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2W051A VO1 1 > A SET VO1 self test questions > Flashcards

A SET VO1 self test questions Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Name the three general functional areas (subdivisions) of the 2W career field.
A
  1. Munitions systems, aircraft armament, and nuclear weapons.
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2
Q
  1. Why are job descriptions identified in the AFECD general in nature?
A
  1. Because they must apply to a wide range of jobs within a career field or subdivisions and do not include all duties and responsibilities of the specialty.
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3
Q
  1. What duties and responsibilities for specific skill levels of a specialty are not described in the AFECD?
A
  1. Unique base or command requirements.
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4
Q
  1. Why is it important for you to be familiar with the duties of all the subdivisions of the 2W career field?
A
  1. Because all the subdivisions of the 2W career field interrelate with each other to carry out the mission.
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5
Q
  1. Identify the subdivisions of the 2W career field (excluding 2W0X1) and their specific responsibilities.
A
  1. 1) Aircraft armament (2W1X1) - responsible for the loading of nuclear and nonnuclear air munitions, explosives, and propellant devices on aircraft. 2) Nuclear weapons (2W2X1) - performs and manages maintenance, inspection, storage, handling, modification, accountability and repair of nuclear weapons, weapon components, associated equipment, and general or specialized test and handling equipment.
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6
Q
  1. What AFSC is assigned to personnel while in basic training?
A
  1. 9T000.
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7
Q
  1. New airmen who have completed basic training are assigned what title and AFS code in the 2W0 career field until they are upgraded to the 3-skill level?
A
  1. Munitions systems helper, AFSC 2W011.
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8
Q
  1. What AFS identifies a semi-skilled individual?
A
  1. The 2W051.
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9
Q
  1. Whose primary responsibility is it to maintain qualification in a given specialty?
A
  1. Each individual’s.
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10
Q
  1. What are the duties and responsibilities of a 2W071?
A
  1. Supervising or performing functions of receipting, identifying, inspecting, storing, reconditioning, issuing, delivering, maintaining, testing, and assembling guided and unguided munitions, as well as preparing and maintaining documentation and records for inventory management actions.
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11
Q
  1. What is the minimum grade requirement for the award of the 7-skill level?
A
  1. E–5, staff sergeant.
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12
Q
  1. At what point up the 2W0 career ladder does the supervisory level begin?
A
  1. The craftsman.
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13
Q
  1. What is the minimum grade of a munitions systems superintendent?
A
  1. Master sergeant (E–7)
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14
Q
  1. What title and AFS code is assigned to a 2W0 who has reached the top of the career ladder?
A
  1. Munitions systems manager, 2W000 (CEM)
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15
Q
  1. Who has overall responsibility for the management of the CFETP?
A
  1. AFCFM.
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16
Q
  1. What conference is used to revise or change the CFETP?
A
  1. U&TW.
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17
Q
  1. Where is the U&TW usually held?
A
  1. Ammo Schoolhouse, Sheppard AFB, TX.
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18
Q
  1. If you want to find the career field progression requirements, to what section of the CFETP Part I would you refer?
A
  1. Section B.
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19
Q
  1. When, if ever, may a 3-skill level apprentice perform a task unsupervised?
A
  1. When the apprentice is trained and qualified to perform the task unsupervised, except where prohibited by safety or security requirements
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20
Q
  1. When may 5-skill level personnel be considered for supervisory duties?
A
  1. After completing Airman Leadership School
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21
Q
  1. What is the minimum length of time a trainee must spend in on-the-job training before being upgraded to the 5-skill level?
A
  1. 12 months.
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22
Q
  1. How many functional areas does a trainee need to be certified on to upgrade to the 5-skill level, 7-skill level, and 9-skill level?
A
  1. Two for 5-level; four for 7-level, and all major functional areas for the 9-level.
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23
Q
  1. What section of the CFETP Part II identifies the STS?
A
  1. Section A
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24
Q
  1. What section of the CFETP Part II identifies the core task table used by supervisors for upgrade requirements?
A
  1. Section B.
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25
Q
  1. When the STS is placed in AF Form 623, what does it become?
A
  1. A job qualification standard.
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26
Q
  1. Who establishes the basic concepts and policies for munitions?
A
  1. The Air Staff.
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27
Q
  1. What is the purpose of a 2W0XX U&TW?
A
  1. To periodically audit formal training courses and develop required changes.
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28
Q
  1. How are MAJCOMs organized in the United States?
A
  1. On a functional basis.
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29
Q
  1. How are MAJCOMs organized overseas?
A
  1. On a geographical basis.
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30
Q
  1. During contingency operations, who establishes lower echelon ammunition control points?
A
  1. MAJCOMs
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31
Q
  1. TACPs operate at what level?
A
  1. MAJCOM
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32
Q
  1. What supports smaller geographic areas within the theater?
A
  1. RACP.
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33
Q
  1. Which MAJCOM manages munitions sustainment organizations?
A
  1. HQ AFMC.
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34
Q
  1. Name the two control points HQ AFMC establishes as operational entities.
A
  1. Air Force Global Ammunition Control Point (Ogden) and the Air Force Tactical Missile Control Point (Warner Robins).
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35
Q
  1. Which control point is responsible for managing the APF?
A
  1. Air Force Global Ammunition Control Point (Ogden).
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36
Q
  1. Which control point manages the Air Superiority Missile inventory?
A
  1. Air Force Tactical Missile Control Point (Warner Robins).
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37
Q
  1. Explain the structure of a typical wing in descending order.
A
  1. Wing, group, squadron, flight, section and element.
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38
Q
  1. Which type of wing is capable of self-support in functional areas like maintenance, supply, and munitions?
A
  1. Operational wing.
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39
Q
  1. Which organization is a level just below the wing with approximately 500 to 2,000 people?
A
  1. Group
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40
Q
  1. How is a typical munitions flight broken down?
A
  1. Into three sections—production, systems, and materiel; it also has at least nine elements
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41
Q
  1. What is the purpose of the logistics system?
A
  1. To create and sustain force generation capabilities whenever and wherever needed to conduct military operations. On the broadest level, logistics is a key aspect of program management to acquire and sustain weapons systems.
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42
Q
  1. If a maintenance squadron exceeds 700 authorized positions, who may authorize it to be spilt up into an equipment maintenance squadron and a component maintenance squadron?
A
  1. Major command.
43
Q
  1. What organizational element establishes a program to monitor and assess the quality of maintenance performed?
A
  1. Quality assurance.
44
Q
  1. What organization is responsible for maintaining the central TO file?
A
  1. Quality assurance.
45
Q
  1. Who appoints the munitions flight chief?
A
  1. Squadron commander or equivalent.
46
Q
  1. Who must select and appoint munitions inspectors?
A
  1. Munitions supervision personnel.
47
Q
  1. Who develops and publishes unit movement control procedures?
A
  1. Munitions supervision personnel.
48
Q
  1. What is the title of the person that is responsible to the assigned commander and is the appointing official for the effective and efficient management of the munitions stockpile?
A
  1. Munitions accountable systems officer.
49
Q
  1. Who must appoint the CAS system administrators?
A
  1. Munitions accountable systems officer.
50
Q
  1. Who must ensure that the element master training plans cover peacetime and contingency tasks?
A
  1. Munitions flight section chief.
51
Q
  1. Who must establish and maintain a hazardous waste program?
A
  1. Munitions flight section chief.
52
Q
  1. Who must enforce supply discipline in a typical munitions activity?
A
  1. Element NCOIC.
53
Q
  1. In a typical munitions activity, who must ensure pre-task safety briefings are accomplished before the start of any munitions operation?
A
  1. Munitions crew chief.
54
Q
  1. In a typical munitions activity, what section assembles, disassembles, delivers, inspects, and maintains conventional munitions, missiles, containers, and dispensers?
A
  1. Production section.
55
Q
  1. In a typical munitions activity, what section plans, schedules, controls, and directs munitions activities and in-processes accountable transactions in CAS when relayed from other munitions activities?
A
  1. Systems section.
56
Q
  1. In a typical munitions activity, what section receives, stores, warehouses, handles, breaks out, inspects, ships, inventories, transports, disposes locally, and processes transactions in CAS for conventional munitions, containers, dispensers, and training items and coordinates transportation?
A
  1. Materiel section.
57
Q
  1. What is the key to any successful military operation?
A
  1. A well thought out plan.
58
Q
  1. What is an OPLAN?
A
  1. Any plan, except for the single integrated operational plan, for the conduct of military operations
59
Q
  1. Within which annex listed in the OPLAN would you find nonnuclear munitions requirements?
A
  1. Annex D.
60
Q
  1. What is the IGESP?
A
  1. A plan that is primarily developed for locations with a permanent Air Force presence, and are fully developed by the planning efforts of many functional experts. The IGESP translates major command operation planning concepts into base level capabilities to support forces
61
Q
  1. What is the ESP?
A
  1. A plan that is primarily associated with locations without a permanent Air Force presence and may contain only the minimum data necessary to make initial beddown decisions. ESPs may be developed in short time frames to meet contingency needs without full coordination.
62
Q
  1. What is the MEP?
A
  1. A plan tailored specifically to munitions operations to support the OPLAN tasking. Munitions flight supervision develops the MEP to provide detailed guidance for conducting munitions operations when the IGESP is not sufficient or does not exist using other plans so that we know our tasking.
