A320 System Exam Questions Flashcards
A320 Wingspan (without sharklets)?
- 32,1m
- 35,8m
- 34,1m
- 29,9m
- 34,1m
An amber light on a p/b indicates:
- Caution. A failure, of which the flight crew should be aware, but does not call for immediate action.
- Warning. A failure requiring immediate action.
- Normal operation of a system used temporarily.
- Abnormal p/b position.
- Caution. A failure, of which the flight crew should be aware, but does not call for immediate action.
On the A321, which part of aircraft needs the most important clearance when making a U turn?
- Horizontal stabilizer
- Nose
- Rudder
- Wing tip
- Horizontal stabilizer
FAP number and location?
- One FAP in the front of the cabin
- One FAP in the rear of the cabin
- One FAP in the front and one in the rear of the cabin
- No FAP
- One FAP in the front of the cabin
The Cockpit Door Surveillance System allows the pilot to see:
- The cockpit entrance
- The cockpit entrance, the forward galley and the main part of the aisle
- The cockpit entrance and the full forward galley
- The cockpit entrance and part of the forward galley
- The cockpit entrance and the full forward galley
The contents of the Medical Kit:
- Can be used by anyone the flight attendants deem qualified
- Can only be used in coordination with designated medical facilities
- Include the Automatic External Defibrillator
- Can be used by a Medical Doctor
- Can be used by a Medical Doctor
What are the functions of the FMGCs?
- Flight Management & Flight Guidance
- Flight Monitoring & Flight Augmentation
- Flight Augmentation & Flight Management
- Flight Guidance & Flight Monitoring
- Flight Management & Flight Guidance
The pitch FD bar flashing permanently indicates that:
- in APPR mode (G/S*, G/S, LAND, FINAL) the FD reverts to V/S mode (flight crew action or loss of vertical approach mode)
- the ALT* mode is lost due to a FCU altitude change greater than 200ft
- one AP or one FD is engaged while both AP/FD were previously OFF
- transmission of the GLIDE data is interrupted when in G/S, G/S* or LAND modes above 100ft RA
- transmission of the GLIDE data is interrupted when in G/S, G/S* or LAND modes above 100ft RA
What’s the limitation for engaging the AP after takeoff?
- 100ft AGL and 10sec
- 100ft AGL and 5sec
- 50ft AGL and 10sec
- 50ft AGL and 5sec
- 100ft AGL and 5sec
In which of the following conditions is the HDG/TRK preset available?
A. Before takeoff
B. Whenever the LOC*, LOC, LAND or GA modes are engaged
C. When the HDG is selected
D. When NAV is armed
- A & B
- B & C
- C & D
- D & A
- A & B
During a managed climb, if the EXPED p/b is pressed, will the flight plan altitude be ignored?
And will the speed constraints be ignored?
- Yes/No
- No/Yes
- Yes/Yes
- No/No
Yes/Yes
During a managed climb, expedite is temporarily used. To disengage the expedite climb, the pilot can:
A. Press the EXPED p/b
B. Pull or push the ALT knob
C. Select a V/S or perform a push to level off
D. Select a speed/Mach
- C & D & A
- A & B & C
- B & C & D
- B & C & D
If the A/SKID & NW STRG switch is placed to the OFF position:
- It will not cause a NW STRG DISC memo to appear and the green hydraulic system supplies pressure to the brakes.
- It will cause a NW STRG DISC memo to appear and the yellow hydraulic system supplies pressure to the brakes.
- It will cause a NW STRG DISC memo to appear and the green hydraulic system supplies pressure to the brakes.
- It will not cause a NW STRG DISC memo to appear and the yellow hydraulic system supplies pressure to the brakes.
- It will not cause a NW STRG DISC memo to appear and the yellow hydraulic system supplies pressure to the brakes.
Under which speed the automatic braking does not activate because the ground spoilers won’t deploy during an RTO?
- 100kts
- 72kts
- V1
- Vr
- 72kts
Which statement is true?
