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drone > A2 CofC > Flashcards

A2 CofC Flashcards

1
Q

When RTH is initiated, what height will the UA climb to if currently flying at 10m?

A

20m.

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2
Q

If I’m flying at 50m from the ground what height will the drone climb to if RTH is initiated?

A

It will stay at the same height if its above 20m.

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3
Q

What is DMARES an abbreviation of?

A

Drone and Model Aircraft Registration and Education Service.

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4
Q

What is RTH an abbreviation of?

A

Return To Home.

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5
Q

If Loss of Control Data Link occurs, what will the UA show?

A

It will show fast flashing amber lights.

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6
Q

If Loss of Control Data Link occurs, what action should the pilot take?

A

Get closer if possible or change the flight mode from its current mode and back.

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7
Q

What should the pilot do after a Loss of Control Data Link occurs and has successfully landed the drone safely?

A

Complete occurrence report in line with OPEN/SPECIFIC Category.

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8
Q

What does ATTI stand for and do?

A

Attitude mode, instead of maintaining a fixed GPS/vision position when hovering, the drone will stay level at the same altitude but move in the wind.

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9
Q

What is OPTI mode?

A

OPTI, the UA uses its optical sensors for stabilization.

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10
Q

If an accident/incident occurs within an Open/Specific Category, what bodies must it be reported to?

A

The AAIB and CAA.

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11
Q

What is UAS an abbreviation of?

A

Unmanned Aircraft Systems.

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12
Q

What is FRZ an abbreviation of?

A

Flight Restriction Zone.

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13
Q

What is the Open Category?

A

Operations that present low or no risk to third parties. no further authorisation from the CAA is needed.

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14
Q

What is the CAA an abbreviation of?

A

Civil Aviation Authority.

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15
Q

What is the Specific Category?

A

Operations that present greater risk than open category (Medium Risk). Specific category operations require Operational Authorisation from CAA.

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16
Q

What is the Certified Category?

A

Operations that present risks similar to those in manned aviation and will be subject to same regime.

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17
Q

What qualifications do you need in an Open Category area?

A

None / A2 CofC

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18
Q

What qualifications do you need in a Specific Category area?

A

GVC

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19
Q

What is a GVC?

A

General Visual line of site Certificate.

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20
Q

What application process would I need to operate in a Specific Category area?

A

It will Require CAA application

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21
Q

Define the A1 Subcategory.

A

Close to people, and potential overflight. (High Risk)

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22
Q

Define the A2 Subcategory.

A

Close to people, no overflight. (Medium Risk)

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23
Q

Define the A3 Subcategory.

A

Far from people, no overflight. (Low Risk)

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24
Q

What is the 1:1 Rule?

A

If flying at 50m high you should keep a 50m horizontal distance. 80m high 80m horizontal etc.

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25
Q

Which category should we observe the 1:1 rule?

A

A1 Subcategory.

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26
Q

Which Subcategories can Class 0 - 1 be flown in?

A

All subcategories. A1 A2 A3.

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27
Q

Which Subcategories can Class 2 be flown in?

A

A2 Close to People or A3 Far from people.

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28
Q

Which Subcategories can Class 3 - 4 be flown in?

A

A3 Far from people only.

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29
Q

Define Class 0 Aircraft.

A

Less that 250g take off mass.

Max speed of 19m/s (42.5 mph).

Max flight distance of 120m (400ft).

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30
Q

Define Class 1 Aircraft.

A

Less that 900g take off mass or anti collide.

Max speed of 19m/s (42.5 mph).

Made to minimise injury.

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31
Q

Define Class 2 Aircraft.

A

Less that 4kg take off mass.

Low speed mode 3/ms (approx 6.7 mph).

Made to minimise injury

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32
Q

Define Class 3 Aircraft.

A

Automatic control modes.

Less than 25kg take off mass.

geo awareness systems.

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33
Q

Define Class 4 Aircraft.

A

No automation, only stabilisation.

Traditional model aircraft.

Less than 25kg take off mass.

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34
Q

What is MTOM?

A

Maximum Take Off Mass.

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35
Q

What is the CAP722 document?

A

Unmanned Aircraft System Operations in UK Airspace - Guidance and Policy.

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36
Q

What is MOR?

A

Mandatory Occurrence Reporting.

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37
Q

“See and Avoid” principle in manned aircraft is referred to as ________.

A

“Detect and Avoid”.

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38
Q

What is CAP382?

