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Allegiant A320 limitations > A320 Limitations > Flashcards

A320 Limitations Flashcards

1
Q

Airplane Configuration Changes? (secondary air frame and/or engine parts missing)

A

Must be operated in accordance with the limitations of the Weight Manual, Aircraft Operating Manual as modified by the Configuration Deviation List
(CDL).

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2
Q

Certified in public transport category (passengers and freight) for day and night operations, in the following conditions:

A
  • Visual (VFR)
  • Instrument (IFR)
  • Icing
  • Extended Overwater Flight
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3
Q

Minimum Crew?

A

Captain and First Officer.

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4
Q

Maximum Operating Altitude?

A

39,100 ft.
(Maximum altitude at which it is possible to maintain cabin pressure altitude below
8,000 ft.)

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5
Q

Maximum Operating Altitude?
(Slats and/or Flaps extened)
►►Maximum Flap Extention Altitude?

A

20,000 ft

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6
Q

Maximum Allowable Load Factor?

Clean or Slats Only Extended

A

+2.5g to -1.0g

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7
Q

Maximum Allowable Load Factor?

Slats and Flaps EXTENDED

A

+2.0g to 0.0g

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8
Q

Maximum runway slope?

A

+/- 2%

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9
Q

Minimum runway width?

A

148 feet

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10
Q

Minimum runway width? Exception:

A

100 feet, following applies:
Max Crosswind limitation: 10kts
Minimum usable length 6,000’ (may be shortened with Fleet Manager Approval)(AAY)
Not approved with the following:
• Rudder Jam
• Rudder Pedal Jam
• Yaw Damper Fault
• Any failure leading to loss of the nose wheel steering.
NOTE: Autolands 100 feet rwys not authorized.

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11
Q

►►Maximum takeoff & landing tailwind

component?

A

10 knots

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12
Q

►►Maximum crosswind component

Allegiant

A

29 knots

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13
Q

►►Maximum wind for passenger door

Operation?

A

65 knots

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14
Q

►►Maximum wind for cargo door Operation?

A 
40 knots 
(50 knots w/nose oriented into the wind).
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15
Q

Maximum wind with passenger or cargo door

open?

A

65 knots

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16
Q

Maximum Operating Speed Vmo/Mmo?

A

350 KIAS/ .82M

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17
Q

In alternate or direct flight control laws.

If alternate or direct law is active:

A

Full ailerons and rudder application are confined to speeds below VA.
Maneuvers involving AOA near stall are confined to speeds below VA

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18
Q

Taxi Speed when taxi weight exceeds 167,500 lbs?

A

20 kts during a turn.

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19
Q

►►Maximum speed Flight Deck Window open?

A

200 knots.

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20
Q

►►Maximum speed operating windshield wipers?

A

230 knots.

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21
Q

The maximum speed for flight test of the RAT?

A

250 knots

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22
Q

►►Below 20,000 feet, Turbulent Air Penetration Speed?

A

maintain 250 knots.

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23
Q

►►At or above 20,000 feet, Turbulent Air Penetration Speed?

A

maintain 275 knots until intercepting 0.76 Mach.

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24
Q

Reduced thrust takeoff not allowed on contaminated runways.

A

TRUE

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25
Q

Cabin Pressure:

Maximum positive differential pressure:

A

8.6 PSI

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26
Q

Cabin Pressure:

Maximum negative differential pressure:

A

-1.0 PSI

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27
Q

Ram Air Inlet must not be opened unless the differential pressure is less than….

A

1.0 PSI.

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28
Q

►►Do not use low pressure ground conditioned air simultaneously with the air from the aircraft air conditioning packs.

A

TRUE.

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29
Q

►►Do not use HP ground (starting) air simultaneously with APU air.

A

TRUE.

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30
Q

When the OAT is above 120°F, do not power the avionics for more than?

A

2 hours unless the avionics ventilation system is operating normally.

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31
Q

►► Altitude For Use of Autopilot(s):

Minimum height for use of autopilot on TAKEOFF with SRS mode…….

A

100 ft AGL.