63
Q
  1. What are some of the resources to consider during a site survey?
A
  1. Any of the following: facilities, vehicles, AGE, MMHE, test equipment, and communications.
64
Q
  1. What is the formula to compute the daily consumption rate of munitions?
A
  1. Primary aircraft authorization × sortie rate × standard configuration load × expenditure per sortie factor
65
Q
  1. Who authorizes the actual execution of a plan?
A
  1. The NCA.
66
Q
  1. What initiates the supporting and supported command to develop a course of action?
A
  1. The WARNORD.
67
Q
  1. When is an ALERTORD issued?
A
  1. When the situation requires continued execution planning after the warning or planning order is issued.
68
Q
  1. Who is authorized to issue the EXORD, and what is its purpose?
A
  1. The Secretary of Defense, and to direct the deployment and/or employment of forces.
69
Q
  1. List two of the benefits that contamination avoidance provides
A
  1. Any two of the following: (1) Limiting the amount of critical resources contaminated after attack. (2) Enhancing personnel survivability. (3) Reducing time personnel are required to wear protective clothing. (4) Mitigating the effect contaminated assets have on uncontaminated areas.
70
Q
  1. When notified of an attack, what should you do with your assets and why?
A
  1. Move them to an igloo or other large facility; to protect them from contamination.
71
Q
  1. If overhead protection is not available, what can you use to protect critical assets?
A
  1. Barrier materials.
72
Q
  1. Who must ensure requirements for permanently covered bomb build areas, vehicle/AGE storage shelters, and covered munitions trailer holding areas are developed and constructed?
A
  1. Commanders and munitions flight officers/chiefs.
73
Q
  1. Which munitions flight element serves as the UCC?
A
  1. Munitions control.
74
Q
  1. List two items that controlling activites should do when operating in a contaminated environment.
A
  1. Any two of the following: (1) Determine critical mission operations and ensure personnel complete required activities. (2) Maintain awareness of contamination status of each are associated with munitions operations. (3) Track personnel movement within in and between contaminated and uncontaminated zones on the installation. (4) Provide detailed instructions and status updates to personnel who transit through multiple contamination zones. (5) Limit personnel movement to only those conducting critical mission operations. (6) Use contaminated assets only when uncontaminated resources are unavailable. (7) Make sure contaminated areas and equipment are conspicuously marked.
75
Q
  1. What can be used to remove chemical agents in dust form?
A
  1. To achieve the highest percentage of decon effectiveness.
76
Q
  1. What chemical decontamination kit is used on equipment and munitions and what type of liquid solution?
A
  1. Five percent chlorine solution
77
Q
  1. Why should the decontamination of munitions assets begin as soon as possible after an attack?
A
  1. M295 Kit and a 5-percent chlorine bleach solution or soap and water.
78
Q
  1. What protection level is assigned to resources for which the loss, theft, destruction, misuse or compromise would result in great harm to strategic capability of the US?
A
  1. PL1.
79
Q
  1. What protection level is assigned to resources for which the loss, theft, destruction, misuse, or compromise would cause significant harm to the war-fighting capability of the US?
A
  1. PL2.
80
Q
  1. What protection level is assigned to resources for which the loss, theft, destruction, misuse, or compromise would damage the US war-fighting capability?
A
  1. PL3.
81
Q
  1. What protection level is assigned to resources that do not meet the definitions of PL1, PL2, or PL3 resources, but for which the loss, theft, destruction, misuse, or compromise would adversely affect the operational capability of the Air Force?
A
  1. PL4.
82
Q
  1. Name the four areas where you might work.
A
  1. (1) Restricted areas.
    (2) Close-in security areas.
    (3) Controlled areas.
    (4) National defense areas.
83
Q
  1. What distance is a boundary for a close-in security area from the resource?
A
  1. No closer than 10 feet and no further than 60 feet from the resource, except when an individual resource IDS is used. In that case, no closer than 10 feet, but it can be further than 60 feet, depending on the individual sensor characteristics and the area configuration.
84
Q
  1. Who can be an armed guard for the entry control point of a munitions storage area?
A
  1. Security forces or a fellow munitions journeyman.
85
Q
  1. Give an example of when a NDA may be used.
A
  1. Any one of the following: (1) Unplanned emergency dispersal of aircraft to civilian airports. (2) Emergency landings of aircraft carrying nuclear weapons. (3) Temporarily stopped nuclear weapon ground convoys. (4) Aircraft crashes or other unplanned emergency events.
86
Q
  1. What must you have prior to being authorized regular access to a security area?
A
  1. A regular need for entry into the area.
87
Q
  1. What munitions items are assigned CIIC, and what is the intended purpose of the codes?
A
  1. All munitions items are assigned a CIIC; to identify the degree of security that must be applied to an item while the item is in storage or in transit.
