Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Work Study > A330 > Flashcards

A330 Flashcards

1
Q

Maximum Runway Slope

A

+/- 2%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Maximum tailwind component for takeoff and landing

A

15 knots
10 knots for landing elevation above 11,000’
If landing with greater than 10 knots tailwind, FLAPS FULL is recommended

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Maximum crosswind component for takeoff and landing

A

40 knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

MMO

A

M0.86

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

VMO

A

330 knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

VFE CONF 1

A

240 knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

VFE CONF 1+F

A

215 knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

VFE CONF 2

A

196 knots (select on approach up to 205 knots)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

VFE CONF 3

A

186 knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

VFE CONF FULL

A

180 knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

VLE/VLO (Maximum speed for extending, retracting or operating with landing gear extended)

A

250 knots/M0.55

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Maximum speed for landing gear gravity extension

A

200 knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Maximum speed with a cockpit window open

A

230 knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Maximum speed with wipers operating

A

230 knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Maximum tyre speed

A

204 knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Maximum operating altitude

A

41,450’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Maximum elevation for takeoff and landing

A

12,500’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Maximum temperature for takeoff and landing

A

ISA + 40° (+55°C at sea level)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Minimum TAT

A

-53°C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Flight manoeuvring load limits

A

-1g to +2.5g (clean)
0g to +2g (other configs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Minimum runway width

A

45 metres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

A330-200: VMCL (Minimum control speed - Landing)

A

118 knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

A330-200: VMCG (minimum control speed - ground) at sea level

A

112 knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

A330-200: VMCA (minimum control speed - air) at sea level

A

106 knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

A330-300: VMCL (minimum control speed - landing)

A

123 knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

A330-300: VMCG (minimum control speed - ground) at sea level

A

124 knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

A330-300: VMCA (minimum control speed - air) at sea level

A

122 knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Maximum recommended crosswind with RCC 5 (good)

A

32 knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Maximum recommended crosswind with RCC 4 (good/medium)

A

27 knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Maximum recommended crosswind with RCC 3 (medium)

A

20 knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Maximum recommended crosswind with RCC 2 (medium/poor)

A

20 knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Maximum recommended crosswind with RCC 1 (poor)

A

15 knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Takeoff is not recommended with the following runway conditions:

A

Wet ice
Water on top of compacted snow
Dry snow or wet snow over ice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Severe turbulence penetration speeds

A

Up to FL200: 240 knots
Up to FL350: 260 knots
Above FL350: M0.8 (A330-200)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Severe turbulence penetration speeds

A

Up to FL200: 240 knots
Up to FL350: 260 knots
Above FL350: M0.8 (A330-200)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Severe turbulence penetration speeds

A

Up to FL200: 240 knots
Up to FL350: 260 knots
Above FL350: M0.8 (-200)
M0.78 (-300)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Ground wind limits with open doors

A

40 knots while opening or closing all doors

50 knots if aircraft nose into wind
50 knots for opening or closing FWD/AFT cargo doors if on the downwind side

60 knots while open

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Maximum difference between Captain & First Officer’s altitude display on the ground

A

20 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Maximum difference between Captain or First Officer’s altitude display and the ISIS on the ground

A

60 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Maximum difference between Captain or First Officer’s altitude display and the standby altimeter on the ground

A

300 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Maximum difference between Captain or First Officer’s altitude display and gate elevation

A

60 feet
- Up to 75 feet is permitted for one sector only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

In flight RVSM altimeter discrepancy (cruise altitudes)

A

120 feet between PFDs
320 feet between standby altimeter and either PFD
See RVSM table in FCOM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What requirements are there for a landing above maximum landing weight in case of in flight turn back or diversion?

A

Overweight landing procedure is to applied

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Maximum takeoff weight

A

-200D & -300: 233,000kg
-200L: 238,000kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Maximum Landing Weight

A

EBA-D: 180,000kg
EBE-V: 182,000kg
QPA-J: 187,000kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

With passengers on board, maximum time without air conditioning

A

20 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Must not use bleed air from the APU and from the HP Air Start Unit at the same time

A

Prevent adverse effect on the Bleed Air System

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Must not use conditioned air from the packs and from the LP Air Conditioning Unit at the same time

A

Prevent adverse effect on the Air Conditioning System

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Maximum cabin differential pressure

A

9.25 psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Maximum negative differential pressure

A

-0.73 psi
-1.00 psi for EBA-D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Pressurisation safety valve setting

A

8.85 psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Minimum height for autopilot engagement

A

100 feet AGL
At least 5 seconds after liftoff

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Minimum height for autopilot disconnection for a manual landing

A

FMA CAT 1: 160 feet AGL
FMA CAT 2 or 3: 80 feet AGL
FINAL APP, V/S, or FPA modes: 250 feet AGL
All other phases of flight or AP modes: 500 feet AGL

OP DES or DES modes can be used in approach, above 500’ only if FCU altitude is set to the higher of 500’ AGL or MDA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Maximum wind speeds for autoland

A

Headwind: 35 knots
Crosswind: 20 knots (15 knots if below 550 metres RV/RVR)
Tailwind: 10 knots

Applies to Tower-reported winds only, not ND display

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Glide slope angles for autoland

A

2.5° to 3.25°

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Allowed landing configuration for Autoland

A

Config 3 or FULL

If one engine is inoperative, only Config 3 is approved, with all procedures complete by 1000’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Automatic rollout is approved on what runway surface conditions?

A

Dry or Wet

Performance on contaminated runways has not been demonstrated

56
Q

Maximum weight for autoland in an emergency

A

229,000kg

57
Q

Reverse thrust limitations

A

Maximum reverse thrust should not be used below 70 knots
Idle reverse thrust permitted to aircraft stop

58
Q

FLEX takeoff thrust is not permitted on contaminated runways

A

FlySmart EFB will not protect against this limitation

59
Q

Engine thrust limitations

A

TOGA/FLEX thrust modes: 5 minutes (10 minutes with one engine inoperative)

60
Q

Engine thrust limitations

A

TOGA/FLEX thrust modes:
Maximum Time: 5 minutes (10 minutes with one engine inoperative)
Maximum EGT: 975°C
MCT thrust mode:
Maximum EGT: 940°C
Engine Start on Ground:
Maximum EGT: 750°C
Engine Start in Flight:
Maximum EGT: 975°C

61
Q

Maximum N1 & N2 speeds

A

N1: 115.5%
N2: 113%

62
Q

Engine Oil Limitations: Maximum temperature

A

Maximum continuous temperature: 160°C
Maximum temperature for up to 15 mintues: 175°C

63
Q

Maximum continuous engine starter operation:

A

5 minutes

64
Q

Cooldown period between engine start attempts

A

30 seconds after first attempt, 10 minutes after each subsequent attempt

65
Q

Do not engage the engine starter when N2 is above?

A

30%

66
Q

Engine starter limitations: What is defined as a single cycle?

A

A standard automatic start with up to three start attempts

67
Q

APU maximum altitude to supply electrical load

A

41,450’

68
Q

APU maximum altitude to assist engine start

A

20,000’

69
Q

APU maximum altitude to supply both electrical load and bleed air

A

14,600’ (on ground)
17,500’ (dual packs)
22,500’ (single pack)

70
Q

Is the use of APU bleed air for wing anti ice permitted?

A

No

71
Q

Maximum altitude for APU start on battery power (EMER ELEC CONFIG)

A

25,000’

72
Q

APU cool down period following three consecutive APU start attempts

A

60 minutes

73
Q

APU maximum EGT

A

For start: 1250°C
Running: 650°C

74
Q

APU maximum N speed

A

107%

75
Q

Is APU start or shutdown permitted during fuelling operations?

A

Yes

76
Q

If the APU fails to start or following an automatic APU shutdown during fuelling operations:

A

Do not attempt another start of the APU

77
Q

APU: If a fuel spill occurs

A

Perform a normal APU shutdown

78
Q

Maximum altitude with flaps/slats extended

A

20,000’

79
Q

Extended flight in icing conditions with slats extended…

A

… should be avoided

80
Q

Avoid rapid/large alternating control inputs

A

Especially in combination with large changes in pitch, roll or yaw

81
Q

Approach based on radio navaids:
- What AP modes may be used?
- Do the navaids need to be installed/serviceable?
- Do navaids need to be monitored?

A

May be performed in NAV, APP NAV, or FINAL APP modes

If GPS PRIMARY available:
- Navaids may be unserviceable
- Airborne equipment may be inoperative or not installed
- Navaids need not be tuned or monitored during the approach

82
Q

RNAV approach:
- What AP modes can be used?
- What requirements must be met?

