Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

A320 > A320 General by Mehrdad TE > Flashcards

A320 General by Mehrdad TE Flashcards

0
Q

When you turn the mode selectors to NAV, what are you looking for on the panel?

A

Ensure that each ADIRU has the ability to revert to the batteries by observing the BAT light illuminating for several seconds.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

What emergency equipment items are located in the cockpit?

A 
4 Oxygen masks/smoke Goggles
4 Life Jackets
4 Fire fighting items
- crash ax
- halon
- PBE
- Gloves
2 escape ropes
2 flashlights
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What does the ON BAT light indicate?

A

It is illuminated amber if one or more IR(s) is supplied by aircraft battery. Also illuminates briefly during the beginning of a full alignment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How long will each ADRIU stay on battery power?

A

ADRIU 2 & 3 will remain on battery power for 5 minutes to hold alignment until a generator can be restored. ADRIU 1( ADRIU 3 if captain selected ATT HDG CAPT 3) will remain on battery power until generator power is restored or the batteries fail.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What info is provided by the “IR” units?

A

FAT HAAG

Flight path vector
Airplane position
Track

Heading
Attitude
Acceleration
Ground Speed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What information is provided by the “ADR” units (BOATS)?

A 
Barometric altitude 
Overspeed warnings 
AOA 
Temperatures 
Speed/mach
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What does a steady white ALIGN light indicate?

A

The respective IR is in the Align mode

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What does a flashing white align light mean?

A
  • No present position entered within 10 min of NAV selection (no position)
  • Difference of 1” Lat/Long between shutdown and entered position (wrong position)
  • IR alignment fault (aircraft moved)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What does it mean when the IR lights are extinguished?

A

Alignment has been completed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How do you fast align an IR?

A

Turn the IR mode selectors OFF momentarily (not more than 5 seconds) and then back on.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What does steady illumination of the amber IR FAULT light indicate?

A

A fault affects the respective IR.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What does flashing illumination of the amber IR FAULT light indicate?

A

Attitude and Heading may be recovered in ATT mode (you have lost the navigation portion).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What does the amber ADR FAULT light indicate?

A

A fault is detected in the Air Data Reference portion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Does turning the IR to OFF also turn off the ADR?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Can you turn the ADR OFF and still have the IR?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What would be missing on the on the Captain’s PFD if IR 1 failed or was turned OFF?

A

Attitude and navigation information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What action would recover the attitude and navigation information?

A

Selecting CAPT 3 on the EIS switching panel ATT/HDG selector

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Selecting CAPT 3 on the EIS switching panel ATT/HDG selector

A

Input Heading (ex. 180.0) on the IR panel every 10 minutes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

With the loss of ADR 1, what would be lost on the Captains PFD?

A

Airspeed and Altitude information.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What would restore the lost altitude and airspeed information?

A

Selecting CAPT 3 on the EIS Switching Panel AIR DATA Selector

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How do you normally enter Present Position into the IR?

A

 Insert the Lat/Long on the MCDU INIT page

 Then press Align IRS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Describe a post flight ADIRU accuracy check?

A

 Select Position Monitor Page. Verify position deviation is < 5 nm for each ADIRU.
 Verify residual ground speed on each ND (ATT HDG CAPT 3 for IR 3) is < 15 knots. (FCOM 3.03.25)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What does ELAC stand for?

A

Elevator Aileron Computer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How many ELACs are installed?

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the functions of the ELAC?

A 
 Normal elevator and stabilizer control 
 Normal aileron control 
 Normal pitch and roll 
 Alternate pitch 
 Direct pitch and roll 
 Abnormal attitude 
 Aileron droop 
 Acquisition of autopilot orders
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Under Normal Law, what does ELAC 1 control?

A

 Primary - Aileron control (roll)
 Standby - Elevator / Trimmable Horizontal Stabilizer control (backs up ELAC 2)
 Provides 5” aileron droop

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Under Normal Law, what does ELAC 2 control?

A

 Primary - Elevator / Stabilizer (pitch)

 Standby - Aileron control (backs up ELAC 1)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What backs up ELAC 2?

A

ELAC 1 -> SEC 2 -> SEC 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What does SEC stand for?

A

Spoiler Elevator Computer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How many SECs are installed?

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What functions are performed by the SECs?

A

 Normal roll (by controlling the spoilers)
 Speed brakes and ground spoilers (SEC 1 & 3 only)
 Alternate pitch (SEC 1 & 2 only)
 Direct pitch (SEC 1 & 2)
 Direct roll
 Abnormal attitude

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Under Normal Law, what do the 3 SECs control?

A

 Primary - Spoiler control (roll)

 Standby - Elevator / Stabilizer control (SEC 1 & 2 back up the ELACs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the sole purpose of SEC 3?

A

Spoiler Control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the definition of FAC?

A

Flight Augmentation Computer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

How many FACs are installed?

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are the functions of the FACs?

A

 Normal roll (turn coordination and yaw damping)
 Rudder trim
 Rudder travel limit
 Alternate yaw

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Under Normal Law, what do the FACs provide (YAWL)?

A

 Yaw Control - Damping and turn coordination, rudder limiter, rudder trim)
 Airspeed Protection Computation (Alpha Prot, high / low limits, maneuvering speed, PFD speed scale)
 Windshear protection
 Low Energy Warning Protection (“SPEED, SPEED, SPEED”)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Is full rudder deflection available during all flight regimes?

A

No. Rudder deflection is limited as a function of airspeed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the computer and priority for the Ailerons?

A

ELAC 1 -> ELAC 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the computer and priority for the Elevator and Trimmable Horizontal Stabilizer?

A

ELAC 2 -> ELAC 1 -> SEC 2 -> SEC 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

How are the flight control surfaces controlled and actuated?

A

All surfaces are controlled electrically and actuated hydraulically.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

When is automatic pitch trim available?

A

In flight under Normal law with bank angle less than 33” with or without autopilot engaged

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

If the active elevator actuator fails, what occurs?

A

Control is transferred the other actuator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

How is roll control normally achieved?

A

1 aileron and 4 spoilers on each wing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

If both FACs fail, is maximum rudder deflection available?

A

Yes, after slat extension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is checked on the EVAC panel during the COCKPIT PREPARATION check?

A

 CAPT & PURS switch in CAPT position

 COMMAND push button is guarded

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

How would the flight crew command an evacuation?

A

 Make a PA announcement: “EVACUATE, EVACUATE, EVACUATE”. (GOM 06.14.02.02)
 Press the EVAC COMMAND push button
 Silence the EVAC alarm on the flight deck by pushing the EVAC HORN SHUT OFF push button

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What would happen if the EVAC COMMAND push button is pressed a second time?

A

The evacuation alert is cancelled

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What buses are powered by the emergency generator?

A

 AC ESS and AC ESS SHED

 DC ESS and DC ESS SHED

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What does the RAT & EMER GEN red fault light indicate?

A

 Loss of AC GEN BUS 1 & 2,
 Airspeed above 100 knots and
 Emergency generator not supplying AC power

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the function of the RAT & EMER GEN push button?

A

 AUTO - RAT will automatically extend if AC BUS 1 & 2 are not powered and airspeed > 100 knots
 MAN - extend the RAT at any time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

How long does it take the RAT to extend and provide power?

A

8 seconds (3 seconds for RAT extension, 5 seconds to pressurize the Blue hydraulic system and power the EMER GEN)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What does the red FAULT light on the RAT & EMER GEN push button indicate?

A

Normal AC is lost and the emergency generator is not supplying power

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

When should the red FAULT light on the RAT & EMER GEN push button be expected?

A

During the 8 second RAT deployment and power up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What powers the emergency generator?e

A

Blue hydraulic power from the RAT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is the output of the Emergency Generator?

A

5 KVA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is the output of the Static Inverter?

A

1 KVA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Is there another way to deploy the RAT?

A

Yes, RAT MAN ON from the HYD panel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is different about this deployment?
(Is there another way to deploy the RAT?
Yes, RAT MAN ON from the HYD panel)

A

Blue HYD pressure only - No Emergency Generator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Do pilots ever use the EMER GEN TEST push button?

