A2 Flashcards

1
Q

Who is responsible for ensuring compliance with applicable laws?

A

the client (NOT auditor)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

T/F: To be considered a predecessor auditor, you would have needed to complete an audit of the F/S.

A

false - you would have needed to have been engaged with the client at least but wouldn’t have needed to complete the audit (this is rare)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

T/F: If you do a review, you must state in the report that it’s substantially less in scope than an audit.

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

T/F: When audit procedures are performed before year-end, the auditor must assess the incremental audit risk involved and determine whether sufficient alternative procedures exist to extend the interim conclusions to year-end.

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

A decrease in the amount of misstatements that the auditor can tolerate will cause the auditor to _____

A

perform the planned auditing procedures closer to the B/S date

note: this means that because they now tolerate fewer misstatements (more intense), they need the F/S to be more accurate and reliable, so the auditors will perform more tests closer to year-end

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

T/F: The comprehensive internal audit plan is more detailed and covers areas that would normally not be covered by the CPA.

A

true - the CPA is only concerned with material areas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What effects does the work of the internal auditor have on the audit team?

A

-procedures performed in obtaining an understanding of internal control
-procedures performed in assessing the risk of material misstatement
-substantive procedures performed in gathering direct evidence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

T/F: A lawyer is considered a specialist if they’re employed to provide guidance on a complex contract (not litigation).

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The appropriateness and reasonableness of methods or assumptions used and their application are the responsibility of the ________.

A

specialist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The _______ is responsible for obtaining an understanding of the methods or assumptions to determine if the findings are suitable as evidence.

A

auditor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When would it be appropriate for the auditor to refer to the work of a specialist in the audit report?

A
  1. when there is a difference between the client’s and specialist’s valuation of an asset
  2. when the auditor wants to add an explanatory paragraph for a modified report to emphasize a particular matter
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Reminder: you need to annualize materiality if they only give you numbers as of 6/30 !

A

noted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

An understanding of internal control relevant to an entity’s ___________ is necessary as part of audit planning.

A

financial reporting objective

(NOT business functions)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What do analytical procedures help with?

A

-risk of material misstatement due to fraud
-unusual transactions
-new transactions (at a high level)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are an entity’s objectives?

A
  1. reliable financial reporting
  2. effective and efficient operations
  3. compliance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the idea behind “substance over form”?

A

Management may establish appropriate procedures but not enforce compliance with them. There could be controls that may appear to exist but are actually not operating effectively.

17
Q

Establishing and maintaining internal control is the responsibility of _______.

A

management (not internal auditors)

18
Q

What is a primary criterion to consider when designing internal control?

A

cost-benefit relationship of controls

19
Q

T/F: An auditor evaluates an entity’s risk assessment to understand how management addresses risks relevant to financial reporting.

A

true

(not b/c it’s a component of overall audit risk in an audit)

20
Q

Why does an auditor care about information systems?

A

to understand:
1. the types of transactions processed
2. how transactions are initiated, recorded, and summarized
3. the process to prepare the F/S
4. how an entity communicates financial reporting roles to its staff

21
Q

What does monitoring include?

A
  1. assessing info derived from external parties
  2. assessing the quality of internal control performance over time
  3. improving controls (not eliminating them) that are not operating effectively
22
Q

What are some of the best monitoring activities for managers to use?

A
  1. budgets and forecasts to identify variances from expectations
  2. monthly reconciliations of all bank accounts
23
Q

T/F: Risk assessment procedures are needed to evaluate the design of relevant controls.

A

true

24
Q

What is the textbook definition of a walkthrough?

A

following a transaction from its origination until it is reflected in the F/S

25
Q

What are common inherent limitations of internal control (meaning you can’t avoid them)?

A
  1. human error
  2. collusion
  3. faulty decision-making by employees
  4. management override
26
Q

T/F: If transactions are authorized by the client within services performed by another entity, this process would not be considered to be part of the client’s information system.

A

true

27
Q

T/F: Continuous performance of audit tests is required when financial data is processed electronically without provision of paper documentation.

A

true - this is to ensure that controls are operating effectively throughout the period

28
Q

In computer audit applications, what do efficient and effective system usage require?

A
  1. identification of the appropriate audit tasks
  2. appropriate software to perform the selected audit tasks
29
Q

What does an integrated test facility do?

A

runs test transactions through the “live” system and posts to simulated (dummy) files to provide an auditor with information about the operating effectiveness of controls

real and fake transactions are processed together without the client being aware of the testing process

30
Q

What are embedded audit modules?

A

sections of the application program code that collect transaction data for the auditor; they are usually built into the application program when the program is developed

you can capture specific data as the transactions are being processed

this requires the auditors to be involved in the system design of the application to be monitored

31
Q

What is the test data approach?

A

a technique in which the client’s application program is used to process a set of test data - the results are already known by the auditor

if the client’s program is operating effectively, it should generate the same results determined by the auditor

test data does not need to consist of all possible valid and invalid conditions

only one transaction of each type needs to be tested

you’re not going to be worried about authorization here

32
Q

What is a parallel simulation?

A

the client’s input data is processed through both the auditor’s version of the client program and the client’s program; the output is compared

the auditor reprocesses the client’s data using the auditor’s own software (you compare your results to those of the client)

an advantage: the size of the sample can be greatly expanded at relatively little additional cost

33
Q

What does generalized audit software do?

A

selects items meeting specified criteria

note: you cannot reduce the need to perform tests of controls if reliance on controls is planned

34
Q

What is one of the primary benefits of generalized audit software?

A

the auditor can access information stored on computer files while having a limited understanding of the client’s hardware and software features

35
Q

T/F: It’s required for an auditor to determine if internal controls have been implemented for both private and public audits.

A

true

36
Q

Define materiality.

A

the smallest aggregate level of misstatement that could be considered material to any one of the financial statements (NOT as a whole)