A

May be performed in FINAL APP or NAV/FPA modes

GPS PRIMARY must be available

Aircraft other than -200L require the approach to be validated and approved before using FINAL APP mode

83
Q

Maximum fuel temperature

A

+55 C

84
Q

Minimum fuel temperature

A

-44 C for Jet A1
-37 C for Jet A

85
Q

Maximum fuel imbalance (Inner Tanks)

A

2900kg to 7500kg depending on distribution

86
Q

Maximum fuel imbalance (Outer Tanks)

A

1480kg to 1730kg depending on distribution

87
Q

Minimum fuel quantity for takeoff

A

5200kg

ECAM alerts related to low fuel level in the wing tanks must not appear

88
Q

Maximum brake temperature for takeoff

A

300 C if brake fans OFF
150 C if brake fans ON (or used recently)

89
Q

Maximum taxi speed (normal operations)

A

30 knots

10 knots for turns of 90 degrees or more

90
Q

Maximum taxi speed (deflated tyres)

A

1 tyre deflated per gear: 7 knots while turning

2 tyres deflated on the same gear (max one main gear): 3 knots and max NWS angle 30 degrees

If tyre damage is suspected, an inspection is required prior to taxi

91
Q

Minimum crew oxygen pressure

A

1330psi

92
Q

In seat power supply system

A

Must be turned OFF for takeoff and landing

93
Q

Memory Items: Loss of Braking

A

Announce “Loss of Braking”
Reverse - Max
Brake pedals - Release
“Anti skid off” - Order
Antiskid/NWS switch - OFF
Brake pedals - Press
Max brake pressure - 1000psi
If still no braking: Parking brake - Use

94
Q

Memory Items: Emergency Descent

A

Announce “Emergency Descent”
Crew oxygen masks - Use
Signs - ON
Emergency Descent - Initiate
If A/THR not active: Thrust levers - Idle
Speedbrake - Full

95
Q

Memory Items: Stall Recovery

A

Announce “Stall - I have control”
Nose down pitch control - Apply
Bank - Wings level
When out of stall:
Thrust - increase smoothly as needed
Speedbrakes - check retracted
Flight path - recover smoothly
If in clean configuration and below 20,000’:
Flap 1 - Select

96
Q

Memory Items: Stall Warning at Liftoff

A

Announce “Stall - TOGA 15 Degrees”
Thrust levers - TOGA
Pitch attitude - 15 degrees
Bank - Wings level

97
Q

Memory Items: Unreliable Speed Indication

A

If the safe conduct of the flight is impacted:
Announce “Unreliable Speed”
AP - OFF
ATHR - OFF
FD - OFF
Pitch/thrust setting:
Below thrust reduction altitude: 15/TOGA
Above thrust reduction altitude: 10/CLB
Above 10,000’: 5/CLB
Flaps (If 0-3): Maintain current config
Flaps (If Full): Select flaps 3
Speedbrakes - Check retracted
Landing Gear - Up
When above MSA or circuit altitude, level off for troubleshooting

98
Q

Memory Items: EGPWS Warnings

A

Announce “Pull Up TOGA”
Simultaneously:
AP - OFF
Pitch - Pull Up
Thrust Levers - TOGA
Speedbrake - Check retracted
Bank - Wings level or adjust
Do not change configuration until clear of obstacle

99
Q

Memory Items - TCAS Warnings

A

Announce “TCAS - I have control”

At RA activation:
AP - OFF
FD - OFF
Vertical speed - adjust or maintain
ATC - Notify

If “CLIMB” RA during approach, in CONF 3 or FULL:
Go around - perform
Vertical speed - monitor

When “clear of conflict” is announced:
ATC - Notify
Lateral and Vertical guidance- adjust
AP/FD - as required

100
Q

Memory Items - Windshear during takeoff (after V1)

A

Announce “Windshear - TOGA”
Thrust levers - TOGA
Reaching VR - Rotate
SRS orders - Follow
Do not change configuration until out of windshear
Closely monitor the flight path and speed
Advise ATC “Windshear Escape”
Smoothly recover to normal climb when out of windshear

101
Q

Memory Items - Windshear warning (Airborne)

A

Announce “Windshear - TOGA”
Thrust levers - TOGA
AP (if engaged) - keep ON
SRS orders - Follow
Do not change configuration until out of windshear
Closely monitor the flight path and speed
Smoothly recover to normal climb when out of windshear

102
Q

What approaches can use Low Visibility Procedures (Captain PF)?

A

ILS (LOC/GS modes)
RNAV overlay, RNP LNAV, RNP LNAV/VNAV (FINAL APP mode)

(AP and/or FD must be coupled to a glide slope or glide path)

103
Q

Memory PA: Alert Order

A

“Attention! All passengers remain seated and await further instructions”

104
Q

Memory PA: Brace Order

A

“Brace - Brace - Brace”

105
Q

Memory PA: Ditching Order

A

“Attention! This is a ditching. Follow your crew member’s instructions”

106
Q

Memory PA: Emergency Descent

A

“Attention Cabin Crew. Emergency Descent”

107
Q

Memory PA: Evacuation Order

A

“Evacuate - Evacuate - Evacuate”

108
Q

Memory PA: Seat Belt

A

“All passengers and crew be seated and fasten seatbelts”

109
Q

Memory PA: Turbulence

A

“All passengers and crew be seated and fasten seat belts immediately”

110
Q

Engine Oil Limitations: Minimum temperature for engine start

A

Minimum temperature for engine start: -40°C

111
Q

Engine Oil Limitations: Minimum oil quantity

A

12 qt, plus estimated consumption at 0.56 qt/hour

112
Q

Engine Oil Limitations: Minimum oil quantity

A

Minimum oil quantity: 12 qt, plus estimated consumption at 0.56 qt/hour

113
Q

Engine Oil Limitations: Minimum oil pressure

A

Minimum oil pressure: 10 psi at idle, 30 psi at TO thrust

114
Q

Memory Items: Windshear warning (Takeoff before V1)

A
  • If there are significant variations in airspeed and airspeed trend below indicated V1, reject the takeoff
  • Flight crew must decide if there is sufficient runway remaining to stop the aircraft as indicated V1 may be reached later than expected
115
Q

Stable approach criteria:

A

-All normal checklists completed
- Fully configured for landing (by 1000’RA)
- Approach path is contained within the flight tolerances

116
Q

When must the aircraft be configured for landing?

A

Fully configured by 1000’RA for all approaches

117
Q

Maximum rate of descent (3000’ to 5000’ AGL)

A

Current height in fpm

118
Q

Maximum rate of descent (1000’ to 3000’)

A

2000fpm

119
Q

What is the latest point the nominated vertical approach path must be intercepted?

A

Must be established by the FAF/FAP if the use of an instrument procedure is required, otherwise intercept by 1000’ RA

120
Q

Tolerances for all approaches: Rate of descent

A

Maximum 1000fpm below 1000’RA

121
Q

Tolerance for all approaches: Visual approach path (VASI/PAPI)

A

No significant deviation from the nominated approach path

122
Q

Tolerances for all approaches: Tracking

A

Must be tracking the extended centreline by 500’ unless flying a published procedure

123
Q

Tolerances for all approaches: Airspeed

A

-5 to +10 knots when below 500’RA

124
Q

Tolerances for all approaches: Energy levels

A

Aircraft energy levels correct for the configuration/prevailing conditions
Be away of thrust/energy levels into the flare, and the effect on engine spool up time for a go around

125
Q

Tolerances for an ILS/LLZ/LDA

A

Localiser: 1/2 dot
Glide slope: 1/2 dot

126
Q

Tolerances for a VOR approach:

A

Tracking: 1/2 dot (2.5 degrees)

127
Q

Tolerances for an NDB approach:

A

5 degrees

128
Q

Tolerances for RNP LNAV approach

A

Lateral deviation 0.3nm from the initial/intermediate waypoint

Vertical: not below the minimum segment altitude

129
Q

Tolerances for an RNP LNAV/VNAV approach:

A

Lateral: deviation 0.3nm
Vertical: Prior to VIP - not below minimum segment altitude
After the VIP - vertical path minus 75’

130
Q

What approaches may be flown using decelerated approach procedures?

A

If flown with vertical guidance from a glideslope or glide path (i.e. APPR or FINAL APP modes)

OR

If the approach is flown in VMC

131
Q

Approach tolerances: When should the PM call “SPEED”?

A

Speed exceeds -5 to +10 knots below 500’RA

132
Q

Approach tolerances: When must the PM call “SINK RATE”?

A

Rate of descent exceeds 1000fpm below 1000’RA

133
Q

When must the PM call “BANK”?

A

Bank exceeds 7 degrees

134
Q

When must the PM call “PITCH”?

A

Pitch lower than 0 degrees or higher than 10 degrees

135
Q

Tolerances during Landing: when must the PM call “BANK BANK”?

A

Bank reaches 7 degrees

136
Q

Tolerances during Landing: When must the PM call “PITCH PITCH”?

A

Pitch reaches 7.5 degrees

137
Q

Tolerances during Go Around: When must the PM call “BANK”?

A

Bank exceeds 7 degrees

138
Q

Tolerances during Go around: When must the PM call “PITCH”?

A

Pitch less than 10 degrees or greater than 20 degrees

139
Q

Tolerances during go around: When must the PM call “SINK RATE”?

A

No climb rate

140
Q

Memory Items: Windshear during take-off (before V1)

A

If there are significant variations in airspeed and airspeed trend below indicated V1, reject the take-off

Aircraft may reach indicated V1 later than expected, so flight crew must ensure there is sufficient runway remaining to stop the aircraft.

Work Study (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions