A330 Limitations Flashcards

1
Q

How can the autobrake system be disarmed?

A
  • Pressing the pb of the auto-brake system

- Applying sufficient brake pressure of pedals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What kind of operations is the A330 allowed to fly in?

A
  • RPT (Pax and Freight)
  • VFR and IFR
  • Extended overwater flight
  • Flight in icing conditions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

When can the max wind for the cargo door be increased to 50kts?

A

When the aircraft nose is orientated into wind or the cargo door is on the leeward side.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Max speed for Vfe(1+F)

A

215kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Max EGT for T/O and G/A?

A
  • 920 C, for 20 sec

- 900 C, 5 min (10min only with one engine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What fuel may be used?

A

Jet A, Jet A1, Jet B, JP4, JP5, JP8, No3 JET, TS-1 and RT (Jet B and JP4 may only be used provided the trim tank is empty and isolated during the entire flight.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Minimum Flight Crew

A

2 pilots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Min height for use of A/P during GLS approach when AUTOLAND is not displayed on the FMA

A

160ft AGL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Min Weight

A

125 000kg (121 000kg)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Vmo/Mmo

A

330kts/M 0.86

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Trim tank forward transfer pump failure.

A

Do not open at AoA >3 degrees.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

At what pressure does the safety relief valve open?

A
  • 0.26 PSI / 8.85 PSI
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Min oil qty

A

6qts + 0.7 qts for every hr of flight, but no less than 15qts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Max winds for automatic approach and autoland

A

Headwind: 35kts
Tailwind: 10kts
Crosswind: 20kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

MLW

A

179 000kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Vmo/Mmo (Direct Law)

A

330kts/M 0.80

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

APU elec power use only:

A

Above 22500ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Min height for use of A/P during all other phases

A

500ft AGL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

When must the EGPWS be disengaged?

A
  • From ops to/from rwys not included in EGPWS database

- For specific approach procedures, which have previously been identified as potentially producing false terrain alerts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Vmo/Mmo (Alternate Law)

A

330kts/M 0.82

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Starter limits?

A
  • 3min - 0N3 - 3min - 0N3 - 1min
  • After one cont. ops or three cycles, wait 30 min.
  • No running engagement of starter when N3 is above 10% on ground, or 30% in flight.

Or:

  • 1 cycle of 5 min
  • Then wait 30 min.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the limitations with regards to T/O on a contaminated rwy?

A

Not recommended if:

  • Wet ice,
  • Water on top of compacted snow,
  • Dry snow or wet snow over ice.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

N3 Max

A

100%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Max speed for Vfe(Full)

A

180kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Max tailwind for automatic ldg and rollout

A

10kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Max taxi speed with two tires deflated.

A

3 kts (Nose wheel steering angle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Mixing of fuels.

A

Is allowed provided the fuel freezing point is calculated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Max taxi speed with one tire deflated (max one per gear)

A

7kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Max tailwind for ldg at or below 10 000ft

A

15kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

CAT 3 FAIL PASSIVE MDH?

A

50ftif:

  • one A/P engaged in APPR mode with CAT3 SINGLE or CAT3 DUAL on FMA
  • A/THR must be used in selected or managed speed.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Min TAT:

A

-53 C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Max fuel temp.

A

+55 C (JP4, Jet B: +49 C)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Max oil temp.

A

190 C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Vle/Vlo (Gravity extension)

A

200kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Normal hydraulic operating pressure

A

3000 PSI +/- 200 PSI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Max speed for windshield wipers

A

230kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Min oil temp for T/O

A

20 C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Min height for use of A/P during straight-in non precision approach

A

Applicable minimum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Max APU EGT

A

650 C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

How long after T/O does the FMGES prevent the autopilot from being engaged?

A

5 sec

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Vmcl

A

126kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Max operating alt. with flaps/slats extended?

A

20 000ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

May the APU be operated with a LOW OIL LEVEL ECAM advisory displayed?

A

Yes, but maintenance action is required within next 15hrs of APU operation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Min height for use of A/P during ILS approach when CAT2 or CAT3 is not displayed on the FMA

A

160ft AGL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Min fuel for T/O

A

5200kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Max tailwind for ldg above 10 000ft

A

10kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Max wind for cargo door ops

A

40 kts

48
Q

Is the aircraft allowed to land above MLW?

A

Yes, as long as the overweight landing procedure is applied.

49
Q

Minimum height for use of the autopilot on T/O with SRS mode

A

100ft

50
Q

Max wind for pax door ops

A

40kts

51
Q

Max speed for cockpit window open

A

230kts

52
Q

Min height for use of A/P during circling approach

A

applicable circling minima - 100ft

53
Q

When must the pax/cargo door be closed?

A

Before the wind exceeds 60kts.

54
Q

Max alt for APU bleed air and Elec power:

A

22500ft

55
Q

Reduced thrust T/O limits

A
  • Only permitted if perf calculations permit
  • No more than 25% thrust reduction from full rated T/O thrust
  • Assumed temp must not be lower than flat rated or OAT temp
  • No reduced thrust on contaminated rwys
  • Reduced thrust T/O permitted with other failure if compensated for.
56
Q

Vlo

A

250kts / M0.55

57
Q

Nose wheel steering angle limit?

A

72 Degrees

58
Q

Min fuel temp.

A
  • Freezing point or -44C below 30000ft or -54C above 30000ft whichever is highest in inner tank.
  • Freezing point in outer or trim tank.
59
Q

Min weight for use of autoland

A

123 000kg

60
Q

N2 max

A

103.3%

61
Q

Onboard use of mobile telephones.

A

Not permitted on toilets and the flight deck.

