A2 CofC Flashcards

1
Q

When RTH is initiated, what height will the UA climb to if currently flying at 10m?

A

20m.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

If I’m flying at 50m from the ground what height will the drone climb to if RTH is initiated?

A

It will stay at the same height if its above 20m.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is DMARES an abbreviation of?

A

Drone and Model Aircraft Registration and Education Service.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is RTH an abbreviation of?

A

Return To Home.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

If Loss of Control Data Link occurs, what will the UA show?

A

It will show fast flashing amber lights.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

If Loss of Control Data Link occurs, what action should the pilot take?

A

Get closer if possible or change the flight mode from its current mode and back.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What should the pilot do after a Loss of Control Data Link occurs and has successfully landed the drone safely?

A

Complete occurrence report in line with OPEN/SPECIFIC Category.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What does ATTI stand for and do?

A

Attitude mode, instead of maintaining a fixed GPS/vision position when hovering, the drone will stay level at the same altitude but move in the wind.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is OPTI mode?

A

OPTI, the UA uses its optical sensors for stabilization.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

If an accident/incident occurs within an Open/Specific Category, what bodies must it be reported to?

A

The AAIB and CAA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is UAS an abbreviation of?

A

Unmanned Aircraft Systems.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is FRZ an abbreviation of?

A

Flight Restriction Zone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the Open Category?

A

Operations that present low or no risk to third parties. no further authorisation from the CAA is needed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the CAA an abbreviation of?

A

Civil Aviation Authority.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the Specific Category?

A

Operations that present greater risk than open category (Medium Risk). Specific category operations require Operational Authorisation from CAA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the Certified Category?

A

Operations that present risks similar to those in manned aviation and will be subject to same regime.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What qualifications do you need in an Open Category area?

A

None / A2 CofC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What qualifications do you need in a Specific Category area?

A

GVC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is a GVC?

A

General Visual line of site Certificate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What application process would I need to operate in a Specific Category area?

A

It will Require CAA application

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Define the A1 Subcategory.

A

Close to people, and potential overflight. (High Risk)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Define the A2 Subcategory.

A

Close to people, no overflight. (Medium Risk)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Define the A3 Subcategory.

A

Far from people, no overflight. (Low Risk)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the 1:1 Rule?