A

Mandatory Occurrence Reporting (MOR).

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39
Q

Operators report all incidents/accidents on _______?

A

ECCAIRS - European Co-ordination Centre for Accident and Incident Reporting Systems.

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40
Q

What is ECCAIRS an abbreviation of?

A

European Co-ordination Centre for Accident and Incident Reporting Systems.

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41
Q

What are examples of UA/UAS Reportable occurrences? (incidents have to occur in flight)

A

Loss of Control/datalink with potential to harm.

Navigation Failures.

Pilot station configuration changes/errors.

Display Failures.

Transfer to different control stations.

Crew Resource Management (CRM) failures.

Damage

Programming errors

Any incident injuring third parties.

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42
Q

Accidents involving people must be reported to the _____?

A

AAIB

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43
Q

What is the AAIB an abbreviation of?

A

Air Accident Investigation Branch.

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44
Q

What is a SUA Operator?

A

Small Unmanned Aircraft - Operator.

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45
Q

Define Just Culture.

A

Frontline operators are not punished for actions that correspond with their experience and training.

Gross negligence, wilful violations and destructive acts are not tolerated.

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46
Q

You had a serious incident that involved a manned aircraft. Who must you report it to?

A

The AAIB, CAA and AirProx

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47
Q

An accident occurred on site with your UA that didn’t result in a serious incident, who must you report it to?

A

The AAIB, May report to CAA (May report because there wasn’t a serious incident)

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48
Q

What is an ATC?

A

Air Traffic Controller

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49
Q

What is an AirProx situation?

A

The distance between aircraft and their positions/speed have compromised safety. (Think Air Proximity)

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50
Q

Who can report an AirProx Incident?

A

The Pilot involved or an ATC.

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51
Q

What is IFR?

A

Instrument Flight Rules.

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52
Q

What is VFR?

A

Visual Flight Rules.

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53
Q

Define Class A Airspace.

A

IFR (Instrument Flight Rules)

Airways up to 19,500 ft

Does not extend to the ground. (above head)

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54
Q

Define Class C Airspace.

A

IFR (instrument Flight Rules)

Upper Airspace above 19,500ft

Does not extend to the ground. (above head)

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55
Q

Define Class D Airspace.

A

IFR/VFR (Instrument/Visual Flight Rules)

Lower levels around airports.

Very controlled, extends to ground.

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56
Q

Define Class E Airspace.

A

IFR/VFR (Instrument/Visual Flight Rules)

Local Terminal Manoeuvring areas.

Does not extend to the ground. (above head)

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57
Q

Define Class G Airspace.

A

Uncontrolled except around airports/aerodromes.

Control comes down to ground level.

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58
Q

Which airspace classes occur at ground level?

A

D and G.

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59
Q

Which airspace classes do not extend to the ground?

A

A, C and E.

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60
Q

What are the Classes of Airspace? In order

A

A, C, D, E and G (G last/bottom for Ground)

61
Q

What Airspace to UAS normally take place in?

A

D and G.

62
Q

What is the area called in which aircraft are landing?

A

The approach path.

63
Q

Any aircraft in the approach path has _______ ?

A

Priority over any other air user.

64
Q

Aircraft approaching a runway come in on a Glideslope usually at what % or ° ?

A

5% or 3°.

65
Q

What is an ATZ?

A

Aerodrome Traffic Zone.

Circular boundary from centre of largest runway.

Radius of 2 to 2 and a half nautical miles. 2.5NM.

Extends from up to 2000ft .

66
Q

What is a RPZ?

A

Runway Protection Zone.

Starts at the end and start of each runway.

5km long 1km wide.

67
Q

If you are on site and see another UAS what should you do?

A

Contact site, ask what time is best to fly or if its safe to fly at all.

68
Q

What are the three main reserved airspace categories?

A

Danger areas where military operate. (D for Danger)

Prohibited areas where no one can fly. (P for Prohibited)

Restricted areas for particular reasons. (R for Restricted)

69
Q

You see an outlined area in which you need to operate your UA. It has an area code in the centre reading D207/23.0, what does this mean?

A

Danger area with an upper limit of 23,000ft

D for danger - 207 area number - /23.0 upper limit 23,000ft

70
Q

What is NOTAM?

A

Notice To Airmen.

Advise about temporary changes to airspace.

71
Q

What service MUST you check before every flight?

A

NOTAMS (Notice To Airmen) or Drone Safety Map.

