A350 General Questions Flashcards

1
Q

What is the Posible minima for RNP APCH and RNP AR?

A

250’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Can an RNP APCH have a curved “final approach segment”?

A

NO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Can an RNP APCH be lower than .3?

A

NO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How can an RNP AR approach chart be coded?

A

RNAV (RNP) RWY ????

Or

RNP RWY ?? (AR) cat C/D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the reduced obstacle clearance value for an RNP AR?

A

RNP 2 with no buffer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is ABAS

A

Aircraft Based Augmentation Systems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is GBAS?

A

Ground Based Augmentation System

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is SBAS?

A

Satellite Based Augmentation Systems.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What Position is used by the FMS for RNP AR?

A

The consolidated position from all 3 ADIRUs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What position information is used to display the Terrain on ND and the TAWS itself?

A

The ADIRUs consolidated position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What information is used to form the ADIRUs consolidated position?

A

GNSS Position (MMR)»»GIPIRS Posc»»>ADIRU 1(2 or 3)
Or IRS only Posc
Or. Radio/IRS Posc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

In degraded mode ( No GNSS or GIPRS Posc) how is the position information processed?

A

IRS only Position»>Radio / IRS Posc.»>ADIRU»>to onsite AP+FMS+ND

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Now in case of ADIRU failure how is the TAWS position calculated?

A

It is based on the GNSS alone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How many and what are the parameters that characterize the GIPIRS position?

A

Integrity

And

Accuracy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is in general terms Estimated Position ACCURACY?

A

Is the uncertainty error between the real position and a possible error.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

To consider the RNP position ACCURATE it must be correct…

A

Correct 95% of the time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the center of the position accuracy imaginary circle?

The plane or the estimated position?

A

The Estimated position, and the plane must be inside this accuracy circle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

When is the RNP accuracy criteria met?

A

When the the EPU (Estimated Position Uncertainty) is less than 1 RNP.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What happens if the EPU is > 1 RNP value?

A

The approach CAN NOT be flown

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Where do we see the position ACCURACY level in the cockpit?

A

In the position EPU in the MFD. (EPU=0.02 NM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is Position Information Integrity?

A

Is the level of trust we have that the airplane is within the parameters for 99.999% of the time with 4 or more satelites and .1 mile, taking into account hidden NAV failures.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Where do we see the integrity level in the cockpit?

A

The NAV PRIMARY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the normal miles value of integrity?

A

Around 0.1 NM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the normal error value in mtrs for ACCURACY?

A

About 20 mtr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The INTEGRITY is a direct result of the…

A

Number of satellites available (Minimum 4)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are the minimum number of satellites for NAV?

A

4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the minimum number of satellites for FAULT DETECTION?

A

5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the minimum number of satellites for FAULT DETECTION and EXCLUSION?

A

6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

In case of failure, how is the NAV Back Up trajectory displayed in the ND?

A

Doted line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is OBPMA?

A

On Board Performance Monitoring and Alerting system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

A environment constrained area is…

A

When the there is possibility of GPS masking (blocking) above 5 degrees,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What happens when the crew pulls heading while in Backup Trajectory?

A

The Back up trajectory disappears from the ND

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Nav acurracy=

Nav integrity=

A

Nav accuracy=EPU > .2=correct >95% of the time.

Nav integrity=
99.9% ok
# of satelites (>4)
Nav Primary
0.1 miles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Where do I find Circling one engine inop?

A

QRH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

At what altitude do we get the TOO LOW GEAR?

A

500’ agl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Emergency descent call out?

A

EMERGENCY DESCENT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

LOSS OF BRAKING call out?

A

LOSS OF BRAKING

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

STALL INDICATIONS call out?

A

STALL I HAVE CONTROL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

STALL AT LIFTOFF

A

STALL TOGA, 12.5 DGREES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

The TAWS call out is…

A

If the flight crew considers an avoidance maneuver:

“PULL UP TOGA”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

AP FD TCAS

A

TCAS Blue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

TCAS

A

TCAS I HAVE CONTROL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

UNRELIABLE AIR SPEED INDICATIONS. Call

A

UNRELIABLE SPEED

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

REACTIVE WIND SHEAR WARNING

A

WIND SHEAR TOGA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

RUDDER TRIM RUN AWAY…

A

Use non sensed procedures

Use pedals to center rudder

If rudder trim ok use

If rudder trim not ok

Use APU🤷‍♂️

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

In case of NAV IR ALIGMENT LOST IN FLIGHT, the first initial actions for the Pilot Flying in order to recover the heading and attitude are…

A

Keep wings level and a constant speed.

Then

Use non sensed procedure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Procedures in the QRH?

A

SMOKE/FUMES

ALL ENGINE FAILURE LAND

EVAC

LITHIUM BATT FIRE

CIRCLING ONE ENG

EFB FAULT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Where do we find the Aircraft configuration summary?

A

FCOM General

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Do not use ISIS LS to

A

Back up course take off

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

SFD stands for

A

Sand by flight display

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

SND stands for?

A

Stand by Navigation display
(The isis HSI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

How do you initiate an ISIS reset?

A

Press menu

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

When does the radar begin to emit?

A

As soon as one eng is running and the WX pb is pressed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Where do I find the MFD pages description?

A

Systems
Flight management
Controls and indicators
MFD
Pages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Figure of merit is

A

The distance ate which the navaid is tunable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

If we get a message while crosschecking with avionics reading:
THRUST…

A

check the inserted FLEX TEMP on MFD.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Should we cross check the SID and STAR with the chart…

A

Absolutely, (misbehavior: erroneous altitude constraint after sid or star change)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

There is a misbehavior when two waypoints are within_____and with a diference of ____ in heading and a ____

A

There is a misbehavior when two waypoints are within_2 miles_and with a diference_of 3 degrees__and a speed of 250 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Misbehaviour:
What happens when we perform a Direct To an anchor point or a “via” way point?

A

The guidance scales and frequencies /channels might disappear from the PFD.

Perform a direct to to a waypoint after or in case of an ILS reinsert the ident.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is the GND HF DATA LINK pb in the maintenance overhead panel?

A

Light off HF data transition inhibited on ground.

ON data transmission allowed on gnd. (Data transmission is inhibited on gnd regardless of SW position if:
Refueling
De fueling
Fuel transfer)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is the service interphone over ride sw for (Maint over head pnl)

A

Service interphone inhibited in flight

On: if interphone remains inhibited on ground, it can be reactivated using this PB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

At what temp does the Avionics Ground cooling activates:

A

27 degrees

63
Q

Is it advisable to change the troposphere?

A

As per TDU:

No, keep the default value and enter crz temp manually.

Very applicability

64
Q

IF WE SEE AN ECAM MESSAGE:

BRAKES RELEASED [BRK XX RELEASED] WE MUST THINK….

A

It could be a misbehavior

We have to check:

Braking Sys. Temporary Abnormal Misbehaviour

65
Q

What is the message associated with a brake misbehavior after gear retraction?

A

BRAKES -

AFT [FWD] WHEELS BRK LOST

The misbehavior could be caused by: the gear lever sensing that still down.

Or

If the crew lowers the gear handle back down before the gear was fully up locked.

66
Q

If we see a message “TIME TO ANTISKID LOSS INFO”…

A

During initial climb

   And 

The first hour of cruise

We have to IGNORE IT.

Brake misbehavior.

67
Q

WHAT IS one of the down sides of restarting either the CM1 or CM2 inner or outer DUs?

A

It might trigger a CIDS misbehavior

I.e. ALL CABIN LIGHTS FULL BRIGHT

68
Q

What do we have to do if one out flow valve is Fully open but in green (not detected)

A

Misbehavior

We have to apply the reset procedure.

Which basically is asking to press either the:

a- CAB ALT MODE

b- CAB V/S MODE

Off for 3 seconds

69
Q

To communicate with the FLT REST compartment we should….

A

Use the hand set ONLY.

The push button in the overhead will cause a CIDS reset.

70
Q

If we see the messages:

COM HF1(2) FAULT
OR
COM HF 1(2) FAULT we should…

A

misbehavior procedure check.

Basically change freq on affected radio and transmit.

71
Q

If we see that we have the

CAB PRESS EXCESS RESIDUAL DIFF PRESS ECAM Alert

A

We should check for misbehavior by:

a- Verify Delta P is zero (0)
b-Both OFVs are fully open

72
Q

If we get the following ECAM:

ENG 1 (2) THR LEVER FAULT we must…

A

First check for misbehavior by slowly moving the affected T/L.

If reaction ok. Check misbehavior procedure

73
Q

How soon can we insert the

              ZFW and 

ZFWCG after ENG SHUTDOWN?

A

After 10 minutes.

Other wise it could trigger a:

FLIGHT CTL DIRECT LAW (PROT LOST)

74
Q

What is a surge TANK?

A

It is a tank at the end of the wings where any fuel overflow will end up on ground during tight turns or fuel expansion i.e., then it will return to the main tanks by gravity.

75
Q

Quickly describe the fuel qty sensing signal sequence….

A

The TNK WALL DATA concentrators (3) collects the

-fuel level
-fuel density
-fuel temp

And sends it to the FQMS (2) and the Flight warning System (FWS) for ECAM and System Display.

76
Q

To refuel from the cockpit we must…

A

In fuel and load page:

-enter block fuel
-Press the refuel p/b on overhead panel

-REFUELING IN PROGRESS MEMO

-Monitor quantities
-When the END light illuminates in the push button
-Refuel pb push.

77
Q

Which tank provides fuel to the APU?

A

Center tank

78
Q

The TOTAL FU (fuel used) displayed in the Fuel page is..

A

The “total fuel” used by the

ENGINES + APU

79
Q

During Electrical Emergency Configuration, one fuel pump remains active per tank, but…

A

When the SLATS are extended the engines are fed by gravity only.

80
Q

Is there an instance in which the Yellow Electric Hidraulic pump will run, and the ECAM Hidraulic System Page would indicate ZERO press?

A

YES, When the GND CREW opens or closes the cargo doors.

81
Q

In the event of TOTAL HYDRAULIC loss, what flight controls remain available and how?

A

-OUTER FLPS
-SLATS
-RUDDER
-ELEVATORS

-BRAKES through ACCUMULATORS

82
Q

In regards of the HIDRAULIC ENGINE PUMPS, which pilot action is irreversible?

A

Pressing the isolation push button.

83
Q

When we activate anti ice, where is this action indicated/displayed?

A

-ECAM Memo
-ENG SYS DISPLAY
-PFD

84
Q

The ECAM sytem symbols (i.e. anti ice valve simbol) might appear:

-With a white outline
-Green out line
-Solid green
-Amber out line
-Solid amber

What does it mean?

A

With a white outline=Stand by
-Green out line=Auto
-Solid green=On
-Amber out line=Fault
-Solid amber=Off

85
Q

Is the MDA directly represented on the PFD altitude scale tape?

A

Yes, by a single amber dash.

86
Q

The destination airport landing elevation is depicted in the PFD altitude tape by…

A

A dark brown shade

87
Q

The RA is depicted on the PFD by the red ribbon on the alttitude tape

A
88
Q

During power up, the DFDR will operate….

A

For 5 minutes (automatic test)

89
Q

The DFDR records the last_____

The Voice recorder records the last_

A

The DFDR records the last 25 hrs

The Voice recorder records the last 2 hrs

90
Q

The ACMS is_____and it can store reports of_______in the OIS

A

Aircraft Condition Monitorin System

Aircraft condition

91
Q

The nose landing gear and doors are powered by the _____hydraulic system.

A

Yellow

92
Q

The main landing gear and doors are powered by the_____hydraulic system.

For gravity extension an______to release the uplocks

A

Green

Alternate power pack, provides independent hidraulic power to release the uplocks.

93
Q

The MAIN GEAR FWD Brakes are powered by____HYD SYST

A

The yellow hydraulic system

94
Q

The MAIN GEAR AFT WHEELS

brakes are powered by the ____hidraulic system

A

green

95
Q

What are the Braking modes?

A

Normal
Alternate
Emergency
Parking brakes

96
Q

In regards to braking system, what is an RBCU?

A

Remote Brake Control Unit

97
Q

Which RBCU 1 OR 2 CONTROLS THE REAR WHEELS?

A

2

98
Q

Alternate Braking uses hydraulic “pressure” provided by_____

A

The accumulators

99
Q

When using Alternate braking, are we using accumulator power?

And do we have ANTI SKID available?

A

Yes, we loose anti skid when accumulator power drops below 1600 psi

100
Q

Do we have anti skid when using ALTERNATE BRAKING?

A

Yes, it will be lost at 1600 psi

101
Q

What pressure do we get in EMERGENCY BRAKING?

And do we have anti skid?

A

1,130 psi

NO

102
Q

When the parking brake is set, it will remain effective for___

A

12 hours

103
Q

Braking modes

A
104
Q

When the parking brake is set, it is displayed on which screen areas?

A

On the lower PFD and as a MEMO

105
Q

If with normal hydraulics we disconnect the ANTI SKD SW,

what braking mode would be active?

A

EMERGENCY BRAKING

106
Q

How many steering control system are there?

A

2

107
Q

What is the value for the nose wheel steering angle with the:

Tiller____

Pedals____

A

72 reduced above 30 kts

6 degrees below 100 kts

108
Q

In regards to the steering, what is HCF?

A

HEADING CONTROL FUNCTION

It keeps the Aircraft straight at low speeds when hands off.

109
Q

What HYD system controls the steering?

What happens if we loose it?

A

Yellow

We have the BACK UP Steering control system.

110
Q

How does the STEERING BACK UP CONTROl system works?

A

The inputs on the tiller or pedals are translated into differential pressure.

ONLY TO VACATE THE RUNWAY

111
Q

Will the BRAKE FANS automatically switch OFF on take off?

A

YES

112
Q

How do we reset the Gravity Landing Gear extension system in flight?

A

We should NEVER reset it in flight

113
Q

In Normal braking mode, the wheel brakes are controlled in pairs or indivudually?

A

Individually

114
Q

In EMERGENCY BRAKING we have____brake applications

A

6

115
Q

Besides the regular knob to set the breaking action for the BTV, what other way can you set the breaking action RWY condition?

A

On the ND in the ANF menu.

116
Q

F-APP + RAW on the FMA means…

A

Needs to have raw data displayed for cross check

117
Q

What is the cause of RAW ONLY?

A

When the EPU is greater than the RNP value.

118
Q

What are the key elements of ALL ENG Failure:

A

250 kts

2.5 NM x 1000’

FL 250

119
Q

What is the order to turn off and on the BATTERIES during the preliminary cockpit prep?

A

Off: Batt 2-Batt Emerg 2- Batt emer 1- Batt 1.

On: in reverse order starting with Batt 1.

120
Q

Minimum oxygen press before we have to consult the limitations table:

A

1050 psi

121
Q

Where do I find in the FCOM computer reset procedure?

A

ABNORMAL and EMERGENCIES
PROCEDURES

122
Q

Where do we insert fuel penalty?

A

Data page

123
Q

When selecting VHF 2 in the A350 be careful because VH2 is not…

A

Side by side with VH1.