A

If flying at 50m high you should keep a 50m horizontal distance. 80m high 80m horizontal etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Which category should we observe the 1:1 rule?
A1 Subcategory.
26
Which Subcategories can Class 0 - 1 be flown in?
All subcategories. A1 A2 A3.
27
Which Subcategories can Class 2 be flown in?
A2 Close to People or A3 Far from people.
28
Which Subcategories can Class 3 - 4 be flown in?
A3 Far from people only.
29
Define Class 0 Aircraft.
Less that 250g take off mass. Max speed of 19m/s (42.5 mph). Max flight distance of 120m (400ft).
30
Define Class 1 Aircraft.
Less that 900g take off mass or anti collide. Max speed of 19m/s (42.5 mph). Made to minimise injury.
31
Define Class 2 Aircraft.
Less that 4kg take off mass. Low speed mode 3/ms (approx 6.7 mph). Made to minimise injury
32
Define Class 3 Aircraft.
Automatic control modes. Less than 25kg take off mass. geo awareness systems.
33
Define Class 4 Aircraft.
No automation, only stabilisation. Traditional model aircraft. Less than 25kg take off mass.
34
What is MTOM?
Maximum Take Off Mass.
35
What is the CAP722 document?
Unmanned Aircraft System Operations in UK Airspace - Guidance and Policy.
36
What is MOR?
Mandatory Occurrence Reporting.
37
"See and Avoid" principle in manned aircraft is referred to as ________.
"Detect and Avoid".
38
What is CAP382?
Mandatory Occurrence Reporting (MOR).
39
Operators report all incidents/accidents on _______?
ECCAIRS - European Co-ordination Centre for Accident and Incident Reporting Systems.
40
What is ECCAIRS an abbreviation of?
European Co-ordination Centre for Accident and Incident Reporting Systems.
41
What are examples of UA/UAS Reportable occurrences? (incidents have to occur in flight)
Loss of Control/datalink with potential to harm. Navigation Failures. Pilot station configuration changes/errors. Display Failures. Transfer to different control stations. Crew Resource Management (CRM) failures. Damage Programming errors Any incident injuring third parties.
42
Accidents involving people must be reported to the _____?
AAIB
43
What is the AAIB an abbreviation of?
Air Accident Investigation Branch.
44
What is a SUA Operator?
Small Unmanned Aircraft - Operator.
45
Define Just Culture.
Frontline operators are not punished for actions that correspond with their experience and training. Gross negligence, wilful violations and destructive acts are not tolerated.
46
You had a serious incident that involved a manned aircraft. Who must you report it to?
The AAIB, CAA and AirProx
47
An accident occurred on site with your UA that didn't result in a serious incident, who must you report it to?
The AAIB, May report to CAA (May report because there wasn't a serious incident)
48
What is an ATC?
Air Traffic Controller
49
What is an AirProx situation?
The distance between aircraft and their positions/speed have compromised safety. (Think Air Proximity)
50
Who can report an AirProx Incident?
The Pilot involved or an ATC.
51
What is IFR?
Instrument Flight Rules.
52
What is VFR?
Visual Flight Rules.
53
Define Class A Airspace.
IFR (Instrument Flight Rules) Airways up to 19,500 ft Does not extend to the ground. (above head)
54
Define Class C Airspace.
IFR (instrument Flight Rules) Upper Airspace above 19,500ft Does not extend to the ground. (above head)
55
Define Class D Airspace.
IFR/VFR (Instrument/Visual Flight Rules) Lower levels around airports. Very controlled, extends to ground.
56
Define Class E Airspace.
IFR/VFR (Instrument/Visual Flight Rules) Local Terminal Manoeuvring areas. Does not extend to the ground. (above head)
57
Define Class G Airspace.
Uncontrolled except around airports/aerodromes. Control comes down to ground level.
58
Which airspace classes occur at ground level?
D and G.
59
Which airspace classes do not extend to the ground?
A, C and E.
60
What are the Classes of Airspace? In order
A, C, D, E and G (G last/bottom for Ground)
61
What Airspace to UAS normally take place in?
D and G.
62
What is the area called in which aircraft are landing?
The approach path.
63
Any aircraft in the approach path has _______ ?
Priority over any other air user.
64
Aircraft approaching a runway come in on a Glideslope usually at what % or ° ?
5% or 3°.
65
What is an ATZ?
Aerodrome Traffic Zone. Circular boundary from centre of largest runway. Radius of 2 to 2 and a half nautical miles. 2.5NM. Extends from up to 2000ft .
66
What is a RPZ?
Runway Protection Zone. Starts at the end and start of each runway. 5km long 1km wide.
67
If you are on site and see another UAS what should you do?
Contact site, ask what time is best to fly or if its safe to fly at all.
68
What are the three main reserved airspace categories?
Danger areas where military operate. (D for Danger) Prohibited areas where no one can fly. (P for Prohibited) Restricted areas for particular reasons. (R for Restricted)
69
You see an outlined area in which you need to operate your UA. It has an area code in the centre reading D207/23.0, what does this mean?
Danger area with an upper limit of 23,000ft D for danger - 207 area number - /23.0 upper limit 23,000ft
70
What is NOTAM?
Notice To Airmen. Advise about temporary changes to airspace.
71
What service MUST you check before every flight?
NOTAMS (Notice To Airmen) or Drone Safety Map.
72
When might a UAS flight require a NOTAM to be issued?
In a busy airspace. Operating more than 400ft.
73
Who do you contact when operating in an ATZ or FRZ?
The ATC or Airport Operator
74
How do you contact an ATC or Airport Operator?
NATS AIP or Drone Safety Map
75
What does NSF and ENSF stand for?
Non Standard Flight Enhanced Non Standard Flight
76
When must you apply for an NSF or ENSF?
Planned operations in restricted areas 157-159 London Certain controlled airs space.
77
How long can applications in a FRZ take?
Up to 21 days. Restricted areas in London may take longer.
78
Who issues the A2CofC certificate after completion?
The RAE (Royal Aircraft Establishment)
79
What wind speed do we need to be most wary of?
Gusts.
80
What weather meteorology information do airfields provide?
TAFs (Terminal Aerodrome Forecast METARs (Meteorological Aerodrome Report)
81
What's the first stage of performing a weather assessment?
A visual and physical check onsite.
82
What hand held instrument measures windspeed?
Anemometer.
83
What would cause localised variants of windspeeds?
Terrain and elevation.
84