- The PASSENGER SYS ON light indicates that all storage doors have opened
- The gaseous cylinders provide approximately 15min of oxygen
- The masks drop automatically if the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 14000ft
- Oxygen generation begins when the storage doors open
- The masks drop automatically if the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 14000ft
Maximum altitude for APU battery start:
- Normal flight envelope
- 35000ft
- 25000ft
- 20000ft
- 25000ft
Which of the following does not provide input to the CPC?
- Thrust levers
- ADIRS
- FADECs
- LGCIUs
- FADECS
After a double CPC failure and when Manuel Mode is active, what will be displayed on this CAB PRESS page?
- The outflow valve display will become amber
- The “LDG ELEV AUTO” will be replaced by a “LDG ELEV MAN”
- The outflow valve display will flash to invite the crew to operate manually
- The “LDG ELEV AUTO” and “SYS 1” will disappear and the “MAN” will appear over the outflow valve
- The “LDG ELEV AUTO” and “SYS 1” will disappear and the “MAN” will appear over the outflow valve
During walk around in very cold conditions, you observe that the AVNCS air inlet valve is in the open position:
- This configuration is normal as long as you are in the ground
- This configuration may exist even in very cold weather conditions if the AVNCS compartment becomes hot
- On ground, with cold temperatures, the air inlet and extract valves should be closed. So, in this situation, action has to be taken
- On ground, with cold temperatures, the air inlet and extract valves should be closed. So, in this situation, action has to be taken
Which is correct if a microphone is emitting for more than 30sec:
A. An interrupted tone sounds for 5sec
B. The emission is turned off
C. To reactivate the emission, the crew has to release the push to talk button and press it again
- A & C
- B & C
- A & B & C
- A, B, C
In order to erase the CVR band, which is true?
A. Press 2 min the ERASE p/b
B. Aircraft on ground
C. Parking brake ON
D. Press 2 sec the ERASE p/b
- A, C, D
- A, B, C
- B, C, D
- B, C, D
The GEN 1 LINE p/b OFF is used:
- To open the GEN 1 line contractor for smoke drill
- To force the GEN 1 power on the AC BUS 2 via the BTBs
- To de-energize the GEN 1
- To open the GEN 1 line contractor for smoke drill
The MAINT BUS switch will automatically revert to OFF when:
- Only the external power is selected ON in the cockpit
- External power is removed from the aircraft or when the external power is selected ON in the cockpit
- Only the external power is removed from the aircraft
- Only the external power is removed from the aircraft
On the SIGNS panel, with the EMER EXIT LT on the ARM position:
- The emergency lights illuminate
- If the DC ESS BUS fails, both BAT1 and BAT2 power the emergency lights
- If the DC SHED ESS BUS fails, dedicated internal batteries power the emergency lights
- If the DC SHED ESS BUS fails, dedicated internal batteries power the emergency lights
During a manual engine start, the start valve opens:
- Only by pressing the MAN START p/b switch
- When the engine mode selector is set to IGN/START and the MAN START p/b is pressed
- Only by moving the master switch to the ON position
- When the engine mode selector is set to IGN/START and the MAN START p/b is pressed
True or false?
The manual rudder trim knob and the trim reset p/b are operative when AP is ON
False
How can you deactivate the opposite side stick?
- By keeping the side stick p/b pressed at all time
- By pressing more than 20sec the side stick p/b
- By pressing more than 40sec the side stick p/b
- By pressing more than 40sec the side stick p/b
True or false?
In ground mode, control surface deflection is proportional to side stick and rudder pedal movement?
True
True or false:
The aircraft need 2 functional RAs for the Landing/Flare mode to operate?
False, landing mode can operation with only one RA available
In which case does the BMC close the bleed valves?
- Over temperature and/or over pressure
- Leak detection
- Starting sequence
- All of the above
- All of the above
How does the pre cooler regulate the air temperature delivered by the pneumatic system?
- by using the GTR’s fan air through the Fan Air Valve
- by using outside air from a Venturi valve
- by using the GTR’s fan air through the Fan Air Valve
When does the altitude window pulse amber?
- when the aircraft descends below the MDA during an approach
- when the aircraft deviates from the selected altitude or flight level
- both answers are correct
- when the aircraft deviates from the selected altitude or flight level
How many basic modes does the GPWS have?
- 6
- 4
- 5
- 5
