A320 Flash Cards

1
Q

Green hydraulic system normally pressurized by?

A

Number 1 engine-driven hydraulic pump

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2
Q

Green hydraulic system backup pressurization provided by?

A

PTU

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3
Q

Yellow hydraulic system normally pressurized by?

A

Number 2 engine-driven hydraulic pump

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4
Q

Blue hydraulic system normally pressurized by?

A

Electric motor-driven hydraulic pump

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5
Q

Blue hydraulic system backup pressurization provided by?

A

RAT

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6
Q

Yellow hydraulic system backup pressurization provided by?

A

PTU

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7
Q

RAT pressurized blue hydraulic system to __________ PSI?

A

2500 PSI

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8
Q

When electrical power is unavailable, yellow hydraulic system has a hand pump to operate _____________?

A

Cargo doors

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9
Q

PTU is automatically activated when the differential pressure between the green and yellow systems is greater than ________ (except when inhibited)?

A

500 PSI

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10
Q

Normal Hydraulic System Pressure

A

3000 PSI

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11
Q

Hydraulic system pressure turns amber when pressure drops below _______?

A

1450 PSI

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12
Q

Max landing gear retraction speed?

A

220 KIAS

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13
Q

Max landing gear extension speed?

A

240 KIAS

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14
Q

FASTEN SEAT BELT and RETURN TO YOUR SEAT signs illuminate when cabin altitude exceeds _________, regardless of switch position?

A

11,300’

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15
Q

Blue colored text on the ECAM memo section signifies?

A

Actions to be carried out

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16
Q

Red colored text on the ECAM memo section signifies?

A

Immediate action required

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17
Q

A triple click aural sound indicates?

A

Landing capability change

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18
Q

The NW STRG DISC memo changes from green to amber after?

A

First engine start

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19
Q

T.O. INHIBIT is active?

A

From takeoff power application to 1,500’ AGL, or 2 minutes after takeoff

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20
Q

LDG INHIBIT is active?

A

From 800’ AGL to 80 KIAS

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21
Q

What does pushing the T.O. CONFIG button do?

A

Simulates takeoff power application

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22
Q

What does the amber “=” indicate on the airspeed tape?

A

Next flap extended speed (Vfe next)

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23
Q

An amber “=” (Vfe next) appears only below ________?

A

15,000’ or 20,000’ MSL

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24
Q

Lowest selectable speed (Vls) is indicated by?

A

Top of the amber strip

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25
Q

Alpha protection speed is indicated by?

A

Top of the black and amber strip

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26
Q

Alpha max speed is indicated by?

A

Top of the solid red strip

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27
Q

The digital vertical speed indication turns from green to _______ when vertical speed exceeds _______ FPM BELOW ________ altitude.

A

Amber, 1,200, 1,000

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28
Q

When is the beta target displayed?

A

Configuration 1, 2, or 3 and either engine EPR exceeds 1.25 and the difference between EPRs exceeds 0.25

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29
Q

The flight director bars will bias out of view anytime the bank angle exceeds ______ degrees.

A

45

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30
Q

The wind arrow on the ND shows winds as true or magnetic?

A

Magnetic

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31
Q

Normal hydraulic system pressure

A

3000 PSI

32
Q

Max airspeed

VMO/MMO

A

350 KIAS / 0.82 M

33
Q

Max operating altitude

A

39,100’ MSL

34
Q

Max PA for takeoff or landing

A

9,200’ MSL

35
Q

Max runway slope

A

+/- 2%

36
Q

Min runway width (normal runways)

A

148’

37
Q

Min runway width (narrow runways)

A

100’

38
Q

Max landing weight

A

137.7 (319)
142.2 (320)
174.6 (NEO)

39
Q

Max tailwind for takeoff / landing

A

10 KTS / 10 KTS (319)
15 KTS / 10 KTS (320)
15 KTS / 15 KTS (NEO)

40
Q

Max crosswind component dry runway takeoff/landing

A

38 KTS

41
Q

Severe turbulence air penetration speed above 29,000’ MSL

A

0.76 M

42
Q

Severe turbulence air penetration speed below 20,000’ MSL

A

255 KIAS (319)
250 KIAS (320)
275 KIAS (NEO)

43
Q

Best climb rate

A

280 KIAS

44
Q

Best climb angle

A

Green dot

45
Q

Max wind for passenger door operation

A

65 KTS

46
Q

Max speed flight deck window

A

200 KIAS

47
Q

Max windshield wiper operation

A

230 KIAS

48
Q

Max cabin pressure differential

A

-1.0 to 8.6 PSI

49
Q

Icing conditions exist on the ground and for takeoff when OAT is _____ and visible moisture in any form is present

A

10 degrees C or below

50
Q

Icing conditions exist in flight when TAT is _____ and visible moisture in any form is present

A

10 degrees C or below

51
Q

Max headwind for autoland

A

20 KIAS (319)
30 KIAS (320)
15 KIAS (NEO)

52
Q

Max tailwind for autoland

A

10 KIAS (ALL)

53
Q

Max crosswind for autoland

A

15 KIAS
10 KIAS (NEO)

54
Q

Autopilot min engagement altitude after takeoff

A

100’ AGL (at least 5 sec after liftoff)

55
Q

Min autopilot use on non-precision approach

A

DDA

56
Q

Min autopilot use for nonautoland ILS with CAT 1 FMA

A

160’ AGL

57
Q

Min autopilot use for nonautoland ILS with CAT 2 or 3 FMA

A

80’ AGL

58
Q

Min autopilot engagement on go-around?

A

100’ AGL

59
Q

When must autopilot be disengaged on an autoland?

A

Rollout

60
Q

Max EGT on eng start?

A

635 deg C

61
Q

Eng starter consecutive start attempts (auto or manual)

A

First, 15 sec off
Second, 15 sec off
Third, 30 min off

62
Q

For manual eng start, observe a __________________ start attempt.

A

2-minute max

63
Q

Eng starter continuous engagement (cranking)

A

Max crank time 5 min, 30 min off

64
Q

Min eng oil quantity prior to start?

A

14 qts

65
Q

Max altitude for flaps/slats extended

A

20,000’ MSL

66
Q

Max landing gear extension altitude

A

None

67
Q

Autopilot min engagement height non-ILS approaches

A

250’ AGL or MAP (whichever occurs earlier)

68
Q

Max time limit for engine in TOGA thrust

A
5 minutes
10 minutes (engine out)
69
Q

Min oil temp for engine start

A

-40 degrees C

70
Q

Max brake temp for takeoff

A

300 degrees C

71
Q

320 forward CG correction

A

When CG < 25.0:

  • add 4,000 pounds to actual aircraft weight
  • run new performance
  • use new flap setting, flex temp, and V-speeds
72
Q

If oxygen pressure is below ________, reference the aircraft-specific table

A

1250 PSI

73
Q

Autopilot min engagement altitude NEO approach with F-G/S mode

A

200’ AGL

74
Q

Autopilot min engagement altitude approach with FINAL APP or FPA

A

250’ AGL

75
Q

Autopilot min engagement altitude AP or FD in OPEN DES or DES

A

Higher of 1000’ AGL or MDA/MDH