A350 General Questions Flashcards

1
Q

What is the Posible minima for RNP APCH and RNP AR?

A

250’

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2
Q

Can an RNP APCH have a curved “final approach segment”?

A

NO

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3
Q

Can an RNP APCH be lower than .3?

A

NO

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4
Q

How can an RNP AR approach chart be coded?

A

RNAV (RNP) RWY ????

Or

RNP RWY ?? (AR) cat C/D

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5
Q

What is the reduced obstacle clearance value for an RNP AR?

A

RNP 2 with no buffer.

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6
Q

What is ABAS

A

Aircraft Based Augmentation Systems

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7
Q

What is GBAS?

A

Ground Based Augmentation System

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8
Q

What is SBAS?

A

Satellite Based Augmentation Systems.

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9
Q

What Position is used by the FMS for RNP AR?

A

The consolidated position from all 3 ADIRUs

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10
Q

What position information is used to display the Terrain on ND and the TAWS itself?

A

The ADIRUs consolidated position

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11
Q

What information is used to form the ADIRUs consolidated position?

A

GNSS Position (MMR)»»GIPIRS Posc»»>ADIRU 1(2 or 3)
Or IRS only Posc
Or. Radio/IRS Posc

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12
Q

In degraded mode ( No GNSS or GIPRS Posc) how is the position information processed?

A

IRS only Position»>Radio / IRS Posc.»>ADIRU»>to onsite AP+FMS+ND

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13
Q

Now in case of ADIRU failure how is the TAWS position calculated?

A

It is based on the GNSS alone.

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14
Q

How many and what are the parameters that characterize the GIPIRS position?

A

Integrity

And

Accuracy

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15
Q

What is in general terms Estimated Position ACCURACY?

A

Is the uncertainty error between the real position and a possible error.

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16
Q

To consider the RNP position ACCURATE it must be correct…

A

Correct 95% of the time

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17
Q

What is the center of the position accuracy imaginary circle?

The plane or the estimated position?

A

The Estimated position, and the plane must be inside this accuracy circle.

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18
Q

When is the RNP accuracy criteria met?

A

When the the EPU (Estimated Position Uncertainty) is less than 1 RNP.

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19
Q

What happens if the EPU is > 1 RNP value?

A

The approach CAN NOT be flown

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20
Q

Where do we see the position ACCURACY level in the cockpit?

A

In the position EPU in the MFD. (EPU=0.02 NM)

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21
Q

What is Position Information Integrity?

A

Is the level of trust we have that the airplane is within the parameters for 99.999% of the time with 4 or more satelites and .1 mile, taking into account hidden NAV failures.

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22
Q

Where do we see the integrity level in the cockpit?

A

The NAV PRIMARY

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23
Q

What is the normal miles value of integrity?

A

Around 0.1 NM

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24
Q

What is the normal error value in mtrs for ACCURACY?

A

About 20 mtr

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25
The INTEGRITY is a direct result of the...
Number of satellites available (Minimum 4)
26
What are the minimum number of satellites for NAV?
4
27
What is the minimum number of satellites for FAULT DETECTION?
5
28
What is the minimum number of satellites for FAULT DETECTION and EXCLUSION?
6
29
In case of failure, how is the NAV Back Up trajectory displayed in the ND?
Doted line
30
What is OBPMA?
On Board Performance Monitoring and Alerting system
31
A environment constrained area is...
When the there is possibility of GPS masking (blocking) above 5 degrees,
32
What happens when the crew pulls heading while in Backup Trajectory?
The Back up trajectory disappears from the ND
33
Nav acurracy= Nav integrity=
Nav accuracy=EPU > .2=correct >95% of the time. Nav integrity= 99.9% ok # of satelites (>4) Nav Primary 0.1 miles
34
Where do I find Circling one engine inop?
QRH
35
At what altitude do we get the TOO LOW GEAR?
500' agl
36
Emergency descent call out?
EMERGENCY DESCENT
37
LOSS OF BRAKING call out?
LOSS OF BRAKING
38
STALL INDICATIONS call out?
STALL I HAVE CONTROL
39
STALL AT LIFTOFF
STALL TOGA, 12.5 DGREES
40
The TAWS call out is...
If the flight crew considers an avoidance maneuver: "PULL UP TOGA"
41
AP FD TCAS
TCAS Blue
42
TCAS
TCAS I HAVE CONTROL
43
UNRELIABLE AIR SPEED INDICATIONS. Call
UNRELIABLE SPEED
44
REACTIVE WIND SHEAR WARNING
WIND SHEAR TOGA
45
RUDDER TRIM RUN AWAY...
Use non sensed procedures Use pedals to center rudder If rudder trim ok use If rudder trim not ok Use APU🤷‍♂️
46
In case of NAV IR ALIGMENT LOST IN FLIGHT, the first initial actions for the Pilot Flying in order to recover the heading and attitude are...
Keep wings level and a constant speed. Then Use non sensed procedure
47
Procedures in the QRH?
SMOKE/FUMES ALL ENGINE FAILURE LAND EVAC LITHIUM BATT FIRE CIRCLING ONE ENG EFB FAULT
48
Where do we find the Aircraft configuration summary?
FCOM General
49
Do not use ISIS LS to
Back up course take off
50
SFD stands for
Sand by flight display
51
SND stands for?
Stand by Navigation display (The isis HSI)
52
How do you initiate an ISIS reset?
Press menu
53
When does the radar begin to emit?
As soon as one eng is running and the WX pb is pressed
54
Where do I find the MFD pages description?
Systems Flight management Controls and indicators MFD Pages
55
Figure of merit is
The distance ate which the navaid is tunable
56
If we get a message while crosschecking with avionics reading: THRUST...
check the inserted FLEX TEMP on MFD.
57
Should we cross check the SID and STAR with the chart...
Absolutely, (misbehavior: erroneous altitude constraint after sid or star change)
58
There is a misbehavior when two waypoints are within_____and with a diference of ____ in heading and a ____
There is a misbehavior when two waypoints are within_2 miles_and with a diference_of 3 degrees__and a speed of 250 kts
59
Misbehaviour: What happens when we perform a Direct To an anchor point or a "via" way point?
The guidance scales and frequencies /channels might disappear from the PFD. Perform a direct to to a waypoint after or in case of an ILS reinsert the ident.
60
What is the GND HF DATA LINK pb in the maintenance overhead panel?
Light off HF data transition inhibited on ground. ON data transmission allowed on gnd. (Data transmission is inhibited on gnd regardless of SW position if: Refueling De fueling Fuel transfer)
61
What is the service interphone over ride sw for (Maint over head pnl)
Service interphone inhibited in flight On: if interphone remains inhibited on ground, it can be reactivated using this PB
62
At what temp does the Avionics Ground cooling activates:
27 degrees
63
Is it advisable to change the troposphere?
As per TDU: No, keep the default value and enter crz temp manually. Very applicability
64
IF WE SEE AN ECAM MESSAGE: BRAKES RELEASED [BRK XX RELEASED] WE MUST THINK....
It could be a misbehavior We have to check: Braking Sys. Temporary Abnormal Misbehaviour
65
What is the message associated with a brake misbehavior after gear retraction?
BRAKES - AFT [FWD] WHEELS BRK LOST The misbehavior could be caused by: the gear lever sensing that still down. Or If the crew lowers the gear handle back down before the gear was fully up locked.
66
If we see a message "TIME TO ANTISKID LOSS INFO"...
During initial climb And The first hour of cruise We have to IGNORE IT. Brake misbehavior.
67
WHAT IS one of the down sides of restarting either the CM1 or CM2 inner or outer DUs?
It might trigger a CIDS misbehavior I.e. ALL CABIN LIGHTS FULL BRIGHT
68
What do we have to do if one out flow valve is Fully open but in green (not detected)
Misbehavior We have to apply the reset procedure. Which basically is asking to press either the: a- CAB ALT MODE b- CAB V/S MODE Off for 3 seconds
69
To communicate with the FLT REST compartment we should....
Use the hand set ONLY. The push button in the overhead will cause a CIDS reset.
70
If we see the messages: COM HF1(2) FAULT OR COM HF 1(2) FAULT we should...
misbehavior procedure check. Basically change freq on affected radio and transmit.
71
If we see that we have the CAB PRESS EXCESS RESIDUAL DIFF PRESS ECAM Alert
We should check for misbehavior by: a- Verify Delta P is zero (0) b-Both OFVs are fully open
72
If we get the following ECAM: ENG 1 (2) THR LEVER FAULT we must...
First check for misbehavior by slowly moving the affected T/L. If reaction ok. Check misbehavior procedure
73
How soon can we insert the ZFW and ZFWCG after ENG SHUTDOWN?
After 10 minutes. Other wise it could trigger a: FLIGHT CTL DIRECT LAW (PROT LOST)
74
What is a surge TANK?
It is a tank at the end of the wings where any fuel overflow will end up on ground during tight turns or fuel expansion i.e., then it will return to the main tanks by gravity.
75
Quickly describe the fuel qty sensing signal sequence....
The TNK WALL DATA concentrators (3) collects the -fuel level -fuel density -fuel temp And sends it to the FQMS (2) and the Flight warning System (FWS) for ECAM and System Display.
76
To refuel from the cockpit we must...
In fuel and load page: -enter block fuel -Press the refuel p/b on overhead panel -REFUELING IN PROGRESS MEMO -Monitor quantities -When the END light illuminates in the push button -Refuel pb push.
77
Which tank provides fuel to the APU?
Center tank
78
The TOTAL FU (fuel used) displayed in the Fuel page is..
The "total fuel" used by the ENGINES + APU
79
During Electrical Emergency Configuration, one fuel pump remains active per tank, but...
When the SLATS are extended the engines are fed by gravity only.
80
Is there an instance in which the Yellow Electric Hidraulic pump will run, and the ECAM Hidraulic System Page would indicate ZERO press?
YES, When the GND CREW opens or closes the cargo doors.
81
In the event of TOTAL HYDRAULIC loss, what flight controls remain available and how?
-OUTER FLPS -SLATS -RUDDER -ELEVATORS -BRAKES through ACCUMULATORS
82
In regards of the HIDRAULIC ENGINE PUMPS, which pilot action is irreversible?
Pressing the isolation push button.
83
When we activate anti ice, where is this action indicated/displayed?
-ECAM Memo -ENG SYS DISPLAY -PFD
84
The ECAM sytem symbols (i.e. anti ice valve simbol) might appear: -With a white outline -Green out line -Solid green -Amber out line -Solid amber What does it mean?
With a white outline=Stand by -Green out line=Auto -Solid green=On -Amber out line=Fault -Solid amber=Off
85
Is the MDA directly represented on the PFD altitude scale tape?
Yes, by a single amber dash.
86
The destination airport landing elevation is depicted in the PFD altitude tape by...
A dark brown shade
87
The RA is depicted on the PFD by the red ribbon on the alttitude tape
88
During power up, the DFDR will operate....
For 5 minutes (automatic test)
89
The DFDR records the last_____ The Voice recorder records the last_
The DFDR records the last 25 hrs The Voice recorder records the last 2 hrs
90
The ACMS is_____and it can store reports of_______in the OIS
Aircraft Condition Monitorin System Aircraft condition
91
The nose landing gear and doors are powered by the _____hydraulic system.
Yellow
92
The main landing gear and doors are powered by the_____hydraulic system. For gravity extension an______to release the uplocks
Green Alternate power pack, provides independent hidraulic power to release the uplocks.
93
The MAIN GEAR FWD Brakes are powered by____HYD SYST
The yellow hydraulic system
94
The MAIN GEAR AFT WHEELS brakes are powered by the ____hidraulic system
green
95
What are the Braking modes?
Normal Alternate Emergency Parking brakes
96
In regards to braking system, what is an RBCU?
Remote Brake Control Unit
97
Which RBCU 1 OR 2 CONTROLS THE REAR WHEELS?
# 2
98
Alternate Braking uses hydraulic "pressure" provided by_____
The accumulators
99
When using Alternate braking, are we using accumulator power? And do we have ANTI SKID available?
Yes, we loose anti skid when accumulator power drops below 1600 psi
100
Do we have anti skid when using ALTERNATE BRAKING?
Yes, it will be lost at 1600 psi
101
What pressure do we get in EMERGENCY BRAKING? And do we have anti skid?
1,130 psi NO
102
When the parking brake is set, it will remain effective for___
12 hours
103
Braking modes
104
When the parking brake is set, it is displayed on which screen areas?
On the lower PFD and as a MEMO
105
If with normal hydraulics we disconnect the ANTI SKD SW, what braking mode would be active?
EMERGENCY BRAKING
106
How many steering control system are there?
2
107
What is the value for the nose wheel steering angle with the: Tiller____ Pedals____
72 reduced above 30 kts 6 degrees below 100 kts
108
In regards to the steering, what is HCF?
HEADING CONTROL FUNCTION It keeps the Aircraft straight at low speeds when hands off.
109
What HYD system controls the steering? What happens if we loose it?
