A4 - Performing Furhter Procedures, Forming Conclusions, and Communications Flashcards

1
Q

What are the tests of details that are performed as test of controls?

A
  1. Completeness.
  2. Cutoff = sales were recorder in correct period.
  3. Valuation, allocation and accuracy = appropriate amt.
  4. Existence and occurrence = sales are valid.
  5. Understandability of presentation and class.
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2
Q

What is a characteristic of blank positive AR confirmations?

A

a. Provide > assurance bc customer tells you the $.

b. Result in lower response bc customers are lazy and don’t want to find out how much $ they owe.

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3
Q

What is a characteristic of negative AR confirmations?

A

a. Lack of response is not super indicative of ARs.

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4
Q

What should an auditor do when there are no responses on AR confirmations?

A
  1. Ask customers again (2nd and even 3rd time).

2. If no response at 2nd time, then ask the client to contact their customer.

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5
Q

When are negative AR confirmations used?

A

When:

  1. Combined inherent and control risk is low.
  2. A lof of tiny balances are being confirmed.
  3. You don’t expect to be ignored.
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6
Q

What’s the key to tracing invoices back and forth to shipping docs?

A
  • Tracking invoices to docs = verifies invoiced items were shipped.
  • Tracking docs to invoices = verifies shipped items were billed.
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7
Q

How should you trace a sales transaction when testing for existence?

A

From GL to source docs.

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8
Q

How should you trace a sales transaction when testing for completeness?

A

From source docs to GL.

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9
Q

How should you trace a sales transaction when testing for ficticious sales?

A

From invoices to shipping docs.

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10
Q

When will the auditor focus on primarily on management’s assertion of existence?

A

On an asset account.

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11
Q

When will the auditor focus on primarily on management’s assertion of completeness?

A

On an liability account.

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12
Q

What’s the process to pay an invoice?

A
  • Purchasing/procurement preps the PO.
  • AP matches receiving report with PO and invoice.
  • Treasury pays invoice.
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13
Q

What information is confirmed on the AICPA bank confirmation form?

A
  1. Cash balances.

2. Loan collaterals.

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14
Q

What is the primary purpose of bank confirmations?

A

To corroborate information regarding deposit and loan balances.

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15
Q

What is another purpose of bank confirmations?

A

To seek information on contingent liabilities, security agreements, and deposit account balances.

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16
Q

How do you prevent EEs to steal checks?

A

Have a bank lockbox!

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17
Q

How can you detect kiting on a bank transfer schedule?

A

Receipt date per bank comes before disbursement date.

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18
Q

What assertion does the inventory turnover ratio help obtain evidence for?

A

Valuation and allocation.

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19
Q

What would the auditor do when assessed level of control risk on the inventory cycle is high?

A

Ask the client to make an inventory count at YE.

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20
Q

How should the auditor verify the existence of inventory?

A

By observation.

If the inventory is immaterial, then confirmation is enough.

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21
Q

What does the auditor do when it tests LT investments?

A

The auditor would use Analytical Procedures to ascertain the reasonableness of the completeness of recorded investment income.

22
Q

What information is included in a security count worksheet?

A
  1. Details of the count.

2. Acknowledgement from client that securities were returned intact.

23
Q

How does the auditor verify the reasonableness of dividend income?

A

By checking online, or checking dividend records produced by investment advisory services.

24
Q

How does the auditor test for occurrence/existence of hours worked regarding payroll?

A

By vouching to time card data.

25
Q

How does the auditor test for completeness of equipment?

A

By tracing from source to book. You are trying to see if the books are complete.

26
Q

What is a reasonable test?

A

When different data is checked for consistency.

27
Q

Whats the difference between a reasonable test and a test of details?

A

A reasonable test tests data in two or more fields for consistency, and a test of details tests specific details.

28
Q

What is the primary responsibility of a bank acting as a registrar of capital stock?

A

Verify that stock is issued in accordance with the authorization of the BOD and the articles of incorporation.

29
Q

How do you test for unrecorded retirements?

A

Inspect the GL, then go check facilities.

30
Q

Regarding retirements, what are you testing if you check the facilities first?

A

Completeness.

31
Q

Regarding retirements, what are you testing if you check the GL first?

A

Existence.

32
Q

Regarding PP&E, what is a good control that would reduce assessed control risk?

A

Periodic inspections by the internal auditor.

33
Q

What is capital and treasury stock traced to?

A

To BOD minutes/meetings.

34
Q

What’s the relationship between Low/High control risk and substantive testing?

A

Low level of control risk = Test of controls, limited substantive test because you have proved that controls are effective.

High control risk = No test of controls (since they don’t work anyway), and lots of substantive testing.

35
Q

Why would the insurance policy of an equipment not be available for the auditor to review?

A

Because the equipment may be subject to a lien, and the lien holder might have the policy with them.

36
Q

What should the auditor do if management plans do not alleviate substantial doubt about going concern?

A

Add a section called “Substantial Doubt About an Entity’s Ability to Continue as a Going Concern” in the auditor’s report.

37
Q

What should the auditor do if management plans alleviate substantial doubt about going concern?

A

Auditor MAY (optional) add an EOM paragraph.

38
Q

What should you do if management refuses to allow you to talk to external legal counsel?

A

Provide a disclaimer of opinion, or withdraw from the audit (if still in the planning phase).

39
Q

What should you do if the client’s attorney refuses to give you information?

A

Provide a disclaimer of opinion, or withdraw from the audit if the refusal is at the client’s request.

40
Q

What is the auditor objective when evaluating client’s estimates?

A

To determine if the estimates are reasonable and in conformity with GAAP.

41
Q

How does the auditor evaluate the reasonableness of an accounting estimate?

A
  1. By understanding how management developed the estimate.
  2. Review and test management’s procedures.
  3. Develop and independent estimate to compare.
  4. Review subsequent events for corroborative purposes.
42
Q

What are the factors that may indicate substantial doubt about an entity’s ability to continue as a going concern?

A

FINE!

  1. Financial difficulties.
  2. Internal matters.
  3. Negative trends.
  4. External mattters.
43
Q

What are the factors that an auditor would concentrate on when evaluating the reasonableness of an accounting estimate?

A
  1. Factors thate are significant to the accounting estimate.
  2. Sensitive to variations.
  3. Deviations from historical patterns.
  4. Subjective and susceptible to misstatements and bias.
44
Q

What are the mitigating factors to the substantial doubt about an entity’s ability to continue as a going concern?

A

Entity:

  1. Plans to borrow money or restructured debt.
  2. Plans to sell assets.
  3. Plans to delay or reduce expenses.
  4. Plans to increase ownership equity.
45
Q

When would an auditor conclude that a misstatement below the quantitative materiality limit is qualitatively material?

A

If it results in a favorable balance. Ex: Misstatement makes Net loss becomes Net Income.

46
Q

What should the auditor do regarding PY immaterial misstatements?

A

Consider those misstatements for CY evaluation of audit findings. They might be material this time around.

47
Q

How can auditor note a control deficiency?

A
  1. In the design of controls.

2. In the failure of the effectively designed control.

48
Q

What is the date of the management representation letter?

A

The same date as the auditor’s report.

49
Q

What does the management representation letter contain?

A

Information in 4 categories:

  1. FS.
  2. Completeness.
  3. Recognition, measurement, and disclosure.
  4. Subsequent events.
50
Q

What management representations must be obtained?

A
  1. Uncorrected misstatements identified by the auditor.
  2. Unrecorded transactions.
  3. Instances of immaterial fraud by EEs in Internal Control.
51
Q

What is the material weakness riddle?

A

All material weaknesses are significant deficiencies, but not all significant deficiencies are material weaknesses.

52
Q

What is a material weakness?

A

A material weakness is a significant deficiency that results in a reasonable likelihood that a material misstatement in the FS will not be prevented, detected, or corrected.