72
Q

When might a UAS flight require a NOTAM to be issued?

A

In a busy airspace.

Operating more than 400ft.

73
Q

Who do you contact when operating in an ATZ or FRZ?

A

The ATC or Airport Operator

74
Q

How do you contact an ATC or Airport Operator?

A

NATS AIP or Drone Safety Map

75
Q

What does NSF and ENSF stand for?

A

Non Standard Flight

Enhanced Non Standard Flight

76
Q

When must you apply for an NSF or ENSF?

A

Planned operations in restricted areas 157-159 London

Certain controlled airs space.

77
Q

How long can applications in a FRZ take?

A

Up to 21 days.

Restricted areas in London may take longer.

78
Q

Who issues the A2CofC certificate after completion?

A

The RAE (Royal Aircraft Establishment)

79
Q

What wind speed do we need to be most wary of?

A

Gusts.

80
Q

What weather meteorology information do airfields provide?

A

TAFs (Terminal Aerodrome Forecast

METARs (Meteorological Aerodrome Report)

81
Q

What’s the first stage of performing a weather assessment?

A

A visual and physical check onsite.

82
Q

What hand held instrument measures windspeed?

A

Anemometer.

83
Q

What would cause localised variants of windspeeds?

A

Terrain and elevation.

84
Q

Where would you use an anemometer?

A

Planned take-off location.

85
Q

How is wind direction expressed?

A

In terms of the direction it originates.

86
Q

If the UA is traveling at 10/ms with a 10m/s tail wind, how long would it take to travel 500m?

A

25 seconds.

AIRSPEED + WINDSPEED (TAIL WIND) = GROUND SP
AIRSPEED - WINDSPEED (HEAD WIND) = GROUND SP

87
Q

What are the 3 main turbulences for UA operators should know about.

A

Mechanical

Thermal

Shear

88
Q

What is mechanical turbulence caused by?

A

Air moving over irregular shaped surfaces. Buildings or Hills.

89
Q

What is Thermal turbulence caused by?

A

Air at surface is heated to higher temperature than surrounding air and ascends as thermals.

90
Q

What is Shear turbulence caused by?

A

Air moving in different directions/speeds on different levels.

Caused by frontal surface, thunderstorms or local terrain.

91
Q

Where is wind more likely to be at higher speeds?

A

Further up from the ground.

92
Q

What are the main points of masking?

A

Obstructions blocking wind in urban flight.

Be weary of launch near buildings.

Wind speeds change on the above/side of buildings.

93
Q

What causes wind speeds to be slower on the ground?

A

Friction

94
Q

What is a gradient in terms of meteorology?

A

Wind increases with height above the ground.

95
Q

What is an Eddy - wind?

A

Two currents of air from opposite directions form an eddy or whirlwind.

96
Q

What kind of weather will affect your batteries and cause flight time loss?

A

Cold weather.

97
Q

When would fog be classed as a visual obstruction?

A

If you cant see further than 1km.

98
Q

What are Stratocumulus clouds?

A 
Stratus = Flattened.
Cumulus = Heap.

Precipitation - Light.

A Flattened Heap of clouds…

99
Q

What is a Stratus cloud?

A

Stratus = Flattened.

Precipitation - Light.

100
Q

What are Cumulus clouds?

A

Cumulus = Heap.

Precepitation - Occasional rain or snow showers.

101
Q

What is a Cumulonimbus cloud?

A

Dark grey heavy sky.

Strong up and down airflows.

Heavy rain/hailstones.

Strong gusts

Change of wind direction.

102
Q

What risks do cumulonimbus clouds bring?

A

Electrical discharges.

Interference.

Danger of strike.

103
Q

Breakdown the term Cumulonimbus (CB) cloud.

A

Cumulo = Heaps

Nimbus = Rain bearing.

104
Q

Where would Stratus clouds start to form?

A

Up to 6000ft

105
Q

Where would Alto Clouds form?

A

6000ft to 20,000ft

106
Q

Where would Cirrus clouds form?

A

Over 20,000ft.

107
Q

Define the Cirrus cloud type.

A

Fibrous or hair-like.

108
Q

Define the Cumulus cloud type.

A

Heap or pile.

109
Q

Define the Stratus cloud type.

A

Horizontal sheet or layer.

110
Q

Define the Nimbus cloud type.

A

Rain bearing.

111
Q

What cloud type should UA operators be most weary of?

A

Cumulonimbus (CB).

112
Q

What do the CAA define an aircraft as?

A

A machine that can derive support in the atmosphere from the reactions of the air, other than the reactions of the air against the earths surface”

[SIMPLIFIED] Pushing air against air instead of pushing air against the ground for lift.

113
Q

What are the four key forces working on an aircraft?

A

Lift.

Drag.

Weight.

Thrust.

114
Q

For an aircraft to remain balanced in flight what forces must be balanced?

A

Lift.

Drag.

Weight.

Thrust.

115
Q

Define Laminar flow

A

No turbulence, smooth.

116
Q

What can affect lift of a propeller?

A

RPM (Rotations Per Minute)

Size and profile (Affect pressure difference)

Air density (Temp, Altitude (pressure), humidity)

117
Q

How is lift generated?

A

Faster moving air over top of propeller (low pressure)

Slow moving air pass over bottom of propeller (high pressure)

Both are Laminar Flow (no turbulence)

118
Q

What is Thrust?

A

Propels a craft in the direction of motion. forward back etc.

119
Q

What is Drag caused by?

A

Friction against the air.

Air pressure.

120
Q

What aircraft does Drag mostly affect?

A

Fixed wing.

121
Q

What is the max weight of a UA in the Open Category?

A

25kg.

122
Q

What is the standard measure of mass for aviation in most country’s?

A

Kilograms (kg).

123
Q

Who is responsible for making sure everything is attached to the drone correctly/safely?

A

RP (remote pilot).

124
Q

What does mAh mean?

A

milliAmps per hour.

125
Q

What is charging or discharging a battery for 1 hour referred to as?

A

1 Coulomb.

126
Q

What is Yaw?

A

When a drone rotates on the spot.

127
Q

What is Pitch/Roll?

A

The drone will tilt forwards, backwards etc.

128
Q

What is throttle for drones?

A

Go up.

129
Q

What is ground effect caused by?

A

Reduction in drag as you come towards surface.

Most manufacturers limit descent speed.

130
Q

What is vortex ring state caused by?

A

Decent into “dirty air”.

Bringing drone down too quick into its own air.

131
Q

What sensors feed the FC (Flight Controller)?

A

Gyros.

GPS.

Accelerometer.

Barometric Pressure.

Compass.

Optical Flow and Sonar.

132
Q

What does GNSS stand for?

A

Global Navigation Satellite System.

133
Q

Which of these Satellites belongs to which country: -

NAVSTAR or GPS

GLONASS

Galileo

BeiDou

A

NAVSTAR or GPS = USA

GLONASS = RUSSIA

Galileo = Europe

BeiDou = China

134
Q

How many satellites do you need for a 3D fixed position?

A

4 the more the better.

135
Q

How many satellites will give you a lateral fix?

A

Minimum 3.

136
Q

What information does the satellite send to the drone?

A

Time calculation.

137
Q

What can distort the signal to a satellite?

A

Deliberately .

Ionosphere.

Terrain or structures.

Solar activity (KP index, anything above 4 can cause issues).

138
Q

A 25C, 5000mAh batter will output ____ ?

A

125A .

(2.5 x 50).

Calculate the amps by the C-Rating to get the total output current.

139
Q

Why are LiPo batteries a fire hazard?

A

Lithium burns on contact with air.

Creates fierce chemical fire.

Difficult to put out.

140
Q

When charging a LiPo battery, what should you do?

A

Use a “Safe Bag” or fireproof box.

Don’t charge when hot.

Don’t charge over 90% when cold.

141
Q

Which batteries can be taken on as carry luggage?

A

<100Wh No limited amount.

100Wh - 160Wh Max 2.

> 160Wh Prohibited.

142
Q

What is the MSDS and for?

A

Material Safety Data Sheet

Transportation of batteries.

143
Q

What is ALARP an abbreviation of?

A

As Low As Reasonably Practical.

144
Q

What will most likely be your number one cause of stress on site?

A

The client

145
Q

If you deem the flight unsafe what must you do?

A

Be willing to No Go the flight.

Put corrective measures in place.

146
Q

Define an occurrence report.

A

an event which endangers or if not corrected or addressed that can cause damage to aircraft, persons or property.

147
Q

What is the AAIB?

A

Air Accidents Investigation Branch

148
Q

What is the IMSAFE code?

A 
I = Illness
M = Medication
S = Stress
A = Alcohol
F = Fatigue
E = Eating
149
Q

What is CAP 393?

A

Air Navigation Order

drone (4 decks)

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