A

No - maintenance function only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What happens when you push the GEN 1 LINE push button?

A

 GEN 1 Line Contactor opens and the white OFF light illuminates
 AC BUS 1 is powered by GEN 2 through the BUS TIE CONTACTOR
 GEN 1 continues to powers 1 fuel pump in each wing tank

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

When is this procedure used?

What happens when you push the GEN 1 LINE push button?

A

Smoke procedures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What does the amber SMOKE light in the GEN 1 LINE push button indicate?

A

Smoke detected in the avionics ventilation ducting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Will there be any other indications?

A

ECAM warning and amber FAULT lights in the EXTRACT and BLOWER push buttons on the VENTILATION panel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Pressing the EGPWS SYS push button does what?

A

Inhibits all EGPWS warnings except TERR system.

65
Q

What does an amber FAULT light in the SYS push button indicate on the GPWS panel?

A

Any failure of GPWS mode 1 through 5:
 Mode 1 - Excessive descent rate “Sink Rate”
 Mode 2 - Excessive terrain closure “Terrain, Terrain”
 Mode 3 - Altitude loss after takeoff “Don’t Sink”
 Mode 4 - Unsafe terrain clearance “Too Low Flaps”, “Too Low Gear”
 Mode 5 - Excessive GS deviation “Glideslope”

66
Q

Does this affect the TERRAIN mode?

A

No

67
Q

What does LDG FLAP 3 ON light indicate (GPWS panel)?

A

Mode 4 “Too Low Flaps” inhibited for a Flap 3 landing

68
Q

When would you press the FLAP MODE push button on the GPWS panel?

A

To avoid nuisance warnings when landing with flaps less than 3

69
Q

What does FLAP MODE OFF light indicate?(GPWS panel)?

A

Mode 4 “Too Low Flaps” inhibited for a landing with LESS THAN Flap 3

70
Q

If the TERR mode failed does it affect the basic GPWS?

A

No

71
Q

When is the RCDR normally on in AUTO?

A

 On the ground, for 5 minutes after electrical power is supplied to the aircraft
 When at least 1 engine is operating
 Stops 5 minutes after the last engine is shut down

72
Q

What does the CVR record?

A

ACPs and cockpit area microphone

73
Q

How do you record the ITM’s PAs?

A

ACP 3 PA VOL knob out and in the 3 o’clock position

74
Q

How do you test the RCDR?

A

 RCDR ON
 Parking brake ON
 Press the CVR TEST push button (4 tones)

75
Q

How do you erase the RCDR tape?

A

 RCDR ON
 Aircraft on the ground
 Parking brake ON
 Press the CVR ERASE push button (2 seconds)

76
Q

When does the Digital Flight Data Recorder operate?

A

 On the ground, for 5 minutes after electrical power is supplied to the aircraft
 When at least 1 engine is operating
 Continuously in flight, whether or not the engines are operating
 Stops 5 minutes after the last engine is shut down

77
Q

What is the position of the RCDR push button during preflight?

A

On

78
Q

When will the RCDR ON light extinguish?

A

After the first engine is started.

79
Q

What does the PASSENGER SYS ON light mean?

A

The signal to release the oxygen mask doors has been sent

80
Q

Does PASSENGER SYS ON mean all the passenger oxygen masks have deployed?

A

No, the ITM’s may have to manually deploy some of the masks

81
Q

When do the masks automatically deploy?

A

When cabin altitude exceeds 14,000 feet

82
Q

What method is used to supply passenger cabin supplemental oxygen?

A

Chemical oxygen generators

83
Q

How do cabin occupants activate oxygen flow to their masks?

A

Pull the mask toward the seat

84
Q

How long does the PAX oxygen last?

A

Approximately 13 minutes

85
Q

Where is oxygen stored for the crew?

A

In a single high-pressure cylinder

86
Q

Above what altitude will the crew oxygen masks provide 100% oxygen regardless of the position of the Normal/100% selector?

A

35,000 feet

87
Q

What happens during the preflight when you push to extinguish the CREW SUPPLY OFF light?

A

It electrically opens a valve in the avionics bay to supply low-pressure crew oxygen

88
Q

What would you notice on the DOOR ECAM page?

A

The OXY would change from amber to green

89
Q

What indication would you have of a crew oxygen cylinder thermal discharge?

A

The green disk on the lower left side of the forward fuselage would be missing

90
Q

Will the crew oxygen mask microphone automatically be deactivated when the mask is stowed?

A

No, you must press the RESET slide switch

91
Q

How do you call a mechanic?

A

Momentarily depress the MECH push button. A blue light on the EXT PWR PANEL will illuminate and an external horn will sound.

92
Q

How do you call the forward ITM?

A

 Press the FWD button
 Pink light appears on the fwd area Call Panel
 CAPT CALL appears on the FWD ITM indication panel
 A green light illuminates
 A low level chime sounds through the fwd cabin loudspeaker

93
Q

What happens when you press the EMER push button?

A

 Pink light flashes at all area Call Panels
 EMERGENCY CALL appears on all ITM indication panels
 High-low chime (repeated 3 times) sounds throughout the cabin loudspeakers

94
Q

What happens when the ITM’s initiate an emergency call?

A

 The white EMER ON light and amber CALL lights flash
 The amber ATT lights flash on the ACPs
 3 long buzzers sound in the cockpit
 System resets when the attendant hangs up the relevant system

95
Q

What is the maximum windshield wiper operation speed?

A

230 kts

96
Q

What happens when the RAIN RPLNT push button is pressed?

A

Timer applies a measured quantity of rain repellent to the windshield

97
Q

When will the RAIN RPLNT push button not work?

A

On the ground with the engines stopped

98
Q

If RWY TURN OFF is selected to ON and the NOSE is selected to TAXI or T.O., which lights automatically extinguish after takeoff?

A

The NOSE and RWY TURN OFF lights extinguish when the landing gear is retracted

99
Q

Are the NAV 1 and 2 positions connected to a single bulb?

A

no they are separate bulbs

100
Q

What position should the STROBE switch be in during preflight?

A

AUTO

101
Q

When do the strobes flash in AUTO?

A

When the main landing gear strut is not compressed

102
Q

hat happens when the APU MASTER SW push button is selected ON?

A

 Electrically powers the APU system (Blue ON light in the push button)
 Electronic Control Box (ECB) performs a power up test
 APU ECAM page appears (if EXT or ENG GEN AC power is available)
 APU air intake flap opens
 APU fuel isolation valve opens
 APU fuel pump operates (if no tank pumps are on)

103
Q

What happens when you push the APU START push button?

A

 Blue ON light illuminates
 When APU air intake flap opens the starter is energized
 Ignition is turned ON 1.5 seconds after starter is energized
 Starter is de-energized and ignition turned OFF at 55% N
 Blue ON light in START push button extinguishes
 Green AVAIL light illuminates 2 seconds after 95% N or above 99.5% N
 APU page disappears from the ECAM 10 seconds later

104
Q

With the APU running and supplying bleed air, how do you shut it down?

A

 APU BLEED push button OFF
 APU MASTER SW OFF
 APU will cool down and then shut down

105
Q

What does the green AVAIL light on the APU START push button indicate?

A

The APU is available to provide electrical power and/or bleed air.

106
Q

With the APU green AVAIL light ON and the EXT PWR green AVAIL light on, which system is powering the aircraft?

A

The APU

107
Q

If the APU is running, is it necessary to manually select APU BLEED OFF prior to APU shutdown?

A

No. When the APU MASTER SW is selected OFF, the bleed air valve is closed and the APU is allowed to cool prior to shutdown.

108
Q

During the cool down cycle can you still use the APU?

A

Yes, press the APU MASTER SW push button.

109
Q

The APU generator can supply 100% electrical load to what altitude?

A

25,000 ft

110
Q

What is the highest altitude the APU can supply bleed air to one pack while providing electrical power?

A

22,500 ft

111
Q

What is the highest altitude the APU can supply bleed air to two packs while providing electrical power?

A

15,000 ft

112
Q

What is the highest altitude the APU can supply bleed air for engine start while providing electrical power?

A

20,000 ft

113
Q

What does an amber FAULT light in the APU MASTER SW push button indicate?

A

An ECB commanded auto shutdown of the APU has occurred.

114
Q

What does an amber FAULT light in the APU BLEED push button indicate?

A

An APU bleed leak

115
Q

Does APU air or electric have priority?

A

Electric

116
Q

What signs illuminate when you turn the NO PED switch to ON?

A

 NO Personal Electronic Device (PED)

 EXIT signs

117
Q

Do we use the SEAT BELT or NO PED switches in the AUTO position?

A

No

118
Q

What lights illuminate when the EMER EXIT LT switch is placed to ON?

A

 Proximity emergency escape path marking system
 Overhead emergency lights
 EXIT signs

119
Q

When will the proximity emergency escape path marking system automatically illuminate?

A

With the EMER EXIT LT switch in ARM and:
 Normal aircraft electrical power system fails or
 DC ESS SHED BUS fails

120
Q

When will the overhead emergency lights automatically illuminate?

A

With the EMER EXIT LT switch in ARM and:
 Normal aircraft electrical power system fails or
 DC ESS SHED BUS fails or
 AC BUS 1 fails (DC ESS SHED BUS powered)

121
Q

What does an amber FAULT light in the APU BLEED push button indicate?

A

An APU bleed leak

122
Q

What signs illuminate when you turn the NO PED switch to ON?

A

 NO Personal Electronic Device (PED)

 EXIT signs

123
Q

What lights illuminate when the EMER EXIT LT switch is placed to ON?

A

 Proximity emergency escape path marking system
 Overhead emergency lights
 EXIT signs

124
Q

When will the proximity emergency escape path marking system automatically illuminate?

A

With the EMER EXIT LT switch in ARM and:
 Normal aircraft electrical power system fails or
 DC ESS SHED BUS fails

125
Q

When will the overhead emergency lights automatically illuminate?

A

With the EMER EXIT LT switch in ARM and:
 Normal aircraft electrical power system fails or
 DC ESS SHED BUS fails or
 AC BUS 1 fails (DC ESS SHED BUS powered)

126
Q

When will the EXIT signs automatically illuminate?

A

With the EMER EXIT LT switch in ARM and:
 Normal aircraft electrical power system fails or
 DC ESS SHED BUS fails
 Excessive cabin altitude (above 11,300 feet).
 NO PED signs illuminated

127
Q

What lights illuminate when normal aircraft electrical power fails?

A

 Floor proximity emergency escape path marking system
 Overhead emergency lighting
 EXIT signs

128
Q

Does APU air or electric have priority?

A

Electric

129
Q

What lights illuminate when normal aircraft electrical power fails?

A

 Floor proximity emergency escape path marking system
 Overhead emergency lighting
 EXIT signs

130
Q

What lights illuminate when the DC ESS SHED BUS fails?

A

 Floor proximity emergency escape path marking system
 Overhead emergency lighting
 EXIT signs

131
Q

What lights illuminate when AC BUS 1 fails if the DC ESS SHED BUS is powered?

A

Overhead emergency lighting

132
Q

What occurs when the EMER EXIT LT switch is placed to OFF?

A

 All lights OFF

 Amber EMER EXIT LT OFF light illuminates

133
Q

What flight deck lighting is available if normal electrical power is lost?

A

 Captain’s Instrument Panel (2 places)
 Right Dome Light (provided DOME switch set in DIM or BRT)
 Standby Compass

134
Q

Is the engine anti-ice part of the normal pneumatic system?

A

No. It is a separate system independent of the pneumatic ducting.

135
Q

When do you use engine anti-ice?

A

 When OAT (Ground) / TAT (Flight) 10C or below with visible moisture present
 Prior to and during descent in icing conditions (including temperatures below -40 C SAT)g

136
Q

What is the exception to the following rule?
Use Eng anti ice:
 When OAT (Ground) / TAT (Flight) 10C or below with visible moisture present
 Prior to and during descent in icing conditions (including temperatures below -40 C SAT)

A

During climb and cruise when the temperature is below -40 C SAT (regardless of vis moisture)

137
Q

What does a FAULT light in the ENG ANTI ICE push button indicate?

A

Switch/anti-ice valve disagreement

138
Q

With ENG ANTI ICE ON what indications will you see?

A 
 Blue ENG ANTI ICE light ON 
 ECAM: ENG ANTI ICE 
 ECAM: IGNITION 
 N1 limit is reduced (amber tick on N1 indicator) 
 N1 idle is increased
139
Q

What should you do if there is significant engine vibration due to ice?

A

Increase N1 to 70% for a minimum of 15 seconds prior to selecting a higher thrusts

140
Q

With engine anti-ice ON, is your descent affected?

A

Yes, because idle thrust is increasedt

141
Q

Should you use the wing anti-ice on the ground?

A

No

142
Q

What happens if you turn the wing anti-ice switch on with the aircraft on the ground?

A

The wing anti-icing valves will open for a 30 second test.

143
Q

What part of the wing is heated?

A

Outboard 3 slats

144
Q

When do the wing anti-ice valves automatically close?

A

 On landing
 Bleed leak detected
 Loss of electrical power

145
Q

Can you use the APU bleed for wing anti-ice?

A

No

146
Q

What does the amber FAULT light in the WING ANTI ICE push button indicate?

A

 Switch/anti-ice valve disagreement

 Low pressure is detected

147
Q

In what position do the Wing and Engine Anti-Ice valves fail if electrical power is lost?

A

 Wing - valves CLOSE

 Engine - valves OPEN

148
Q

Which exterior aircraft components utilize electrical heating?

A

 Cockpit windshields (2ea) - heated. Sliding and side windows (4ea) - demisted
 AOA, TAT, pitot probes, and static ports
 Waste water drain masts

149
Q

On the ground, with the PROBE/WINDOW HEAT push button in AUTO, when are the probe and mast heaters activated?

A

 LOW with at least one engine running (except the TAT probe - not heated on ground)
 NORMAL is automatically selected after takeoff

150
Q

What lights illuminate when AC BUS 1 fails if the DC ESS SHED BUS is powered?

A

 Overhead emergency lighting

151
Q

What occurs when the EMER EXIT LT switch is placed to OFF?

A

 All lights OFF

 Amber EMER EXIT LT OFF light illuminates

152
Q

What flight deck lighting is available if normal electrical power is lost?

A

 Captain’s Instrument Panel (2 places)
 Right Dome Light (provided DOME switch set in DIM or BRT)
 Standby Compass

153
Q

Is the engine anti-ice part of the normal pneumatic system?

A

No. It is a separate system independent of the pneumatic ducting.

154
Q

When do you use engine anti-ice?

A

 When OAT (Ground) / TAT (Flight) 10C or below with visible moisture present
 Prior to and during descent in icing conditions (including temperatures below -40 C SAT)

155
Q

What is the exception to the following rule?
Use Eng anti ice:
 When OAT (Ground) / TAT (Flight) 10C or below with visible moisture present
 Prior to and during descent in icing conditions (including temperatures below -40 C SAT)

A

During climb and cruise when the temperature is below -40 C SAT (regardless of vis moisture)

156
Q

What does a FAULT light in the ENG ANTI ICE push button indicate?

A

Switch/anti-ice valve disagreement

157
Q

With ENG ANTI ICE ON what indications will you see?

A 
 Blue ENG ANTI ICE light ON 
 ECAM: ENG ANTI ICE 
 ECAM: IGNITION 
 N1 limit is reduced (amber tick on N1 indicator) 
 N1 idle is increased
158
Q

What should you do if there is significant engine vibration due to ice?

A

Increase N1 to 70% for a minimum of 15 seconds prior to selecting a higher thrust

159
Q

With engine anti-ice ON, is your descent affected?

A

Yes, because idle thrust is increased

160
Q

Should you use the wing anti-ice on the ground?

A

No

161
Q

What happens if you turn the wing anti-ice switch on with the aircraft on the ground?

A

The wing anti-icing valves will open for a 30 second test.

A320 (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions