A+ Software Flashcards

1
Q

What should be checked if computer continuously shuts down or reboots, or if there is a burning smell

A

PSU

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2
Q

What should you do if you hear a clicking sound

A

Backup and replace hard drive

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3
Q

CHKDSK

A

Used to fix hard drive errors

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4
Q

SFC

A

Used to verify/fix OS files

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5
Q

FIXMBR

A

Used to repair Master Boot Record

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6
Q

FIXBOOT

A

Used to write a new boot sector to system partition

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7
Q

SFC /SCANNOW

A

Scans OS files to verify integrity

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8
Q

Utility used to verify whether volumes on a PC are active and their assigned letters

A

Diskpart in Disk Management program

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9
Q

RAID 0

A

2 hard drives; striiped; fast and best performance

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10
Q

RAID 1

A

2 Hard drives; mirroring; fault tolerance

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11
Q

RAID 5

A

3 hard drives; disk striping with parity; fast and fault tolerant

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12
Q

RAID 10

A

4 hard drives; 2 mirrors striped together

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13
Q

How does one clear a hard drive

A

FORMAT OR DEGAUSS

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14
Q

What are methods for destroying hard drives?

A

Drill holes; incinerate; shred; Degauss (destroys factory low level format)

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15
Q

RAID 0: What should be done if one drive fails?

A

Replace drive, format and install; data is lost

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16
Q

RAID 1: What should be done if one drive fails?

A

Replace the hard drive and “rebuild” the array/mirror

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17
Q

RAID 5: What should be done if one drive fails?

A

Replace failed drive, reboot to recover

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18
Q

RAID 5: What should be done if two drives fail?

A

Replace the two bad drives, restore from latest backup

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19
Q

Drive Wipe

A

Overwrite every sector of a drive (ex DBAN, Dariks boot, Nuke); format for reuse

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20
Q

What command will securely delete and overwrite files on a drive

A

sdelete

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21
Q

What occurs when a drive is formatted?

A

A file system is applied (ex NTFS); A boot sector and MBR is created

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22
Q

Quick Format

A

Sets up file system; installs MBR; does not clear previous data

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23
Q

Device Manager

A

Used to monitor hardware and add drivers

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24
Q

You see error message indicating BOOTMGR file is missing/corrupt.
How do you proceed?

A

Boot form DVD, select Repair;