62
Q

Max demonstrated x-wind for ldg

A

40 kts

63
Q

Max rwy alt.

A

12 500 ft

64
Q

Limitations on use of air cond. with LP ground units:

A
  • No simultaneous use of conditioned air from packs and LP ground units
  • Air flow supplied by two ground carts should not exceed 2 x 1.6kg/sec
65
Q

Max EGT for starting on ground?

A

700 C

66
Q

N1 Max

A

99%

67
Q

Mx rwy slope

A

+/- 2 %

68
Q

Max tailwind

A

15kts

69
Q

CAT 2 DH/MDH?

A

100ft AGL if:

  • one A/P engaged in APPR mode and CAT2, CAT3 SINGLE of CAT3 DUAL in FMA
  • If crew conducts automatic approach without autoland, then A/P must be disengaged at 80ft.
70
Q

Flight Maneuvering Load Acceleration Limits

A

Clean: -1g to +2.5 g
Other: 0g to +2.0 g

71
Q

Max pressure differential

A

-1 PSI to 9.25 PSI

72
Q

Reverse thrust limits:

A
  • Reverse thrust in flight is prohibited
  • Backing of a/c is not permitted
  • No max rev. thrust below 70kts
73
Q

Limits on the use of the OMTS

A

It is prohibited to be used:

  • when below 3000m AGL (10 000ft)
  • in some geographical areas
74
Q

Va limitations

A

As per graph in FCOM-LIM-13 P2/8
(Variable IAS, but M0.78)
No abrupt control inputs at speeds above Va.

75
Q

When is the use of autothrust approved?

A

Autothrust is approved with, or without AP/FD in selected or managed mode.

76
Q

Max alt for APU ground starting and operating:

A

14600ft

77
Q

Max speed for Vfe(1)

A

240kts

78
Q

Max APU rotor speed (N)

A

107%

79
Q

Max alt for APU operation and start limit:

A

41450ft

80
Q

When does the ram air inlet open?

A

Opens only if pressure differential is lower than 1PSI.

81
Q

Max speed for Vfe(2) (Config 1, Appr.)

A

205kts

82
Q

Min height for use of A/P during go-around

A

100ft AGL

83
Q

APU starter limits

A

3 start attempts, then 60 minute cooling period

84
Q

Vle

A

250kts / M0.55

85
Q

Max alt for APU battery start:

A

25000ft

86
Q

APU bleed air extraction with generator load in flight?

A

Only up to 22500ft

87
Q

Max speed for Vfe(2)

A

196kts

88
Q

When must true reference on the NAV mode be used?

A
  • North of 73N, between 90W and 120W
  • North of 82N
  • South of 60S
89
Q

Max brake temp. for T/O

A

300 C

90
Q

De-rated T/O thrust limits

A
  • No use of TOGA
  • No reduced thrust T/O during de-rated T/O
  • De-rated thrust permitted on any rwy condition
  • EPR mode must be operative
91
Q

MZFW

A

169 000kg

92
Q

Max electric power extraction from APU?

A

115kVA (100%)

93
Q

Max tire speed

A

204kts

94
Q

Max speed for speed brake use

A

No limitations

95
Q

Max wind for pax door ops if nose is orientated into wind

A

50kts

96
Q

MTOW

A
217 000kg (FCOM)
233 000kg (CX)
97
Q

Max EGT for starting in flight?

A

850 C

98
Q

APU bleed air extraction for wing anti-ice?

A

Not permitted

99
Q

Minimum CAT1 DH/MDH?

A
150ft if:
- HUD is used
- one A/P is engaged
- CAT2, CAT3 SINGLE, or CAT3 DUAL on FMA
- Manual landing
(- if no A/P and FMA, then 200ft must be used)
100
Q

Max starter continuous ops.

A

5 min

101
Q

Max APU EGT during start

A

1250 C

102
Q

Min oil pressure

A

25 PSI

103
Q

Nose wheel steering angle limit during towing and pushback?

A

65 Degrees

104
Q

What are the limitations with regards to the use of HP ground unit?

A

Do not use HP ground unit when APU supplies bleed air to avoid system damage.

105
Q

How is the emergency cabin lighting charged?

A

Full bright or DIM 1:

  • for 30 minutes before flight
  • After 11 hrs of flight with cabin lighting is DIM 2 or Off mode
106
Q

Max EGT for MCT and time limit?

A

850 C, unlimited

107
Q

Max speed for Vfe(3)

A

186kts

108
Q

When is nav mode not permitted to be used?

A
  • North of 60N, between 30W and 160W
  • North of 75N
  • South of 55S
109
Q

Max fuel imbalance?

A

See table in LIM-28 P1/2 (In exceptional circumstances, i.e. fuel system failure, the aircraft is fully controllable during all phases of flight.)

110
Q

MRW

A

217 900kg

111
Q

CAT 3 FAIL OPERATIONAL MDH?

A

0ft - 75m RVR if:

  • A/THR must be used in selected or managed mode
  • 2 A/P must be enegaged in APPR mode and CAT3 DUAL on FMA
112
Q

Max certified x-wind

A

32 kts (gusts incl)

113
Q

What are the fuel loading discrepancy limits?

A

(Used to be) +1700/-1000kg

(Now) Check table in FCOM-PRO-NOR-SOP-Before Push Back and Start - Before Start Clearance

114
Q

For a FLEX takeoff what are the weight and QNH discrepancy limits?

A

+200/-500kg

-1hPa

115
Q

For a TOGA takeoff what are the weight and QNH discrepancy limits?

A

+0/-500kg

Any pressure drop below calculated value