Where would you use an anemometer?
Planned take-off location.
85
How is wind direction expressed?
In terms of the direction it originates.
86
If the UA is traveling at 10/ms with a 10m/s tail wind, how long would it take to travel 500m?
25 seconds. AIRSPEED + WINDSPEED (TAIL WIND) = GROUND SP AIRSPEED - WINDSPEED (HEAD WIND) = GROUND SP
87
What are the 3 main turbulences for UA operators should know about.
Mechanical Thermal Shear
88
What is mechanical turbulence caused by?
Air moving over irregular shaped surfaces. Buildings or Hills.
89
What is Thermal turbulence caused by?
Air at surface is heated to higher temperature than surrounding air and ascends as thermals.
90
What is Shear turbulence caused by?
Air moving in different directions/speeds on different levels. Caused by frontal surface, thunderstorms or local terrain.
91
Where is wind more likely to be at higher speeds?
Further up from the ground.
92
What are the main points of masking?
Obstructions blocking wind in urban flight. Be weary of launch near buildings. Wind speeds change on the above/side of buildings.
93
What causes wind speeds to be slower on the ground?
Friction
94
What is a gradient in terms of meteorology?
Wind increases with height above the ground.
95
What is an Eddy - wind?
Two currents of air from opposite directions form an eddy or whirlwind.
96
What kind of weather will affect your batteries and cause flight time loss?
Cold weather.
97
When would fog be classed as a visual obstruction?
If you cant see further than 1km.
98
What are Stratocumulus clouds?
``` Stratus = Flattened. Cumulus = Heap. ``` Precipitation - Light. A Flattened Heap of clouds...
99
What is a Stratus cloud?
Stratus = Flattened. Precipitation - Light.
100
What are Cumulus clouds?
Cumulus = Heap. Precepitation - Occasional rain or snow showers.
101
What is a Cumulonimbus cloud?
Dark grey heavy sky. Strong up and down airflows. Heavy rain/hailstones. Strong gusts Change of wind direction.
102
What risks do cumulonimbus clouds bring?
Electrical discharges. Interference. Danger of strike.
103
Breakdown the term Cumulonimbus (CB) cloud.
Cumulo = Heaps Nimbus = Rain bearing.
104
Where would Stratus clouds start to form?
Up to 6000ft
105
Where would Alto Clouds form?
6000ft to 20,000ft
106
Where would Cirrus clouds form?
Over 20,000ft.
107
Define the Cirrus cloud type.
Fibrous or hair-like.
108
Define the Cumulus cloud type.
Heap or pile.
109
Define the Stratus cloud type.
Horizontal sheet or layer.
110
Define the Nimbus cloud type.
Rain bearing.
111
What cloud type should UA operators be most weary of?
Cumulonimbus (CB).
112
What do the CAA define an aircraft as?
A machine that can derive support in the atmosphere from the reactions of the air, other than the reactions of the air against the earths surface" [SIMPLIFIED] Pushing air against air instead of pushing air against the ground for lift.
113
What are the four key forces working on an aircraft?
Lift. Drag. Weight. Thrust.
114
For an aircraft to remain balanced in flight what forces must be balanced?
Lift. Drag. Weight. Thrust.
115
Define Laminar flow
No turbulence, smooth.
116
What can affect lift of a propeller?
RPM (Rotations Per Minute) Size and profile (Affect pressure difference) Air density (Temp, Altitude (pressure), humidity)
117
How is lift generated?
Faster moving air over top of propeller (low pressure) Slow moving air pass over bottom of propeller (high pressure) Both are Laminar Flow (no turbulence)
118
What is Thrust?
Propels a craft in the direction of motion. forward back etc.
119
What is Drag caused by?
Friction against the air. Air pressure.
120
What aircraft does Drag mostly affect?
Fixed wing.
121
What is the max weight of a UA in the Open Category?
25kg.
122
What is the standard measure of mass for aviation in most country's?
Kilograms (kg).
123
Who is responsible for making sure everything is attached to the drone correctly/safely?
RP (remote pilot).
124
What does mAh mean?
milliAmps per hour.
125
What is charging or discharging a battery for 1 hour referred to as?
1 Coulomb.
126
What is Yaw?
When a drone rotates on the spot.
127
What is Pitch/Roll?
The drone will tilt forwards, backwards etc.
128
What is throttle for drones?
Go up.
129
What is ground effect caused by?
Reduction in drag as you come towards surface. Most manufacturers limit descent speed.
130
What is vortex ring state caused by?
Decent into "dirty air". Bringing drone down too quick into its own air.
131
What sensors feed the FC (Flight Controller)?
Gyros. GPS. Accelerometer. Barometric Pressure. Compass. Optical Flow and Sonar.
132
What does GNSS stand for?
Global Navigation Satellite System.
133
Which of these Satellites belongs to which country: - NAVSTAR or GPS GLONASS Galileo BeiDou
NAVSTAR or GPS = USA GLONASS = RUSSIA Galileo = Europe BeiDou = China
134
How many satellites do you need for a 3D fixed position?
4 the more the better.
135
How many satellites will give you a lateral fix?
Minimum 3.
136
What information does the satellite send to the drone?
Time calculation.
137
What can distort the signal to a satellite?
Deliberately . Ionosphere. Terrain or structures. Solar activity (KP index, anything above 4 can cause issues).
138
A 25C, 5000mAh batter will output ____ ?
125A . (2.5 x 50). Calculate the amps by the C-Rating to get the total output current.
139
Why are LiPo batteries a fire hazard?
Lithium burns on contact with air. Creates fierce chemical fire. Difficult to put out.
140
When charging a LiPo battery, what should you do?
Use a "Safe Bag" or fireproof box. Don't charge when hot. Don't charge over 90% when cold.
141
Which batteries can be taken on as carry luggage?
<100Wh No limited amount. 100Wh - 160Wh Max 2. >160Wh Prohibited.
142
What is the MSDS and for?
Material Safety Data Sheet Transportation of batteries.
143
What is ALARP an abbreviation of?
As Low As Reasonably Practical.
144
What will most likely be your number one cause of stress on site?
The client
145
If you deem the flight unsafe what must you do?
Be willing to No Go the flight. Put corrective measures in place.
146
Define an occurrence report.
an event which endangers or if not corrected or addressed that can cause damage to aircraft, persons or property.
147
What is the AAIB?
Air Accidents Investigation Branch
148
What is the IMSAFE code?
``` I = Illness M = Medication S = Stress A = Alcohol F = Fatigue E = Eating ```
149
What is CAP 393?
Air Navigation Order