Yellow We have the BACK UP Steering control system.
110
How does the STEERING BACK UP CONTROl system works?
The inputs on the tiller or pedals are translated into differential pressure. ONLY TO VACATE THE RUNWAY
111
Will the BRAKE FANS automatically switch OFF on take off?
YES
112
How do we reset the Gravity Landing Gear extension system in flight?
We should NEVER reset it in flight
113
In Normal braking mode, the wheel brakes are controlled in pairs or indivudually?
Individually
114
In EMERGENCY BRAKING we have____brake applications
6
115
Besides the regular knob to set the breaking action for the BTV, what other way can you set the breaking action RWY condition?
On the ND in the ANF menu.
116
F-APP + RAW on the FMA means...
Needs to have raw data displayed for cross check
117
What is the cause of RAW ONLY?
When the EPU is greater than the RNP value.
118
What are the key elements of ALL ENG Failure:
250 kts 2.5 NM x 1000' FL 250
119
What is the order to turn off and on the BATTERIES during the preliminary cockpit prep?
Off: Batt 2-Batt Emerg 2- Batt emer 1- Batt 1. On: in reverse order starting with Batt 1.
120
Minimum oxygen press before we have to consult the limitations table:
1050 psi
121
Where do I find in the FCOM computer reset procedure?
ABNORMAL and EMERGENCIES PROCEDURES
122
Where do we insert fuel penalty?
Data page
123
When selecting VHF 2 in the A350 be careful because VH2 is not...
Side by side with VH1.
124
What is the difference between clearing and ECAM procedure and deactivating and ECAM procedure?
When cleared, it can be recalled. When deactivated it cam not be recalled.
125
What determines which surveillance system is active and which is in STANDBY?
The flight number, even ir odd.
126
When does the weather radar turns on?
Automatically after take off
127
When the aircraft is below a 1000' the TCAS automatically turns to...
TA ONLY
128
When is the radar off after landing?
60 seconds
129
The BTV targets a speed...
Of 10 kts 60 mt before the exit
130
After programing BTV what do we need to ALWAYS verify and compare?
Landing distance available LDA in the upper left corner of the ND BTV display. And both should not differ than 35 mts
131
What does ROT stand for in the BTV legend in the upper left corner on the ND?
The time in seconds from overlying the threshold to vacating the runway.
132
What is the meaning of TURNAROUND in the BTV upper left corner ND display?
The time it will take for the brakes to cool back down to 150 C
133
During EXTERNAL WALK AROUND what would be the meaning of the green OXYGEN discharge indicator turning yellow?
Overpresuure in the system
134
The Pax Oxygen generators will last..
15 minutes
135
The ADIRS provide:
136
What is the COST INDEX RANGE we can use in LONG RANGE cruise mode?
NONE. The cost index can only be modified in ECON mode.
137
What is the IDLE factor correction in the MFD?
It is the correction of the ENGINE Idle rating For PERF AND FLT PLN PREDICTIONS
138
What is the Perf Facto correction?
It is a correction to the FUEL FLOW For PERF AND FLT PLN PREDICTIONS
139
What Happens if we loose comm between FMC A and FMC B?
Independent operation is indicated
140
What happens if we loose FMC-A?
1-Auto switching to FMC-C will 2-Then FMC-C will resincronize with FMC-B
141
If we loose two FMCs, i.e. A and C...
Manual switching needed
142
After we have finished and ECAM action, what would be the benefit of checking dispatch pb?
Root cause analisis
143
The ATC DATA link selects automatically the transmiter-receiver to use without pilot input I.e. VHF, SAT COM or UHF?
Yes
144
I regards of DATALINK, which network is the one we use to request ATIS and or PDC?
623, which does not require prior notification.
145
In the MFD ATC CONNECT page, Which area is for CPDLC and which is for ADS C ?
146
ADSC is used by the______ for_____ Do we we need to notify them in advance?
ADSC is used by the ATC for aircraft surveillance. They will connect at will with the aircraft, but only if ADS-C is armed And get access to all aircraft reports No, no prior notification required.
147
Before starting CPDLC communications, do we send a NOTIFICATION to the connected newtork?
Yes
148
PAX DOOR OPENING SEQUENCE:
149
HOw do you determine if the window cracked is structural or not?
If the Crack can be seen going right Trough the heating elemnt. It is structurally compromised. Non sensed procedures needs to be activated.
150
IGNORE THIS SLIDE NEW HERO
OX R H Oil 13
151
Starting the APU should normally be delayed untill 5 minutes from ENG start, except....
When the OAT is greater than 26C or lower than 17C
152
Why is it important to insert the right number of PAX?
AIR FLOW selection
153
When Starting the APU on BATT, we can expect some spurious messages like______ Can we ignore them since they are spurious?
ELEC RAT SHEDDING REDUNDANCY COND VENT LOCAL CTL REDUNDANCY And NO, we should not ignore them. They should be cleared by maintenance or MEL them.