88
Q
  1. What are the four categories of the CIICs?
A
  1. Classified, sensitive, pilferable, and unclassified.
89
Q
  1. Who assigns CIICs to munitions items?
A
  1. The item manager
90
Q
  1. What type of items fall into the sensitive category, and what type of protection and control is required?
A
  1. Includes such items as narcotics and drug abuse items; precious metals; items which are of high value, highly technical, or of a hazardous nature; and small arms, ammunition, explosives and demolition material. This type of material requires a high degree of protection and control due to statutory requirements or regulations.
91
Q
  1. What type of items fall into the pilferage category, and what type of protection and control is required?
A
  1. Includes items such as aircraft engines, hand tools and shop equipment, firearms, ammunition and explosives, individual clothing and equipment, office machines, photographer equipment and supplies, communication/electronic equipment and parts, and vehicular equipment and parts. These items require special control to prevent pilferage but which do not meet the definition of any other pilferage code,
92
Q
  1. What type of items fall into very-high-risk category I?
A
  1. Complete man-portable nonnuclear missiles and rockets when in a ready to fire configuration (i.e., Redeye, Stinger, LAW).
93
Q
  1. What type of items fall into low-risk category IV?
A
  1. Manually operated, shoulder-fired weapons other than grenade launchers, handguns, recoilless rifles up to and including 90mm, ammunition with nonexplosive projectile (unpacked weight of 100 pounds or less each), fuses, other than for grenades, illumination, smoke, and practice grenades, CS/CN grenades (tear producing), riot control agents; 100-pound package or less.
94
Q
  1. What are the two conditions required for an OPSEC vulnerability?
A
  1. (1) There is a weakness that could reveal critical information. (2) There is an adversary with both the intent and the capability to exploit that weakness (i.e., a threat).
95
Q
  1. List three operations indicators of OPSEC vulnerability.
A
  1. Any three of the following: (1) Stereotyped activities such as schedules, test preparations, range closures. (2) Visits of VIPs associated with a particular activity or technology. (3) Abrupt changes or cancellations of schedules. (4) Specialized equipment. (5) Specialized training. (6) Increased telephone calls, conferences, and longer working hours (including weekends). (7) Rehearsals of operations. (8) Unusual or increased trips and conferences by senior officials.
96
Q
  1. List three communications indicators of OPSEC vulnerability.
A
  1. Any three of the following (1) Specialized and unique communications equipment. (2) Power sources. (3) Increases and decreases in communications traffic. (4) Call signs. (5) Transmitter locations.
97
Q
  1. List three administrative indicators of OPSEC vulnerability.
A

Any three of the following: (1) Military orders. (2) Distinctive emblems, logos, and other markings on personnel, equipment. (3) Supplies. (4) Transportation arrangements. (5) Schedules. (6) Orders. (7) Flight plans. (8) Duty rosters. (9) Leave cancellations.

98
Q
  1. List three logistics and maintenance support indicators of OPSEC vulnerability.
A
  1. Any three of the following: (1) Unique sized and shaped boxes, tanks, and other containers. (2) Prepositioned equipment. (3) Technical representatives. (4) Maintenance activity. (5) Unique or special commercial services. (6) Deviations of normal procedures. (7) Physical security arrangements.
99
Q
  1. List the major goals of the AF nuclear surety program.
A
  1. To achieve maximum safety consistent with operational requirements, to maintain our record of zero accidental or unauthorized nuclear yields and to reduce the potential for, and the possible effects of, nuclear mishaps.
100
Q
  1. What are the criteria for the selection and retention of individuals who work around nuclear weapons?
A
  1. Individuals who are emotionally stable and have demonstrated good judgment and professional competence
101
Q
  1. What are the two PRP positions?
A
  1. Critical and controlled.
102
Q
  1. Who is responsible for the certification of personnel into the PRP?
A
  1. The commander.
103
Q
  1. List three mandatory selection requirements a person must meet prior to being placed in a PRP position.
A
  1. Any three of the following: (1) Meet the minimum standard of “S–1” of the physical profile series. The S stands for “psychiatric,” and the 1 indicates “no psychiatric disorder.” (2) Have the technical competence needed to perform the duties assigned. (3) Have the required security clearance or investigation. (4) Have a positive attitude toward nuclear weapons duty and the objectives of the PRP. (5) Must not be under consideration for separation for cause, under courts-martial charges, or awaiting civilian trial for felony charges. (6) Be a US citizen or US national. (7) Must not have a history of drug abuse.
104
Q
A

2W051A VO1 1 (1 decks)

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