Can run bootrec /fixboot from recovery envir

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25
What command should you run if you get an error trying to boot after running antivirus software?
FIXMBR
26
System Restore
Quick restore of computer without losing anything currently being worked on
27
Safe Mode
Boosts with basic settings
28
Last Known Good Configuration
- Loads drivers and registry that worked the last time you Windows successfully started and then shut down. - Recent data will be lost - Quickest method to restore system to working order besides system restore.
29
What is fastest method to restore a computer to working order without losing personal files?
System Restore
30
What is the 2nd fastest method to get a system up?
Last Known Good Configuration
31
What should be done if error indicates "NTLDR is missing" or "BOOTMGR file is corrupt" ?
Use BOOTREC /FIXBOOT or | BOOTREC/ FIXMBR from a DVD
32
Port 80
HTTP; | Used for browsing web pages
33
How is confidential data protected?
By enabling advanced encryption
34
How is intermittent wireless connectivity resolved?
Change broadcast channel
35
What is the best definition of accelerometer?
Measure of velocity in a given direction
36
Best method for providing WiFi security?
Encryption
37
Use what to limit wireless access outside of a building?
Use directional antennae; | reduce radio power setting
38
APIPA
Automatically assigned IP addr 169.254.x.x if NIC cannot obtain a legitimate address
39
Shoulder surfing
Observing someone enter confidential data
40
Tailgating
Following someone in
41
Phishing
Tricking someone into providing private information via phone or email
42
Social engineering
Psychological manipulation so individuals divulge confidential information
43
Malware types
Rootkit Trojan Virus Worm
44
Virus
Malware requiring user to spread through email/file attachments
45
Worm
Self replicating malware; | Can bog down a network
46
Trojan
Malware in downloads; | Secretly performs an action
47
Rootkit
Hides from antivirus; | Attacks OS files
48
A cookie is best described as what?
Spyware
49
A popup is best described as what?
Adware
50
Administrator account
Most powerful acct; Only one acct exists; Can install unsigned drivers and software
51
Power user account
Can install programs & create accts
52
Standard user account
Cannot install programs or add drivers; | Not weak as Guest acct
53
Guest account
Most restricted acct
54
Which account cannot install programs or drivers by default?
Standard user acct
55
Which account is minimally required to install most programs?
Power User acct
56
A network admin is unable to install programs on a workstation... what is most likely the reason?
Username is not part of the local administrator group
57
What Wdws 7/8/8.1 feature prompts for admin password performing an admin level task?
User Account Control
58
How is User Account Control (UAC) enabled or disabled?
User Accounts in Control Panel
59
How are older programs installed on a newer W7 machine?
Compatibility Mode
60
How is a Windows OS installed across the network?
PXE
61
"No Operating System" error may indicate?
A boot order change is needed or HD is bad
62
Non System Disk error
A non boot CD or USB device is listed before HD in boot order
63
BOOTREC.exe /FIXBOOT
Command used to write a new boot sector
64
Factory Recovery Partition
Created upon installation which helps restore the system
65
What method allows a system to boot from a remote server?
PXE
66
What is BIOS setting is modified to ensure the computer can load OS from a CD?
Boot sequence
67
Multiboot option
At startup, options allow loading different OS systems
68
NTFS
File system; Supports large storage capacity; Supports security (encryption)
69
FAT32
Older file system; Small storage capacity; No security settings
70
CDFS
Compact Disc File System for CDs, DVDs and Blu-Ray
71
What file system can communicate between Linux and Windows?
Fat32
72
What file system supports the widest range of operating systems?
Fat 32
73
X86 OS RAM support
Supports 4GB RAM max
74
X64 OS support
Supports RAM beyond 4GB
75
Windows 7 Ultimate
Highest functional Windows OS
76
iCloud
Apple storage
77
Time machine
Apple backup utility for OS X
78
Mission Control
Mac birds eye view of open windows
79
Apple Boot camp
Allows installation of alternative multiple OS on one drive
80
Apple Spotlight
Find / Search utility
81
Virtualization
Solution allows multiple OS to function simultaneously on hardware
82
What function key accesses Safe Mode
F8
83
If the system will not boot after installing a new driver, what should you do?
Boot into Safe Mode
84
How would one restore the system quickly if a video driver caused blurred sections on the display?
System Restore
85