Note: An internal FMGS logic prevents the autopilot from engaging during the 5 seconds after liftoff.

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32
Q

►► Altitude For Use of Autopilot(s):
Min. height autopilot during Approach:
• ILS Approach with a manual landing?

A

No lower than 50 feet below the DA.

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33
Q

►► Altitude For Use of Autopilot(s):
Min. height autopilot during Approach:
• ILS approach when CAT 2 or CAT 3 is not displayed on the FMA?

A

160 ft AGL.

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34
Q

►► Altitude For Use of Autopilot(s):
Min. height autopilot during Approach:
• Straight-in non-precision approach?

A

MDA (MDH).

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35
Q

►► Altitude For Use of Autopilot(s):
Min. height autopilot during Approach:
• Straight-in LNAV/VNAV approach?

A

DA.

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36
Q

►► Altitude For Use of Autopilot(s):
Min. height autopilot during Approach:
• Circling approach?

A

MDA - 100 ft

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37
Q

►► Altitude For Use of Autopilot(s):
Min. height autopilot during Approach:
• Go-around (AP or FD engagement)?

A

100 ft AG.

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38
Q

►► Altitude For Use of Autopilot(s):

All other phases?

A

(500 ft AGL- A320) / (900 ft AGL- A319)

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39
Q

Autoflight Approaches:

The use of the autopilot or the flight director in the OP DES or DES mode is prohibited below 1,000 feet AGL in VMC, or below the FAF, or glideslope intercept altitude in IMC. (Allegiant)

A

TRUE

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40
Q

Autoflight Approaches:

Precision Approaches:

• The use of the autopilots and flight director with the APPR pb is approved for CAT 1 ILS approaches and LDA with glideslope.

A

TRUE

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41
Q

Autoflight Approaches:

Non-Precision Approaches:

NAV, or NAV/FINAL APP mode may be used for VOR, VOR/DME, NDB, NDB/DME or RNAV (including GPS) approaches.
NAV, or NAV/FINAL APP mode cannot be used for ILS, LOC, LOC-BC, LDA, SDF, or MLS final approach.

FINAL APP mode guidance capability with GPS PRIMARY has been demonstrated down to a MDH/DH (barometric) of 250 ft.

A

TRUE

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42
Q

Autoflight Approaches:

RNAV Approaches:

RNAV approaches without GPS PRIMARY may be performed only if the radio NAVAID
coverage supports the RNP value and HIGH accuracy is displayed on the MCDU with
the specified RNP, and operational approval is obtained.
For GPS approaches, GPS PRIMARY must be available.

A

TRUE

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43
Q

Autoflight Approaches:

VOR, VOR/DME, NDB, or NDB/DME approaches:
May be performed, in NAV, or NAV APP and FINAL APP mode, provided:

A

— GPS PRIMARY is available. In this case, the reference NAVAID may be unserviceable, or the airborne radio equipment may be inoperative, or not installed, provided operational approval is obtained.
Or
— Without GPS PRIMARY:
• The reference NAVAID and the corresponding airborne equipment is serviceable,
tuned, and monitored during the approach, or
• The radio NAVAID coverage supports the RNP value, specified for the approach procedure, and an operational approval is obtained.

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44
Q

Autoflight Approaches:

NAV MODE MAY BE USED:
After takeoff provided FMGS runway updating has been checked.
May be used in the terminal area, provided:

A

— GPS PRIMARY is available, or
— HIGH accuracy is displayed, and the appropriate RNP is checked or entered on
the MCDU, or
— NAVAID raw data is monitored.

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45
Q

Autoflight Approaches:

WGS 84
For instrument procedures not coded in the WGS 84 coordinate system, the GPS must be deselected, unless the shift between the local coordinate system and the WGS 84 is found acceptable for the intended operation.

A

NOTE:
1. The assessment of this shift can be done:
a. In flight, monitoring the NAVAID raw data in non RNAV procedures,
b. On ground performing a GPS survey of the procedure waypoints.
2. RNAV (GPS) and RNAV (RNP) approach procedures require WGS 84
coordinates and GPS.

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46
Q

Autoflight Approaches:

(A319) In the case of one engine inoperative, the use of the autopilot is not allowed to
perform Non Precision Approaches in the following Flight Modes:

A

– FINAL APP
– NAV/VS
– NAV/FPA
NOTE: The use of FD in NAV mode remains authorized

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47
Q

Autoflight Approaches:

When the weather is below VFR minimums (1,000/3), all Non-Precision Approaches will be flown utilizing the autopilot with the exception of a Non-Precision Approach with One Engine Inoperative (OEI)(A319 Only). (Allegiant)

A

TRUE

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48
Q

Maximum Generator Load?

A

90 KVA (100% of rated capacity)

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49
Q

Maximum TR Load?

A

200 amps

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50
Q

Placarded Flaps/Slats Extended Speed: (VFE)

• Flaps1

A

230 KTS

51
Q

Placarded Flaps/Slats Extended Speed: (VFE)

• 1 + F

A

215 KTS

52
Q

Placarded Flaps/Slats Extended Speed: (VFE)

• 2

A

200 KTS

53
Q

Placarded Flaps/Slats Extended Speed: (VFE)

• 3

A

185 KTS

54
Q

Placarded Flaps/Slats Extended Speed: (VFE)

• Full

A

177 KTS

55
Q

Flap Operating Speeds
NOTES:
• A logbook write-up is required if the above VFE speeds are exceeded.
• Do not exceed Allegiant limit speeds for flap extension (except as directed by an abnormal procedure or during flap retraction).
• At high gross weights, use the higher of either VFE–10 or lowest allowable speed for the configuration.

A

TRUE.

56
Q

APPROVED FUEL TYPES?

A

Jet A, Jet A1, Jet B, JP-4, JP-5, JP-8

57
Q

Fuel Imbalance

• ►►Fuel Imbalance The maximum fuel imbalance between inner wing tanks is?

A

3,300 pounds.

58
Q

Fuel Imbalance

• ►►An outer wing tank imbalance of

A

1,521 pounds (one tank empty/one tank full) is allowed

provided the total fuel (outer + inner) in each wing is approximately equaL.

59
Q

Fuel Management
• ►►The center tank fuel must be emptied before the wing tanks are emptied unless the center tank fuel is treated as ballast.

A

TRUE.

60
Q

Fuel Management

• ►►Takeoff using center tank fuel is prohibited.

A

TRUE.

61
Q

Fuel Management

• ►►WING TK LO LVL warning must not be displayed on ECAM for takeoff.

A

TRUE.

62
Q

The reset of any tripped fuel pump circuit breaker is prohibited.

A

TRUE.

63
Q

Normal hydraulic operating pressure is

A

3,000 plus or minus 200 PSI.

64
Q

The maximum speed for flight test of the RAT is

A

250 KTS.

65
Q

Aircraft (Structural) icing conditions exist when……

A

OAT on the ground and for takeoff, or TAT in flight is between 10° C and -40° C with visible moisture present.

66
Q

Engine (Induction) icing conditions exist when….

A

OAT on the ground and for takeoff, or TAT in flight is 10° C or below and visible moisture present

67
Q

Engine anti-ice must be ON during all ground and flight operations when icing conditions exist or are anticipated, except……..

A

during climb and cruise when temperature is below -40°C SAT.

68
Q

Engine anti-ice must be on prior to and during descent in icing conditions, including temperatures below……

A

-40°C SAT

69
Q

Icing Conditions -

NOTE: Do not rely on airframe visual cues to turn engine anti-ice on. Use the…….

A

temperature and visual moisture criteria specified in this section. Delaying the use of engine antiice until ice build-up is visible from the flight deck may result in severe engine damage and/or flameout.

70
Q

The flight crew should turn wing anti-ice ON whenever

A

there is an indication the airframe is accumulating ice. The indication may be observed on the visual ice
indicator between the windshields or on the wipers.

71
Q

CAUTION: Avoid extended flight in icing conditions with the slats extended.

A

TRUE

72
Q

If significant ice accumulates on non deiced structures, increase the VAPP by…….

A

5 knots and multiply the landing distance by 1.1.

73
Q

►►Do not extend the landing gear above…..

A

FL 250

74
Q

►►VLO(E): Landing gear extension…..

A

250 KTS

75
Q

►►VLO(R): Landing gear retraction…….

A

220 KTS

76
Q

►►VLE: Landing gear extended…….

A

280 KTS / M.67

77
Q

►►The landing gear tires are limited to a ground speed of…..

A

195 knots

78
Q

►►The maximum brake temperature for takeoff is…………….with the Brake Fans OFF.

A

300°C

79
Q

►►Do not apply thrust on both engines in excess of..

A

75% N1 with the parking brake on.

80
Q

Nosewheel steering angle,using the hand wheels is limited to

A

75 degrees.

81
Q

Towbarless towing and pushback, , but the nosewheel

steering angle must be limited to….

A

85 degrees.

82
Q

For towing and pushback, the nosewheel steering angle is limited to

A

95 degrees.

83
Q

The RNP accuracy with GPS PRIMARY has been demonstrated to be:

A

With AP ON in NAV - En Route 1nm / Terminal Area 0.5 nm / In Approach 0.3 nm

With AP OFF FD ON in NAV - En Route 1nm / Terminal Area 0.51 nm / Approach 0.3 nm

With AP & FD OFF - En Route 1.1nm / Terminal Area 0.51 nm / Approach Not Authorized

84
Q

“When both PFDs are lost, the ISIS bugs function must not be used.” (A319)

A

TRUE

85
Q

APU Start Limitations:

If the message __________ appears on the APU ECAM page, contact Maintenance Control before starting the APU.

A

LOW OIL LEVEL

86
Q

APU Start Limitations:

►►The APU starter motor duty cycle:

A

3 CONSECUTIVE START ATTEMPTS,
(1 MIN.COOLING IN BETWEEN ATTEMPTS)
AFTER 3RD ATTEMPT………60 MINUTES COOLING REQ.

87
Q

Maximum EGT for APU start:

below 35,000 ft…………

A

1,090 °C

88
Q

Maximum EGT for APU start:

at or above 35,000 ft…………

A

1,120 °C

89
Q

APU maximum operating EGT?

A

675°C.

90
Q

APU maximum N speed?

A

107%

91
Q

►►ENGINE Starter Limits?

A

maximum 4 consecutive cycles of the engine starter within 9 minute period.
Each cycle can last up to 2 minutes (maximum) then it must be followed by 20 second rest.
After the 4TH cycle, 15 minutes cooling required..

1st- 2 min on / 20 sec off
2nd- 2 min on / 20 sec off
3rd- 2 min on / 20 sec off
4th- 2 min on / 15 min off———( 4 attempts within 9 min.)

92
Q

►►The starter must not be allowed to engage when the engine N2 RPM is above

A

20%.

93
Q

MAX N1

A

102%

94
Q

MAX N2

A

105%

95
Q

MAX EGT ENGINE START

A

725°C

96
Q

Thrust Setting/Engine EGT Limits:

  1. ) Takeoff or Go-Around Normal
  2. )Takeoff or Go-Around Eng Out
A

950°C 5 minutes

950°C 10 minutes

97
Q

Thrust Setting/Engine EGT Limits:

Maximum Continuous (MCT)

A

915°C Unlimited

98
Q

NOTE: If the EGT spread between engines is greater than 70° at any point during the flight, notify
Maintenance Control so that appropriate troubleshooting can take place. (Allegiant

A

TRUE

99
Q

The maximum FLEX temperature must not exceed

A

(ISA+53°C -A320) / (ISA+60°C - A319)

or a reduction of more than 25% of full rated takeoff thrust.

100
Q

FLEX temperature must not

A

be less than the actual ambient temperature.

101
Q

FLEX T/O procedure is not allowed when any

A

unaccounted for factor that affects performance is present (e.g., MEL item, tailwind, etc)

102
Q

Engine Ignition

The engine ignition must be on while operating in:

A

• moderate (or greater) rain
• moderate (or greater) turbulence
• volcanic dust
• upon entering icing conditions
• when standing water or slush exists on the runway
NOTE: This requirement may be met by activation of the automatic ignition feature of the engine anti-ice system (A320)

103
Q

Engine Oil System

• ►►Minimum oil quantity (ECAM indication) before engine start

A

9.5 quarts
Est. Consumption ( .5 qt/hr )
NOTE: At idle, oil quantity indications can decrease as much as 6 quarts.

104
Q

Engine Oil System

• ►►Minimum starting temperature

A

– 40 degrees C

105
Q

Engine Oil System

• ►►Minimum takeoff temperature

A

– 10 degrees C

106
Q

Engine Oil System

Maximum oil temperature, continuous operation

A

140 degrees C

107
Q

Engine Oil System

Maximum transient oil temperature (15 minutes)

A

155 degrees C

108
Q

Reverse thrust is for ground operation only. Intentional selection of reverse thrust in flight is prohibited.

A

TRUE

109
Q

Under normal conditions, do not use maximum reverse thrust below

A

70 knots

110
Q

Backing the aircraft with reverse thrust is not permitted.

A

TRUE

111
Q

WHEN O2 BELOW 1339 PSI…..

A

NOTE O2 TABLE IN LIMITATAIONS.

On the ground, the AVERAGE of the OAT and Flight Deck Temperature should be used as the reference temperature.

In flight use the flight deck temperature minus 18°F.

112
Q

NOTE: The minimum oxygen pressure provides enough oxygen to supply the flight deck crew for at least

A

2 hours at 10,000 feet MSL

113
Q

• Passenger portable oxygen bottle pressure must indicate in the Full Range.

A

TRUE

• If a bottle is missing or the pressure is below the FULL Range, contact Dispatch for possible MEL relief.

114
Q

Maximum and minimum limits:

A

Red

115
Q

Cautionary limits:

A

Amber

116
Q

If ECAM markings show more conservative limits than those specified above, the limit markings shown on the ECAM must be observed.

A

TRUE

117
Q

The escape slides must be armed (verified on ECAM) before moving the aircraft away from the gate and must remain armed until the aircraft returns to the gate.

A

TRUE

118
Q

Flight above 73°N latitude or below 60°S latitude is

A

not permitted.

119
Q

The Managed NAV mode may be used for non-precision approaches (VOR, NDB, and LOC Backcourse) provided raw data from the required navaid is displayed and monitored during the approach.

A

TRUE

120
Q

Compliance with TCAS resolution advisories is required unless the pilot considers it unsafeto do so. Maneuvering in the direction away from the RA command is prohibited unless it is determined to be the only means of assuring safe separation

A

TRUE

121
Q

When a TCAS voice message “CLEAR OF CONFLICT” is announced, the pilot must…….

A

promptly return to the ATC clearance.

122
Q

EGPWS Limitations:

A
  • Aircraft navigation is not to be predicated upon the use of the terrain display.
  • The Terrain Display is intended to serve as a situation awareness tool only, and may notprovide the accuracy on which to solely base terrain avoidance maneuvering.

• The EGPWS data base, display, and alerting algorithms currently do not account for man
made obstructions.

• Pilots are authorized to deviate from their current air traffic control (ATC) clearance to the extent necessary to comply with an EGPWS warning.

• The Terrain Awareness Alerting and Display must be inhibited by selecting the TERR switch of the GPWS panel to OFF if within 15 NM of landing at an airport for which any of the following conditions apply:
– The airport has no approved instrument approach procedure
– The longest runway is less than 3,500 feet in length
– The airport has incomplete runway data
– The airport/approach has the potential to produce a false terrain alert even though the
FMS meets normal navigation accuracy requirements.

123
Q

Minimum Control Speed — Ground (VMCG)

A

VMCG SPEED TABLES FOR A320 AND A319 CAN BE FOUND IN THE LIMITATIONS CHAPTER.

Allegiant A320 limitations (2 decks)

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