphosphate (PIP2) is hydrolyzed. IP3 is one type of molecule that can directly….

A

open Ca2+ channels and increase cytosolic calcium.

197
Q

What is the most stable and least soluble part of the cytoskeleton?

A

intermediate filaments

198
Q

Intermediate filaments __________(are/are not) found in most animal cells but ________(are/are not) found in plant cells.

A

are; are not

199
Q

IFs assemble from ______ protein subunits. The monomer consists of an α-helical central rod domain. Which coils with other monomers to form a _________. Dimers line up to form a staggered, antiparallel tetramer

A

fibrous; coiled-coil dimer

200
Q

T/F: IFs assembly: The ends of a tetramer are different

A

false, both ends are the same

201
Q

T/F: IFs are tissue type specific

A

true

202
Q

This is the most diverse class of IFs. It’s found in all epithelial tissue.
Anchor to attachment points
–Cell-cell attachments = desmosomes
–Cell-substrate = hemidesmosomes
It strengthen cells against mechanical stress

A

Keratin filaments

203
Q

Cell-cell attachments = _________(desmosomes/ hemidesmosomes)
Cell-substrate = _________(desmosomes/ hemidesmosomes)

A

desmosomes;hemidesmosomes

204
Q

Mutations in ___________ cause ALS

A

neurofilaments

205
Q

Under the nuclear envelope is a meshwork of Ifs called lamins that supports and strengthens the nuclear envelope

A

Nuclear lamina

206
Q

T/F: the nuclear lamina never dissasembles

A

false, it needs to disassemble during cell division

207
Q

IFs are stabilized and reinforced by accessory proteins such as _________ , a linker protein that:
Cross-links IFs into bundles
Connects IFs, microfilaments, and microtubules
Connects IFs to hemidesmosomes

A

Plectin

208
Q

The site at which microtubule assembly originates.
Acts as anchor of microtubules.

A

Microtubule organizing centers (MTOC)

209
Q

T/F: Centrosome is an MTOC

A

true

210
Q

Microtubule have 2 structurally distinct ends:
____ end
____ end

A

Plus; Minus

211
Q

T/F: Protofilaments lack polarity

A

false, because of dimer orientation, protofilaments have an inherent polarity

212
Q

Tubulin dimers added to _____ (plus/minus) end more rapidly than ____ (plus/minus) end.

A

plus;minus

213
Q

Which side at the Microtubule organizing centers (MTOCs) are anchored?

A

minus ends

214
Q

Centrosome consists of a pair of _______ surrounded by a ______ of various proteins. In the centrosome matric, ____-tubulin is found.

A

centrioles; matrix; y-tubulin

215
Q

The random cycles of rapid shrinkage (depolymerization) followed by slower growth (polymerization). This process allows MTs to undergo rapid remodeling and to explore the space of the cell by growing into new areas and then shrinking back. What is this called?

A

Dynamic Instability

216
Q

Dynamic Instability is driven by ______________

A

GTP-hydrolysis

217
Q

Why does Microtubule Catastrophe (Dramatic shrinkage) takes place?

A

because the plus end of a microtubule is structurally unstable

218
Q

T/F: Some organelles are tethered to microtubules

A

true

219
Q

T/F: In nerve cell axons, the microtubules all point in different directions

A

false, they all point in the same direction (think of axon)

220
Q

Microtubule-associated proteins (SOL)
S________ MTs against disassembly (+–end tubulin interacting proteins)
O________ MTs
L______ MTs to other cell components (plectin)

A

Stabilize; Organize; Link

221
Q

These serve as molecular motors (kinesin, dynein) and stabilize, organize and link microtubules.

A

Microtubule-associated proteins

222
Q

Organelle Movement and Vesicle transport requires _____ proteins

A

motor

223
Q

Motor proteins ______(use/don’t use) energy.
They can move in ______(one/more than one) in one direction.

A

use; one

224
Q

On the Microtubule Motor Proteins:
The Cytoplasmic dynein moves toward the ______ end. And the Kinesin moves toward ______ end.

Tail interacts with cargo, either directly or indirectly through adaptor proteins.

A

minus; plus

225
Q

What protein along the microtubule looks like its “walking” with 2 globular head domains?

A

kinesin

226
Q

Cilia and Flagella contain stable __________.
Moved by ______ motor protein

A

microtubules; dynein

227
Q

Cell crawling depends on _______ actin

A

cortical

228
Q

Cell crawling involves distinct events:
1) Extension of a protrusion. What is occurring at the growing tip of the protrusion?
2) Attachment to substrate
3) Generation of tension, which pulls the cell forward
4) Detachment

A

actin polymerization

229
Q

Many nonmuscle cells are capable of crawling over a substrate using ____________ and/or ____________

A

lamellipodia; filopodia

230
Q

In the extension of the protrusion (during cell crawling) the assembly of microfilaments is driven by what?

A

ARP

231
Q

ARP complex nucleates new branches on the sides of _________

A

filaments

232
Q

During the “Attachment to Substrate” step of cell crawling, whats being formed at the front of the cell?

A

new sites for attachment

233
Q

Focal Adhesions are _______-dependent attachments

A

integrin

234
Q

Myosin-1’s heaqd group is always walking towards the _________end of the actin filament

A

plus

235
Q

In nonmuscle and smooth muscle, contraction is regulated primarily by ___________ of a myosin light chain

A

phosphorylation

236
Q

Muscle cell contraction relies primarily on interaction between _______ & _______ filaments

A

thin; thick

237
Q

What is the functional unit of contraction?

A

sarcomere

238
Q

Each muscle fiber is a bundle of smaller ________

A

myofibrils

239
Q

In muscle contraction, the head of a myosin-____ (1 or 2) molecule walks along an actin filament through a ATP dependent cycle of conformational changes.

A

2