If the computer experiences the BSOD and the system does not start, what should be done?
Use Last Known Good Configuration; Access via F8; This loads drivers and registry data working the last time computer successfully started and shut down.
86
How would one restore a configuration where an application was mistakenly uninstalled?
System Restore
87
What should be done after malware/virus, adware, popups are discovered?
Quarantine virus after it is identified
88
How are vulnerabilities or problems addressed for routers and switches?
Firmware updates
89
How are PC vulnerabilities or problems addressed?
Patch updates
90
What best practice is used to fix a zero day vulnerability on Linux or Windows systems?
Patch update
91
If a downloaded file contains something that performs unexpected activities (i.e. downloads additional files, dials numbers, etc...). What type of file is it referred to as?
Trojan Horse
92
What is used to address an issue where a browser is redirected to a specific web site regardless of the URL enterered?
Anti Malware
93
What threat is defined by its self propagating characteristics, capable of spreading through the network?
Worm
94
What is designed to avoid detection by antivirus program and goes after the OS files?
Rootkit
95
A type of threat that uses computers or other networks to accept and pass on viruses?
Botnets
96
A cookie is the best example of what?
Spyware
97
A popup is the best example of what?
Adware
98
Accelometer
- Electronic device used to measure velocity, sense movement & vibration; - Used in mobile devices
99
What is used to install applications on an iPad
iTunes; App Store
100
What cloud based service is used to save attachments from an Outlook.com email?
OneDrive
101
What feature of a mobile device operates the touch screen?
Digitizer
102
A procedure for identifying one's physical location by obtaining GPS data from a mobile phone
Geotracking
103
A 15 digit code which specifically identifies each phone
IMEI: International Mobile Equipment ID
104
Turns off all radios in phone (Cell, WiFi, Bluetooth, NFC)
Airplane mode
105
EFS
Encrypting File System; | Used to encrypt files on MS system
106
Bitlocker
Encrypts entire hard drive volumes
107
MSCONFIG
Startup configuration program; | Allows disabling of startup programs & services
108
Fastest way to stop an application from running at bootup?
MSCONFIG
109
How do you access the registry?
REGEDIT; | First command to use to access the registry
110
HKEY
Handle to Registry Key
111
What is contained in the registry?
Database of hardware and software settings
112
HKCR
HKEY_CLASS_ROOT
113
HKLM
HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE
114
REGEDT32
Second command to use when accessing the registry; | Allows setting and clearing permissions
115
What utility is used to block and/or allow access to email, websites, ports
Windows Firewall
116
Which program can be used to view OS and application errors?
Eventviewer
117
How is the Event Viewer opened?
Start/Programs/Administrative Tools/Event Viewer
118
Which program allows one to create a customized list of utilities in one location
MMC: Microsoft Management Console
119
What diagnostic tool can be downloaded and run on Windows computers?
DXDIAG; | Used to troubleshoot video/sound related hardware problems
120
How are users limited with what they can do on a computer?
Local security policy
121
What program commands are used to stop a program / process without restarting the PC?
KILL / TASKKILL
122
What command is used to share a file/folder, map a network share?
NET
123
What command will provide a summary of the group policy configuration for a computer?
gpresult
124
SU Command
Linux:Become a Super User after logging in as a regular user
125
SUDO Command
Linux:Become a Super User for just one command
126
Ls Command
Linux: List contents of a folder
127
CD
Change Directory; | Linux uses a slash / between folders however (ie. CD /var/log)
128
MV
Linux: Used to move files
129
RMDIR
Linux / DOS: Deletes empty folders
130
MKDIR
Makes directories/folders
131
CP
Linux: Used to copy files
132
CHMOD
Linux: Change read/write permissions of a linux file (Read, Write or Execute)
133
GREP
Linux search function that allows you to look for specific text
134
SHUTDOWN
Linux: Shutdown a computer; Shutdow -r will include a reboot
135
PWD
Linux:: Print Working Directory writes the full pathname of the current working directory
136
APT-GET
Linux: Advanced Packaging Tool; Install/update, remove applications via command line
137
IFCONFIG
Linux/Mac: View IP address of network adapters
138
What is a Linux command which can be used to rename files
MV; example... MV *.txt *.tsv
139
Virtualization
Allows one to run multiple systems on a single piece of hardware
140
Hypervisor
Software application used to manage and run many various operating systems
141
Hyper-V
Microsoft utility enabling installation of alternative OS in a multiboot envir
142
Identify 3 types of security authentication
Something you Know (pw); Something you have (smartcard); Something you are (fingerprint or other biometric method)
143
Type I authentication security
Something you Know (pw)
144
Type II authentication security
Something you have (smartcard)
145
Type III authentication security
Something you are (fingerprint or other biometric method)
146
Multifactor authentication
When two types of authentication are used
147
Authentication that allows access to multiple computers, applications in a domain network
Single Sign On
148
When is data on Bitlocker encrypted drives most secure from loss?
When combined with Trusted Platform Module
149
Trusted Platform Module (TPM)
Specialized chip on an endpoint device that stores encryption keys specific to the host system for hardware authentication
150
How is user access to a network printer limited
ACL: Access Control List
151
SaaS
Software as a Service; Cloud computing infrastructure where applications are hosted via the network/internet; Eliminates need to install on client computers
152
IaaS
Infrastructure as a Service; | Uses hardware and software from the Web
153
Paas
Platform as a Service; Provides a platform allowing customers to develop, run, and manage applications without maintaining their own infrastructure
154
Hybrid infrastructure example
A company that manages its own cloud while utilizing a 3rd party vendor to help manage storage
155
Identify Software troubleshooting process
Identify problem; Establish theory; Test theory; Document Findings
156
What is the best way to deal with a difficult customer?
Do not argue or become defensive
157
What steps are used to address issue where a browser is redirected to a single website regardless of URL entered?
Identify symptoms, quarantine infected system, restore to a previous restore point
158
MSDS documentation
Mtls Safety Data Sheet; Guidelines for safe handling and disposal of various computer components
159
Chain of custody
In forensic procedures, a chronological record outlining persons in possession of an evidence
160
Data Loss Prevention (DLP)
A software or hardware based security solutions designed to detect and prevent unauthorized use and transmission of confidential information outside of a corporate network
161
Acceptable Use Policy (AUP)
A set of rules enforced in a network that restricts use of the network and sets guidelines as to how it should b e used
162
Unified Threat Management (UTM)
A network security solution combining a firewall's ability with unique safeguards such as URL filtering, content inspection, or malware inspection.
163
Class A address range
0 - 127
164
Class B address range
128 - 191
165
Class C address range
192 - 223
166
Class A Private Address Range
10.0.0.0 - 10.255.255.255
167
Class B Private Address Range
172.16.00 - 172.31.255.255
168
Class C Private Address Range
192.168.0.0 - 192.168.255.255
169
Wireless standard 802.11b
11 Mbps rate 2,4GHz frequency Distance 300'
170
Wireless standard 802.11a
54 Mbps 5 GHz freq Distance 150'
171
Wireless standard 802.11g
54Mbps 2.4Ghz Distance 300'
172
Wireless standard 802.11n
600 Mbps 2.4 or 5.0 GHz 300' - 400' range
173
Wireless standard 802.11ac
500 - 1300 Mbps (1GB???) 2.4 and 5.0 GHz 200 - 750'
174
Port 25
SMTP: Used to send mail
175
Port 22
SSH: Used as a secure protocol replacement for telnet
176
Port 53
DNS: Used for DNS requests
177
Port 21
FTP: Used to send data to client
178
Port 443
HTTPS: Secure web traffic
179
Port 110
Pop 3: Used to receive and read email
180
Port 3389
RDP: Used to remotely access windows systems
181
Port 143
IMAP: Used to read email
182
QOS
Quality of Service: Capability of network to provide better svc to selected traffic over various technologies
183
CAT 5e net speed
Up to 1000 Mbps (1 Gigabit)
184
Cat 6 net speed
Up to 10 Gbps
185
What would need to be done if a color laser printer is not printing one of its colors properly?
Run a cleaning page
186
What type of power connections does a SATA hard drive need?
3.3, 5 and 12 volts
187
What protocol is used for file sharing between Mac and Windows OS on a LAN?
SMB
188
In CAT5e UTP cable, which pins transmit data?
1 and 2
189
In CAT5e UTP cable, which pins recieve data?
3 and 6
190
T568-B pinout
``` W//O O W/Gr Bl W/Bl G W/Br Br ```
191
What pairs of wires in a crossover cable are swapped?
1, 2, 3, 6 ________ 1--->3 2-->6
192
FIXBOOT
Fixboot is used to write a new boot sector to the system partition.
193
FIXMBR
fixmbr is used to repair the Master Boot Record (MBR).
194
What is a GPT
GUID Partition table; | Supports partitions up to 18 exabytes