124
Q

What is the difference between clearing and ECAM procedure and deactivating and ECAM procedure?

A

When cleared, it can be recalled.

When deactivated it cam not be recalled.

125
Q

What determines which surveillance system is active and which is in STANDBY?

A

The flight number, even ir odd.

126
Q

When does the weather radar turns on?

A

Automatically after take off

127
Q

When the aircraft is below a 1000’ the TCAS automatically turns to…

A

TA ONLY

128
Q

When is the radar off after landing?

A

60 seconds

129
Q

The BTV targets a speed…

A

Of 10 kts 60 mt before the exit

130
Q

After programing BTV what do we need to ALWAYS verify and compare?

A

Landing distance available LDA in the upper left corner of the ND BTV display.

And both should not differ than

                  35 mts
131
Q

What does ROT stand for in the BTV legend in the upper left corner on the ND?

A

The time in seconds from overlying the threshold to vacating the runway.

132
Q

What is the meaning of TURNAROUND in the BTV upper left corner ND display?

A

The time it will take for the brakes to cool back down to 150 C

133
Q

During EXTERNAL WALK AROUND what would be the meaning of the green OXYGEN discharge indicator turning yellow?

A

Overpresuure in the system

134
Q

The Pax Oxygen generators will last..

A

15 minutes

135
Q

The ADIRS provide:

A
136
Q

What is the COST INDEX RANGE we can use in LONG RANGE cruise mode?

A

NONE.

The cost index can only be modified in ECON mode.

137
Q

What is the IDLE factor correction in the MFD?

A

It is the correction of the ENGINE Idle rating

For PERF AND FLT PLN PREDICTIONS

138
Q

What is the Perf Facto correction?

A

It is a correction to the

FUEL FLOW

For PERF AND FLT PLN PREDICTIONS

139
Q

What Happens if we loose comm between FMC A and FMC B?

A

Independent operation is indicated

140
Q

What happens if we loose FMC-A?

A

1-Auto switching to FMC-C will

2-Then FMC-C will resincronize with FMC-B

141
Q

If we loose two FMCs, i.e. A and C…

A

Manual switching needed

142
Q

After we have finished and ECAM action, what would be the benefit of checking dispatch pb?

A

Root cause analisis

143
Q

The ATC DATA link selects automatically the transmiter-receiver to use without pilot input I.e.

VHF, SAT COM or UHF?

A

Yes

144
Q

I regards of DATALINK, which network is the one we use to request ATIS and or PDC?

A

623, which does not require prior notification.

145
Q

In the MFD ATC CONNECT page,

Which area is for CPDLC and which is for ADS C ?

A
146
Q

ADSC is used by the______ for_____

Do we we need to notify them in advance?

A

ADSC is used by the ATC for aircraft surveillance.

They will connect at will with the aircraft, but only if ADS-C is armed

And get access to all aircraft reports

No, no prior notification required.

147
Q

Before starting CPDLC communications, do we send a NOTIFICATION to the connected newtork?

A

Yes

148
Q

PAX DOOR OPENING SEQUENCE:

A
149
Q

HOw do you determine if the window cracked is structural or not?

A

If the Crack can be seen going right Trough the heating elemnt. It is structurally compromised.

Non sensed procedures needs to be activated.

150
Q

IGNORE THIS SLIDE
NEW HERO

A

OX R H Oil 13

151
Q

Starting the APU should normally be delayed untill 5 minutes from ENG start, except….

A

When the OAT is greater than 26C or lower than 17C

152
Q

Why is it important to insert the right number of PAX?

A

AIR FLOW selection

153
Q

When Starting the APU on BATT, we can expect some spurious messages like______

Can we ignore them since they are spurious?

A

ELEC RAT SHEDDING REDUNDANCY

COND VENT LOCAL CTL REDUNDANCY

And NO, we should not ignore them.

They should be cleared by maintenance or MEL them.