A320 System Exam Questions Flashcards

1
Q

A320 Wingspan (without sharklets)?

  • 32,1m
  • 35,8m
  • 34,1m
  • 29,9m
A
  • 34,1m
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2
Q

An amber light on a p/b indicates:

  • Caution. A failure, of which the flight crew should be aware, but does not call for immediate action.
  • Warning. A failure requiring immediate action.
  • Normal operation of a system used temporarily.
  • Abnormal p/b position.
A
  • Caution. A failure, of which the flight crew should be aware, but does not call for immediate action.
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3
Q

On the A321, which part of aircraft needs the most important clearance when making a U turn?

  • Horizontal stabilizer
  • Nose
  • Rudder
  • Wing tip
A
  • Horizontal stabilizer
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4
Q

FAP number and location?

  • One FAP in the front of the cabin
  • One FAP in the rear of the cabin
  • One FAP in the front and one in the rear of the cabin
  • No FAP
A
  • One FAP in the front of the cabin
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5
Q

The Cockpit Door Surveillance System allows the pilot to see:

  • The cockpit entrance
  • The cockpit entrance, the forward galley and the main part of the aisle
  • The cockpit entrance and the full forward galley
  • The cockpit entrance and part of the forward galley
A
  • The cockpit entrance and the full forward galley
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6
Q

The contents of the Medical Kit:

  • Can be used by anyone the flight attendants deem qualified
  • Can only be used in coordination with designated medical facilities
  • Include the Automatic External Defibrillator
  • Can be used by a Medical Doctor
A
  • Can be used by a Medical Doctor
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7
Q

What are the functions of the FMGCs?

  • Flight Management & Flight Guidance
  • Flight Monitoring & Flight Augmentation
  • Flight Augmentation & Flight Management
  • Flight Guidance & Flight Monitoring
A
  • Flight Management & Flight Guidance
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8
Q

The pitch FD bar flashing permanently indicates that:

  • in APPR mode (G/S*, G/S, LAND, FINAL) the FD reverts to V/S mode (flight crew action or loss of vertical approach mode)
  • the ALT* mode is lost due to a FCU altitude change greater than 200ft
  • one AP or one FD is engaged while both AP/FD were previously OFF
  • transmission of the GLIDE data is interrupted when in G/S, G/S* or LAND modes above 100ft RA
A
  • transmission of the GLIDE data is interrupted when in G/S, G/S* or LAND modes above 100ft RA
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9
Q

What’s the limitation for engaging the AP after takeoff?

  • 100ft AGL and 10sec
  • 100ft AGL and 5sec
  • 50ft AGL and 10sec
  • 50ft AGL and 5sec
A
  • 100ft AGL and 5sec
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10
Q

In which of the following conditions is the HDG/TRK preset available?
A. Before takeoff
B. Whenever the LOC*, LOC, LAND or GA modes are engaged
C. When the HDG is selected
D. When NAV is armed

  • A & B
  • B & C
  • C & D
  • D & A
A
  • A & B
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11
Q

During a managed climb, if the EXPED p/b is pressed, will the flight plan altitude be ignored?
And will the speed constraints be ignored?

  • Yes/No
  • No/Yes
  • Yes/Yes
  • No/No
A

Yes/Yes

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12
Q

During a managed climb, expedite is temporarily used. To disengage the expedite climb, the pilot can:
A. Press the EXPED p/b
B. Pull or push the ALT knob
C. Select a V/S or perform a push to level off
D. Select a speed/Mach

  • C & D & A
  • A & B & C
  • B & C & D
A
  • B & C & D
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13
Q

If the A/SKID & NW STRG switch is placed to the OFF position:

  • It will not cause a NW STRG DISC memo to appear and the green hydraulic system supplies pressure to the brakes.
  • It will cause a NW STRG DISC memo to appear and the yellow hydraulic system supplies pressure to the brakes.
  • It will cause a NW STRG DISC memo to appear and the green hydraulic system supplies pressure to the brakes.
  • It will not cause a NW STRG DISC memo to appear and the yellow hydraulic system supplies pressure to the brakes.
A
  • It will not cause a NW STRG DISC memo to appear and the yellow hydraulic system supplies pressure to the brakes.
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14
Q

Under which speed the automatic braking does not activate because the ground spoilers won’t deploy during an RTO?

  • 100kts
  • 72kts
  • V1
  • Vr
A
  • 72kts
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15
Q

Which statement is true?

  • The PASSENGER SYS ON light indicates that all storage doors have opened
  • The gaseous cylinders provide approximately 15min of oxygen
  • The masks drop automatically if the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 14000ft
  • Oxygen generation begins when the storage doors open
A
  • The masks drop automatically if the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 14000ft
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16
Q

Maximum altitude for APU battery start:

  • Normal flight envelope
  • 35000ft
  • 25000ft
  • 20000ft
A
  • 25000ft
17
Q

Which of the following does not provide input to the CPC?

  • Thrust levers
  • ADIRS
  • FADECs
  • LGCIUs
A
  • FADECS
18
Q

After a double CPC failure and when Manuel Mode is active, what will be displayed on this CAB PRESS page?

  • The outflow valve display will become amber
  • The “LDG ELEV AUTO” will be replaced by a “LDG ELEV MAN”
  • The outflow valve display will flash to invite the crew to operate manually
  • The “LDG ELEV AUTO” and “SYS 1” will disappear and the “MAN” will appear over the outflow valve
A
  • The “LDG ELEV AUTO” and “SYS 1” will disappear and the “MAN” will appear over the outflow valve
19
Q

During walk around in very cold conditions, you observe that the AVNCS air inlet valve is in the open position:

  • This configuration is normal as long as you are in the ground
  • This configuration may exist even in very cold weather conditions if the AVNCS compartment becomes hot
  • On ground, with cold temperatures, the air inlet and extract valves should be closed. So, in this situation, action has to be taken
A
  • On ground, with cold temperatures, the air inlet and extract valves should be closed. So, in this situation, action has to be taken
20
Q

Which is correct if a microphone is emitting for more than 30sec:

A. An interrupted tone sounds for 5sec
B. The emission is turned off
C. To reactivate the emission, the crew has to release the push to talk button and press it again

  • A & C
  • B & C
  • A & B & C
A
  • A, B, C
21
Q

In order to erase the CVR band, which is true?

A. Press 2 min the ERASE p/b
B. Aircraft on ground
C. Parking brake ON
D. Press 2 sec the ERASE p/b

  • A, C, D
  • A, B, C
  • B, C, D
A
  • B, C, D
22
Q

The GEN 1 LINE p/b OFF is used:

  • To open the GEN 1 line contractor for smoke drill
  • To force the GEN 1 power on the AC BUS 2 via the BTBs
  • To de-energize the GEN 1
A
  • To open the GEN 1 line contractor for smoke drill
23
Q

The MAINT BUS switch will automatically revert to OFF when:

  • Only the external power is selected ON in the cockpit
  • External power is removed from the aircraft or when the external power is selected ON in the cockpit
  • Only the external power is removed from the aircraft
A
  • Only the external power is removed from the aircraft
24
Q

On the SIGNS panel, with the EMER EXIT LT on the ARM position:

  • The emergency lights illuminate
  • If the DC ESS BUS fails, both BAT1 and BAT2 power the emergency lights
  • If the DC SHED ESS BUS fails, dedicated internal batteries power the emergency lights
A
  • If the DC SHED ESS BUS fails, dedicated internal batteries power the emergency lights
25
Q

During a manual engine start, the start valve opens:

  • Only by pressing the MAN START p/b switch
  • When the engine mode selector is set to IGN/START and the MAN START p/b is pressed
  • Only by moving the master switch to the ON position
A
  • When the engine mode selector is set to IGN/START and the MAN START p/b is pressed
26
Q

True or false?

The manual rudder trim knob and the trim reset p/b are operative when AP is ON

A

False

27
Q

How can you deactivate the opposite side stick?

  • By keeping the side stick p/b pressed at all time
  • By pressing more than 20sec the side stick p/b
  • By pressing more than 40sec the side stick p/b
A
  • By pressing more than 40sec the side stick p/b
28
Q

True or false?

In ground mode, control surface deflection is proportional to side stick and rudder pedal movement?

A

True

29
Q

True or false:

The aircraft need 2 functional RAs for the Landing/Flare mode to operate?

A

False, landing mode can operation with only one RA available

30
Q

In which case does the BMC close the bleed valves?

  • Over temperature and/or over pressure
  • Leak detection
  • Starting sequence
  • All of the above
A
  • All of the above
31
Q

How does the pre cooler regulate the air temperature delivered by the pneumatic system?

  • by using the GTR’s fan air through the Fan Air Valve
  • by using outside air from a Venturi valve
A
  • by using the GTR’s fan air through the Fan Air Valve
32
Q

When does the altitude window pulse amber?

  • when the aircraft descends below the MDA during an approach
  • when the aircraft deviates from the selected altitude or flight level
  • both answers are correct
A
  • when the aircraft deviates from the selected altitude or flight level
33
Q

How many basic modes does the GPWS have?

  • 6
  • 4
  • 5
A
  • 5