A plus Flashcards
801-802
Computer operating systems can be open source meaning the OS can be examined and modified by
anyone
A multitasking method that depends on the application itself to be responsible for using and then freeing access to the processor is known as
cooperative multitasking
Because the operating system is essential for running all the other programs, it is usually the first piece of software loaded during the
boot process
the ability of a single application to have multiple requests in to the processor at one time is known as what?
Multithreading
Can you mix 64 bit software with 32 bit hardware?
you cannot mix 64 bit software with 32 bit hardware
what is the minimum amount of memory recommended for window vista home premium?
1GB
what is the minimum amount of free hard drive space recommended for installing a wind 7 32 bit version?
16GB
In window a primary mouse click is typically a single click which mouse button?
Left
the Taskbar contains two major items, the start menu and the
system tray
A ___ is a copy your system configuration at the given point in time.
restore point
Which control panel applet is used to configure screen savers, colors display option and monitor driver
display
what is the name of the desktop interface available in window vista?
Aero
the ability to support so many language is provided through the use of the stand ___ standard.
unicode
a group of computer that are tightly conneced or associated and share a common domain will have a single authority that manages a security for all the computer known as the
domain controller
in window 7, vista, and xp, every user automatically is a given a user _____ when they log on to to the workstation that contains information about their settings and preferences.
profile
True/Fasle: Remote assistance is enabled by default.
True . Remote assistance is enable by delfault
The ____ command indicates whethers the host can be reached and how long it took for the host to send a return packet.
ping
Which option is used with NETSTAT to display all connections and listening ports?
-a
What switch is used with IPCONFIG to obtain a new IP address from DHCP server?
/RENEW
The ____ utility can be used to scheduale a shutdown (complete or a restart ) locally or remotely.
shutdown.exe
With Window 7, there are 32 bit and 64 bit versions available for each of the editions your must know for the exam excepts ___.
Starter
What feature of window 7 and window vista is intended to prevent unintentional/unautorized changes to the computer by either prompting for permission to continue or requiring the/ administrator password before continuing
UAC ( User Account Control)
The ______ feature of window 7/ vista allows you to use drive encryption to protect files, including those needed for startup and logon.
BitLocker
In window 7 the _____ feature allows to use free space on a removable drive to speed up a system by caching content.
ReadyBoost
Window 7 includes the ___ antispyware program.
Window Denfender
Window 7 has a quick way to access files you’ve been working on through their association with the application that has been using them. This feature is known as _____.
jump lists
A simplified way to set up a home network was added to window 7. It is known as _____.
Home Group
In window 7, ____ allows you to logically (as opposed to physically) group files and folder that are not in the same location and make them appear as if they are.
libraries
Microsoft windows ___ allows you to migrate user files settings related to the applications, desktop configuration, and accounts.
User State Migration Tool (USMT)
During the start up of window 7, what holds information about the OSs installed on the computer, such as the location of the OS files?
Boot Configuration Data (BCD)
What is the maximum number of CPUs supported by the Window vista home premium?
one
Which edition of vista support BitLocker and is not available through the retail channel?
Enterprise
In window vista, what is the name for mini programs that can be placed on the sidebar, allowing them to run quickly and personalized the PC?
Gadgets
In the window vista, the ____ provide a single interface or firewall settings, automatic updating, malware protection, and other security settings.
Window Security Center
True/ False : In window vista, you can turn off the UAC features.
True: While turning UAC off is not recommended, you can do so boy choosing
Start>Control Panel> User Account and clicking Turn User Account Control ON or OFF.
To what versions of window vista can window xp professional be upgraded?
Window Vista Business and Window
Vista Ultimate
What file in the window serve as the hardware abstraction layers?
HAL.DLL
Window firewall has been a component of window ever since ____.
Window XP Service Pack 2
The default setting for Enforce Password history is 0. How high can this value go?
24
What Control Panel applet in window vista can be used to configure the device on which the operating system is installed to function as a true tablet?
Tablet PC setting applet
Setup Manager is not an unattended installation method in and of itself but is used to create ____ files.
answer
What type of operating system installation installs the most commonly used components of the software but not all of the components?
Typical
Older window server operating system have a feature called Remote Installation Service (RIS), which allows you to perform several network installations at one time. Beginning with window server 2003 SP@, RIS was replaced by _____.
Window Deployment Services (WDS)
__________ is the process of dividing part or all of a hard drive into sections, or partitions, for use by the computer.
Partitioning
On each hard drive, the ___________ co
Master Boot Record (MBR)
Window XP includes a utility known as the __________ that will transfer most of your files and individual application settings from an old computer to a new one.
File and Setting Transfer Wizard
With window xp, what files starts the loading of an OS on the computer?
NTLDR
With window xp, to access Safe Mode you must press what key when the OS menu is displayed during the boot process?
F8
True/ False: Window xp home edition does not have Remote Desktop, only Remote Desktop Connection.
True. Window xp home edition does not have Desktop , only Remote Desktop Connection. Therefore, window xp home computer can connect to other computer but not to be connect to from other computers.
What Control Panel applet is unique to window xp and can be used to add or remove network connection?
The Network Connection applet (Start> Control Panel> Network Connections.)
Ideally, your systems should have a minimum of ___ physical barriers.
three
________ is the term used for someone being so close to you when you enter a building that they are able to come in the right behind you without need to use a key, a cre , or any other security device.
Tailgating
_______ is a common physical access method that involves digging through Dumpster or recycle bins looking for information that is highly sensitive in nature (such as passwords written down after a change and before the user has the new one memorized.)
Dumpster diving
_____ devices such as hand scanner and retinal scanners use physical characteristic to identify the user.
Biometric
What is the name of films or glass add-ons that are placed over a monitor and prevent the data on the screen from being readable when viewed from the sides?
Privacy filters
A firewall operating as a _____ passes or blocks traffic to specific address based on the type of application
packet filter
The concept of ______ is a simple one: When assigning permissions, give user only the permission they need to do their work an no more.
least privilege
_____ is a process which an attacker attempts to acquire information about your network and system by social means, such as talking to people in the organization.
Social engineering
What is a type of malicious software that act on behalf of a third party (rather than self-replicating, like virus and worms, it us spread to machines by user who inadvertently ask for it)?
Spyware
_____ is a form of social engineering in which you simply ask someone for a piece of information that you are missing by making it look as if it is a legitimate request.
Phishing
If you’re running into a software problem on a computer, the first step (after understanding what the problem is and getting any relevant error message written down) should always be to ____.
reboot
True/ False: When trying solution to fix a problem, make only one change to the computer at a time.
True
What is BSOD?
The blue screen of death (BSOD)- not a technical term, by the way - is another way of describing the blue-screen error condition that occur when
Windows fails to boot properly or quit unexpectedly.
When troubleshooting in Safe Mode, you can uninstall a driver you think is causing the problem. Another option is to boot into the _______configuration.
last known good
What is the name of the files that is the Window OS kernel?
NTOSKRNL.EXE
A RAID array was not detected during the installation of window 7. What is a likely reason?
A likely possibility is that the correct drivers for the version of window being used is not located.
Device ____ are software programs that tell
driver
True/False: In window 7/vista, the User Account Control (UAC) feature has the sole purpose of keeping user from running programs that could pose a potential threats by escalating privileges to that of Administrator.
True
True/ False: When a files fails to open, it is often due to compatibility.
False. When a files fails to open, it is oftern due to corruption.
What command must you use to install Recovery Console?
WINNT32 /CMDCONS
If all computer on the network are in the same office, then the office is a _________.
local area network (LAN)
Computer dedicated to providing resource to other computer are called _________.
servers
A network where there are no dedicated servers is called ________ network.
peer-to-peer
A network topology where all computers are connected to a central devices such as a switch is called a _____________.
star
Ethernet uses ___________ to send information on the network.
CSMA/CD (Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection )
The layer of the OSI model that manages the ‘look’ of the data including encryption and compression is the ____ .
Presentation
The layers of the OSI model responsible for establishing and maintaining communications between computer is the ________ layers.
Session
The OSI layer responsible for error-checking is________.
Transport
The cable type with the longest range is _________.
fiber optic
As opposed to a WLAN, a bluetooh network is referred to as a _______.
wireless personal area network (WPAN)
The network connectivity device that can connect multiple network to each other is a ________.
router
The OSI model layer responsible for putting frames on the wire is called the ______ layerg
Physical
The seven layers of the OSI model from top down are _______.
Application, Presentation, Session,Transport,
Network, Data Link, Physical
The language of the communication spoken between computers on a network is called a _____.
protocol
TCP/IP is based on the ___ model.
United State Department of Defense (DoD)
TCP is a____ protocol that operate at the _____ layer of the OSI model.
connection-oriented , Transport
Which protocol in TCP/IP is responsible for resolving IP addresses to MAC address?
ARP (Address Resolution Protocol)
To communicate on a network, TCP/IP hosts must have a unique ____and valid _____..
IP address,subnet mask
Class A IP address will have a first octet of between____ and____.
1 and 126
FTP uses ports____and___, Telnet uses port____.
20,21,23
A _____ server provide IP configuration information to clients on the network.
DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol)
Class B private IP addresses are in the ____ range.
172.162.0.0 to 172.31.255.255
Class C private IP address are in the _____range.
192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255
APIPA address are in the _____ range with a subnet mask of____.
169.254.0.0 to169.254.255.255, 255.255.0.0
The ____ protocol is used to send mail and operates on port_____.
SMTP, 25
The address fe80::/10 is an example of an IPv6 ____address.
link-local
The_____ protocol is used to retrieve mail and operates on port _____.
IMAP,143 :POP3 , 110
A 10BaseT network uses______ cabling and can transmit data at ___ (speed).
twisted-pair (or UTP), 10Mbps
What are the four common types of broadband?
DSL (Digital Subscriber Line) cable, satellite, and fiber-optic
The wireless networking standard 802.11a operate at___ (frequency) and supports ____(speed).
5GHZ, 54Mbps
The wireless networking stand 802.11n operates at ___(frequency) and supports _____(speed).
2.5 and 5GHz, up 600
What is the most secure encryption protocol for 802.11?
WPA2
Wireless network used____to identify themselves.
SSIDs
Name two example of 4G technology.
WiMAX, LTE
Firewall filter packets based on a set of rules called___.
an ACL (access control list)
UTP cable has a maximum segment length of ___.
100 meters
The server that translates between private non-routable IP addresses and public IP address is ___.
Network Address Translation (NAT)
WPA2 employs what security method?
AES-CCMP
What types of laptops adapter combine functionality of PCIe USB 2.0?
Express card
How thick are PCMCIA Type I cards?
3.3 millimeters
If you want to plug your laptop into a power outlet in your car, what kind of power adapter do you need?
DC
Type III PC Cards are ___ thick, and the most common Type III device is a
_____.
10.5 millimeters, hard drive
What kind of connector do MiniPCI Type III card use?
124-pin card edge
Where can you obtain laptop service manuals?
From the manufacturers website
What are the three components of and LCDs?
Inverter,screen,and blacklight
What is the part of the LCD that is responsible for providing enough lights?
Backlights
What is the component of a laptops video system that is responsible for the video signal?
Video card
MiniPCIe cards have ____ connectors.
52-pin card edge
What step of the EP print process uses a laser to discharge selected area of the photosensitive drum, thus forming an image on the drum?
Writing
The last step in the EP print process is ___.
fusing
Which voltage is applied to the paper to transfer the toner to the paper in the EP process laser printer.
+600VDC
Bubble-jet and laser printer are example of_____ because they received their printer jobs instruction one page at the time.
page printer
Multipart forms are used with this type of printer.
dot-matrix
With EP process laser printers, the laser discharges the charged photosensitive drum to ____ VDC.
-100
What is the function of the corona assembly?
The corona assembly gets the toner from the photosensitive drum onto the paper.
What is the first step of EP printing process?
cleaning
What are the six steps in the printing process in order?
Cleaning,charging,writing,developing,transfering,fusing
_____ are example of prints communication languages.
Printer Command Language (PCL), PostScript (PS) and Graphics Device Interface (GDI)
Which component inside the computer case pose the biggest risk of electrocution?
The power supply
Class ____ fire extinguishers are for flammable liquid fires.
B
Class ______ fire extinguishers are for fires involving flammable metals.
D
To discharge electricity from a monitor, use a ______.
high-voltage probe
What is the name of the safety sheet supplied with all chemicals?
Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)
What are the three common types of screws used in a computer?
Straight-slot , Phillips, and Torx
Computer components can be damaged with a shock of ______ volts.
100
To see an electrical discharge, the transfer must be of______ volts or more.
10,000
What devices uses a one megohm resistor to slowly bleed charge away?
An antistatic wrist strap
To whom must accidents at the workplace be immediately reported?
The employer
When lifting computer equipment, always lift with your ____.
legs
You should ______ batteries to properly dispose of them.
recycle
When talking about computer problem with a customer, you should avoid using __________ .
jargon, acronyms, and slang
What should you do if you are going to be late to a customer appointment?
Contact (call) the customer
When working on a customer, you should always ______ and______ expectations.
set, meet (or exceed)
Consistently light or faded characters on output from a dot-matrix printer likely indicates what?
The prints ribbon is old and need to be replaced.
Unevenly spaced characters in output from a dot-matrix or bubble-jet printer could indicate what?
A problem with the steppers motor.
A paper jam in a bubble-jet printer is usually cause by what two things?
Worn pickup rollers or the wrong type of paper.
Pin 1 on a laser printer’s power connector should supply what voltage?
+5v
What are the three ways you can manually configure your laser printer’s IP address?
Through the control panel on the printer, using Telnet, and using management software on your computer.
The process that a bubble–jet printer goes through after installing a new print cartridge is called ____.
print head alignment
Vertical white line on the output of a laser are caused by what?
Foreign matter(more than likely toner) caught on the transfer corona wire
What causes image smudging from a laser printer?
The fuser isn’t heating the toner and fusing into the paper.
When window quits unexpectedly, you may get a _______.
Blue Screen of Death (BSoD)
The diagnostic routine built into the BIOS is called the ________.
power on self test (POST)
name the two most common types of devices used to keep computer cool.
Heat sink and cooling fans.
The line of print jobs is called the _____.
print queue
The service that formats jobs for the printer is called the ____.
printer spooler
If a laptop will not power up on a battery power, what should you should?
Plugging it in to an AC adapter
If the video on a laptop is not working, you should plug in what?
An external monitor
To communicate on a TCP/IP network, which two things do you need.
A unique IP address and a valid subnet mask
What is the command-line utility used to look at inbound and outbound TCP/IP connections on your computer?
NETSTAT
Which RAID level provides no fault tolerance?
Raid 0
The functional components of a chipset are known as Northbridge.
Northbridge, Southbridge
ATX and ITX are example of what?
Motherboard form factors
_________ is essentially software implemented in the hardware.
Firmware
Name two advanced method used to keep computer component cool.
Possible answer include : liquid cooling, heat pipes, Peltier cooling devices, phase-change cooling, liquid nitrogen and helium and undervolting.
External cache is most commonly implemented using what type of memory?
Static Ram (SRAM)
Which module both have 240 pins but are distinguished by the location of their keying notch?
DDR2, DDR3
What are the two socket type that require little to no force during CPU installation?
Zero Insertion Force (ZIF) and Land Grid Array (LGA)
What should you apply between the CPU and heat sink to avoid overheating?
Thermal compound
What type of conventional CPU cooling method is relatively quiet and affords the greatest drops in temperature?
Water or liquid cooling
If the fan on the power supply is an exhaust-oriented fan, then the fan on the front fan should be ______ oriented, while the rear supplement fan should be _____ oriented.
intake, exhausted
How many devices can a 16-bit SCSI bus support?
16
How many pins might you find on the data interface of a given SCSI device?
25,50,68 , or 80
What was the ATA-5 technology that first required the 80-wire ribbon cable called?
UltraDMA/66 or UDMA/66
IDE and EIDE are now collectively referred to as ____ and have been superseded by ______.
PATA, SATA
Name three of the available memory-card formats.
SD, xD,MMC,CF,MS,SM etc.
Name one of the standard DC voltages supplied by a power supply.
+3.3VDC, +5VDC,-5VDC,+12VDC, or -12VDC
What is the name given to the IDE/EIDE family of drive interfaces to differentiate them from the newer SATA specification?
PATA
How much faster is the 1X transfer rate of a DVD drive when compared to that of a CD drive?
Nine times faster
Name three interface commonly used to attach external hard drives to a computer system.
USB, FireWire, and eSATA
What is the capacity of a standard Blu-ray disc?
25GB
RCA and TOSLINK connector are used with copper and fiber, respectively, for what input/output technology family?
Digital audio
Thunderbolt is a combination of which two interface?
DisplayPort and PCIe
What should you do for a mechanical mouse that cause the cursor to my erratically on the screen?
Clean it
The e in the eSATA stands for _____, but the E in the EIDE stands for _____.
external, enhanced
What input technology allows the touch of a finger on stylus to simultaneously move the cursor and make a selection?
Touchscreen
What multimedia technology daisy-chains devices back to a host and uses a messaging protocol to communicate musical information among devices?
MIDI
Which expansion bus type can share a sing IRQ among two or more hardware components?
PCI
A card with the expansion on it that installs into a motherboard is known as a card.
riser
_______ is the preferred I/O bus architecture for high-end graphics adapters, especially among gaming enthusiasts.
PCI Express (PCIe)
Which two types of expansion slot are closely related and highly limited and specialized as to what can be installed in them?
Audio Modern Riser (AMR) , Communication and Networking Riser (CNR)
A ________ contrast ratio indicate that an LCD monitor reduces the power to the backlight to the display darker images.
dynamic
What is the digital version of YPbPr called
YCbCr
Three major types of LCD screen are dual scan, passive matrix, and ______.
active matrix
How many pins are on a standard (Type -A) HDMI connector?
19
How many more pins does a dual-link DVI-D connector have than a single-link DVI-D connector?
6
When you ______ a CRT monitor, you reduce the bulit-up magnetic field, improving the display quality.
degauss
The three main classification of a video display devices are CRT,LCD , and ____.
projector
The analog-only portion of a DVI-A connector has a flat ground blade surround by how many pins?
4
______ has a resolution of 1920 by 1200 pixels.
WUXGA
Adjusting the _____ rate eliminate flickering in a monitor.
refresh
Name three custom computer configurations.
Possible answer are graphic and CAD/CAM design workstations, audio/video editing workstations, virtualization workstations, gaming PCs, home theater PC, thin client, home serve PCs.
What special modification apply to the graphics and CAD/CAM workstations?
CPU enhancements, video enhancements, and maximized RAM
What special modifications apply to A/V editing workstations?
Video enhancements, specialize drive and specialized drives.
What special modification apply to virtualizations workstation?
CPU enhancements and maximized RAM
What special modification apply to gaming PCs?
CPU enhancement, video enhancements,special audio and enhanced cooling.
What special modifications apply to home theater PCs?
Video enhancements, specialized audio, special chassis, and TV tuner
What special modification apply to thin clients?
None, but they must be able to run basic applications and the local operating system.
What special modification apply to home server PCs?
Media streaming capabilities, file sharing services, printer sharing services,gigabit NIC, and RAID
With respect to A/V editing workstations, what does NLE stand for?
Nonlinear editing
Name the two most popular families of graphic APIs recommended for adapters used in A/V editing.
CUDA and OpenGL
What are the terms used to describe proprietary and non-proprietary program code?
Closed source/vendor specific and open source, respectivly
Which component in a mobile device can detect yaw?
A gyroscope
Mobile device that contain a magnetometer support apps that act as what kind of device?
A compass
Which TCP port are most commonly used for insecure and secure SMTP?
Port 25 and 465, respectively
What term refers to a mobile device adding geographical information to media such as photographs taken with the device?
Geotagging
Capacitive touchscreens do not require______ but resistive touchscreens do because their outer panel flex to make contact with their inner panels.
calibration
Name two methods that mobile device can use to detect its current location.
Possible answer are cellular network, WiFi network, GPS
What technology allows pairing of mobile devices and on occasion the ability to transfer files between them?
Bluetooth
When configuring an Internet email account on a mobile device, what are the standard pieces of information required?
Username and password, outbound mail server and port (often based on secure SMTP), and inbound mail server and port ( often based on secure POP3 or secure IMAP4)
What feature available on almost all mobile devices can ensure that, after a configurable amount of time, a security challenge must be met in order to access the device?
Passcode Lock
Which computer component contain all the circuitry necessary for other components or devices to communicate with one another?
Motherboard
Which packaging is used for DDR SDRAM memory?
184-pin DIMM
DDR SDRAM is manufactured on a 184-pin DIMM. DIMMs with 168 pins were used for SDR SDRAM. The SIMM is the predecessor to the DIMM, on which SDRAM was never deployed. RIMM is the Rambus proprietary competitor for the DIMM that carries DRDRAM instead of SDRAM.
What memory chips would you find on a stick of PC3-16000?
DDR3-2000,
Remember the 8:1 rule. Modules greater than but not including SDR SDRAM are named with a number eight times larger than the number used to name the chips on the module. The initials PC are used to describe the module, the initials DDR are used for the chips, and a single-digit number after PC and DDR is used to represent the level of DDR. The lack of a single-digit number represents DDR as long as the number that is present is greater than 133 (such as PC1600). Otherwise, you’re dealing with SDR (such as PC133). This means that PC3-16000 modules are DDR3 modules and are populated with chips named DDR3 and a number that is one-eighth of the module’s numeric code: 2000.
Which motherboard design style features smaller size and low power consumption?
ITX,
The ITX motherboard family consists of smaller boards that fit in standard or miniature cases and use less power than their larger counterparts.
Which of the following socket types is required for the Intel Core i7-9xx desktop series?
LGA 1366
The lower-end Core i7 desktop (nonmobile) processors call for the LGA 1156 socket, but the 9xx series requires the LGA 1366 socket.
Which of the following is a socket technology that is designed to ease insertion of modern CPUs?
ZIF
ZIF sockets are designed with a locking mechanism that, when released, alleviates the resistance of the socket to receiving the pins of the chip being inserted. Make sure you know your socket types so that the appearance of a specific model, such as Socket 479, in a question like this does not distract you from the correct answer. Only LGA would be another acceptable answer to this question because with a lack of pin receptacles, there is no insertion resistance. However, no other pin-layout format, such as SPGA, addresses issues with inserting chips. LPGA might have evoked an image of LGA, leading you to that answer, but that term means nothing outside of the golfing community.
Which of the following is not controlled by the Northbridge?
The Northbridge is in control of the local-bus components that share the clock of the frontside bus. SATA and all other drive interfaces do not share this clock and are controlled by the Southbridge.
Which of the following is used to store data and programs for repeated use? Information can be added and deleted at will, and it does not lose its data when power is removed.
Hard drive
A hard drive stores data on a magnetic medium, which does not lose its information after the power is removed and can be repeatedly written to and erased.
Which socket type is required for an AMD Phenom II that uses DDR3 RAM?
AM3
This processor requires an AM3 socket. The only other version of Phenom II was for the AM2+ and is not compatible with DDR3 RAM.
You press the front power button on a computer and the system boots. Later, you press it briefly and the system hibernates. When you press it again, the system resumes. You press and hold the button and the system shuts down. What is this feature called?
Soft power
Soft power is the feature whereby the front power button acts as a relay to initiate various system power changes, depending on the duration that the button is held.
Which of the following are the numbers of pins that can be found on DIMM modules used in desktop motherboards? (Choose three.)
168,184,240
DIMMs used in desktop-motherboard applications have one of three possible pin counts. SDR SDRAM is implemented on 168-pin modules. DDR SDRAM and 16-bit RIMMs are implemented on 184-pin modules. DDR2 and DDR3 are implemented on 240-pin modules with different keying. Dual-channel RIMM modules have 232 pins. Modules with 200 and 204 pins are used in the SODIMM line, and there are no modules with 180 pins.
To avoid software-based virtualization, which two components need to support hardware-based virtualization?
CPU,BIOS
Both the CPU and BIOS have to be designed to support virtualization in hardware.
You find out that a disgruntled ex-employee’s computer has a boot password that must be entered before the operating system is ever loaded. There is also a password preventing your access to the BIOS utility. Which of the following motherboard components can most likely be used to return the computer to a state that will allow you to boot the system without knowing the password?
Jumper
Most motherboards have a jumper or similar momentary closure mechanism that will allow you to clear the CMOS memory of any user settings and cause the BIOS to use factory defaults, including no user or supervisor passwords.
Your Core i5 fan has a four-pin connector, but your motherboard only has a single three-pin header with the CPU_FAN label. Which of the following will be the easiest solution to get the necessary cooling for your CPU?
Plug the four-pin connector into the three-pin header.
The easiest solution that works to cool your CPU is to connect the four-pin connector into the three-pin header. The missing pin allows you to control the speed of the fan. Without it, the fan will run at top speed, which is fine, albeit a little noisier. The heat sink alone should not be relied upon for proper cooling of modern CPUs.
What is the combined total speed of a PCIe 2.0 x16 slot?
16GBps
The PCIe 1.1 specification provided 250MBps of throughput per lane per direction. With the 2.x versions of PCIe, this rate was doubled to 500MBps. As a result, each v2.0 lane is capable of a combined 1GBps. A x16 slot consists of 16 lanes, for a total bidirectional throughput of 16GBps.
Which of the following allows you to perform the most complete restart of the computer without removing power?
Reset Button
The reset button causes the computer to return to nearly the same point it is in when you power it on, but without the need for power cycling. Using Restart in the Start menu does not reboot as deeply as the reset button. Hibernation is a power state that completely removes power after saving the contents of RAM to the hard drive; pressing the power button is required to resume the session in the same manner as starting the computer after a complete shutdown. The power button cannot be used as a method of restarting the system.
Which of the following is most helpful when flashing the BIOS on a desktop computer system?
Uninterruptible power supply
None of the options are required, but a UPS is by far the most helpful among the answers in that loss of power during this procedure can range from annoying to devastating.
Which of the following have Intel and AMD integrated into their Atom and Fusion processor lines that hasn’t been integrated before?
A GPU
These CPUs integrate the graphics processing unit. The Core i7 before them integrated the memory controller, eliminating the FSB. Math coprocessors have been integrated since the 80486DX.
You have just purchased a motherboard that has an LGA775 socket for an Intel Pentium 4 processor. What type of memory modules will you most likely need for this motherboard?
DIMM
Pentium 4 processors are always mated with memory mounted on DIMMs.
What type of expansion slot is preferred today for high-performance graphics adapters?
PCIe
Although technically all slots listed could be used for video adapters, PCIe excels when compared to the other options and offers technologies such as SLI, which only make PCIe’s advantage more noticeable.
What is the physical component where data is stored in a HDD?
platter
A conventional HDD contains discs called platters, on which data is stored magnetically through read/write heads by way of a magnetic coating.
Which of the following is not one of the the three major components of a hard disk drive system?
A) Drive interface
B) controller
C) Hard disk
D)Host Adapter
Driver interface
A conventional hard disk drive system consists of the hard disk and its often-integrated controller as well as a host adapter to gain access to the rest of the computer system. The drive interface is a common component of the controller and host adapter.
What is the largest NTFS volume size supported by Window Xp?
256 TB
A fixed number of clusters is supported by each operating system, leading to a corresponding maximum volume size. If the maximum NTFS cluster size of 64KB is used, Windows XP can support a single-volume size of 256TB. When a cluster size of one sector, or 512 bytes (~HFKB), is used, the maximum volume size reduces to 2TB.
Whic technology is based on flash memory and is intended to eventually replace conventional hard disk that have moving disc and other mechanisms?
Solid-state drive
Solid-state disks (SSDs) are capable of replacing conventional HDDs, contingent upon cheaper components and higher capacities.
What is the formal capacity of high- density 3 1/2” floppy diskettes?
1.44MB
High-density 3 1/2” floppy diskettes have a formatted capacity of 1.44MB. Double-density 5 1/4” floppies can be formatted to a capacity of 360KB, while double-density floppies support 720KB. The extended-density 3 1/2” floppy diskettes can be formatted to 2.88MB.
Which optical disc format support a data capacity of 25GB?
Single-sided, single-layer Blue ray disc
Blu-ray discs have a single-sided, single-layer capacity of 25GB. The best the other options achieve is no more than roughly 17GB.
Wich of the following best describes the concept of hot-swappable devices?
Power does not need to be turned off before the devices is inserted or removed.
Hot-swappable devices can be removed while the power to the system is still on. Warm-swappable devices need to be stopped in the operating system before being removed. The term has nothing to do with the heat level of the device.
Of the following voltage pairings, which one accurately represents the input and output, respectively, of power supplies and AC adapters?
AC in, DC out
Power supplies and AC adapters use standard wall outlets for an input of AC voltage, which they convert to the DC voltages required by the components they supply power to.
What are the five ouput voltages that have been commonly produced by the PC power supplies over the years?
A PC’s power supply produces +3.3VDC, +5VDC, –5VDC, +12VDC, and –12VDC from a 110VAC input.
Molex connectors are used with PATA hard drives, while Berg connectors are used with floppy drives.
Molex power connectors have been used with larger internal devices since the original PCs hit the market. When the 3 1/2” floppy diskette drives were launched, they used the newer Berg connectors. Europe requires the voltage selector switch be set at the higher setting. SATA drives most often use a specific power connector that is not compatible with the Molex connector used by PATA drives. AT-based motherboards call for P8 and P9 connectors; ATX motherboards have a newer 20- or 24-pin single power connector.
Which of the following is not a consideration when installing an internal storage device?
a) You should match the form factor of the drive or adapt it to an available drive bay or slot.
b) You should secure the drive with at least two screws on one side and preferably two on each side.
c) Due to the high revolutions at which modern hard drives spin, you must secure an external power source because the internal power supplies do not have the capacity.
d) You need to be sure that the routing of the drive’s ribbon cable, if applicable, does not obstruct the engineered flow of air across internal components.
c)Due to the high revolutions at which modern hard drives spin, you must secure an external power source because the internal power supplies do not have the capacity.
Today’s hard drives, regardless of their rpm, have standard internal power connections. Each of the other options are valid concerns when installing an internal drive.
What kind of media is most commonly used when large amounts of data need to be archived on a regular basis?
a) Tape
B)optical disc
c) External hard drive
d)floppy
a)Tape
Although inefficient as an interactive medium, sequential tape-based storage continues to be developed in increasing capacities. Tape remains the best choice for frequently backing up large amounts of data for redundancy and archival purposes.
Which of the following statements regarding floppy drive installation is true?
a) Like a hard drive, the floppy drive requires no external access.
b) Like DVD-ROM drives, floppy drives have a 5 1/4” form factor and must be installed in the larger drive bays.
c) Because it is antiquated technology, floppy disk drives can no longer be purchased new.
d) Although some drives might not clearly key the receptacle for the Berg power connector, you must insert the connector correctly or the drive can be damaged.
d)Although some drives might not clearly key the receptacle for the Berg power connector, you must insert the connector correctly or the drive can be damaged.
Inserting the Berg connector upside down will damage the drive the first time the motor is activated. Floppy drives require front access for floppy disk insertion. Their form factor is only 3.5”, and you can still buy them new. (See the sidebar “Do You Smell Something?” in this chapter.)
Which of the following platter spin rates is not commonly associated with conventional magnetic hard disk drives?
a) 5400 rpm
b) 7200 rpm
c) 10.200 rpm
d) 15,000 rpm
c) 10,200 rpm
The other common spin rates are 10,000 rpm and 12,000 rpm.
Which of the following is not a consideration when upgrading power supplies?
a) You might find that you do not have a matching motherboard connector on your new power supply.
b) You might find that your case has a nonremovable power supply.
c) You might find that your power rating is not adequate on the new power supply.
d) You might find that you do not have enough of the appropriate connectors coming from the power supply for the devices you have installed.
b) You might find that your case has a nonremovable power supply.
Personal computers do not have permanently installed power supplies. Like other electrical and electronic components, power supplies can and do fail on a regular basis. Permanently mounting a power supply to a chassis would be a disservice to the consumer. You should consider the cumulative power needs of your installed components, and you might have to obtain adapters and splitters if you do not have enough or you have the wrong types of connectors coming from the power supply.
What does the red stripe on a ribbon cable indicate?
a) Pin 16
b) Pin 1
c) The manufacturer’s trademark
d) parity
b) Pin 1
The red stripe on the cable indicates pin 1.
What do UltraDMA/66 and higher require?
a) Cable Select configuration
b) An 80-wire cable
c) operating system support
d) That the BIOS be set for UltraDMA instead of DMA
b) 80-wire cable
UltraDMA/66 requires a special ribbon cable with extra wires to cut down on cross-talk. It does not require Cable Select to be in use, and it does not require specific operating system support because it operates at a lower level than the OS. There is no special setting in the BIOS for UltraDMA drives.
On the primary IDE channel, if a single hard disk is attached, its jumper should be set to ________.
a) slave
b) Single if available, other wise Master
c) Master
d) boot
b)Single if available, otherwise Master
If there is a Single setting, it should be used. Otherwise, use Master. Slave is never appropriate for a single drive. There is no such jumper setting as Boot.
Which of the following is a concept that applies only to conventional magnetic hard disk drives and not newer solid-state drives?
a)
d)7200 rpm
Each concept applies to both HDDs and SSDs except for platter spin rates. Revolutions per minute (rpm) measurements refer to drives with moving parts. SSDs have none.
When replacing a power supply, which of the following tends to vary among power supplies and must be chosen properly to support all connected devices?
a) Wattage
b) Voltage
c) Amperage
d) Resistance
a) Wattage
Power supplies are rated in watts. When you purchase a power supply, you should make sure the devices inside the computer do not require more wattage than the chosen power supply can offer. The voltage is fairly standard among power supplies and has nothing to do with the devices connected to the power supply. Amperage and resistance are not selling points for power supplies.
You want to plug a keyboard into the back of a computer. You know that you need to plug the keyboard cable into a PS/2 port. Which style of port is the PS/2?
a) RJ-11
b) DE9
c) DIN 5
d) Mini-DIN 6
d)mini-DIN 6
A PS/2 port is also known as a mini-DIN 6 connector.
What is the maximum speed of USB 2.0 in Mbps?
a) 1.5
b) 12
c) 60
d) 480
d) 480
The USB 2.0 spec provides for a maximum speed of 480 megabits per second (Mbps—not megabytes per second, or MBps).
Which of the following standards are specified by IEEE 1284? (Choose two.)
a) SPP
b) RS-232
c) EPP
d) ECP
e) FireWire
f) USB
c,d
EPP, ECP
Bidirectional parallel ports can both transmit and receive data. EPP and ECP are IEEE 1284 standards that were designed to transfer data at higher speeds in both directions so that devices could return status information to the system. The standard parallel port only transmits data out of the computer. It cannot receive data. FireWire is specified by IEEE 1394. IEEE 1284 does not specify serial protocols, such as RS-232 and USB.
What peripheral port type was originally developed by Apple and is currently regarded as the optimal interface for digital video transfers?
a) dvd
b) USB 2.0
c) IEEE 1394
d) IEEE 1284
c) IEEE 1394
The IEEE 1394 standard provides for greater data transfer speeds, increased power, and the ability to send memory addresses as well as data through a serial port. USB 3.0 proves to threaten more competition in these areas, but USB 2.0 could not compare to the overall performance of IEEE 1394.
What peripheral port type is expandable using a hub, operates at 1.5MBps, and is used to connect various devices (from printers to cameras) to PCs?
a) DVD 1.0
b) USB 1.1
c) IEEE 1394
d) IEEE1284
b) USB 1.1
USB hubs are used to connect multiple peripherals to one computer through a single port. They support data transfer rates as high as 12Mbps, or 1.5MBps (for USB 1.1, which is the option listed here).
Which peripheral port type was designed to transfer data at higher speeds over a D-sub interface?
a) DVD
b) USB
c) IEEE 1394
d) IEEE 1284
d) IEEE 1284
The IEEE 1284 standard specifies that the ECP parallel port use a DMA channel and the buffer be able to transfer data at higher speeds to printers.
The surround sound mode known as 5.1 employs how many speakers when only one is used for each channel?
a) 1
b) 5
c) 6
d) 7
c)6
The description 5.1 refers to six channels of audio. The 5 in the name refers collectively to the single center channel, the right and left front channels, and the right and left rear channels. The 1 in the name refers to the single LFE channel connected to the subwoofer.
Which of the following display interfaces is equivalent to DisplayPort with PCIe added in?
a) Thunderboldt
b) WHUXGA
c) IEEE 1394c
d) HDMI
a) Thunderbolt
Intel and Apple collaborated on Thunderbolt to add PCIe to VESA’s DisplayPort and to make the resulting interface smaller and less expensive to connect.
Which of the following interfaces allows audio to be sent out over the same cabling infrastructure as video?
a) VGA
b) DVI
c) HDMI
d) Compsite
c) HDMI
HDMI is a digital interface and cabling specification that allows digital audio to be carried over the same cable as video.
How do you connect a DVI-A interface on a peripheral to a DVI-D interface on the computer?
a) With a DVI-I cable
b) With a cable that is terminated on one end with a DVI-A connector and on the other end with a DVI-D connector
c) You wouldn’t interconnect those two interfaces
d) With a standard DVI cable
c) You wouldn’t interconnect those two interfaces
Such a connection should not be made. DVI-I cables act like universal cables; they can connect two DVI-A interfaces or two DVI-D interfaces with adapters. Natively, they are used to connect two DVI-I interfaces, both of which are configured as either analog or digital. They are unable to convert the analog signal to a digital one, however. Analog and digital DVI interfaces are too disparate to interconnect.
What kind of device uses unique physical traits of the user to authenticate their access to a secure system or location?
a) Barcode reader
b) Bitometric device
c) Keyboard
d) touchscreen
b) Biometric device
Biometric input devices scan a physical trait of the user, such as voice, fingerprint, and retina, for authentication purposes when the user attempts to access computer systems and other property.
Why might you use a KVM switch?
a) You have multiple Ethernet devices that need to communicate with one another.
b) You need to be able to switch the voltage supplied to a particular device.
c) You have a printer that is not attached to the network but you want multiple computers to be able to print to it.
d) You have more than one server and don’t want to buy certain external peripherals separately for each.
d)You have more than one server and don’t want to buy certain external peripherals separately for each.
KVM switches are ideal when you have multiple computers situated near one another and do not want to commit the extra desk space to each computer having its own keyboard, mouse, and monitor.
Which type of input device employs roughly the same connector as the original AT keyboard?
a) Barcode reader
b) PS/2 keyboard
c) MIDI
d) Touchscreen
c)MIDI
MIDI devices use a 5-pin DIN connector similar to the one used with the original AT keyboard.
What can you use to convert video to a format that can be uploaded to the Internet, among other things?
a) a barcode reader
b) A video capture card
c) a TV turner card
d) A MIDI device
b) A video capture card
A video capture card is used to convert raw video input to a format that can be shared electronically. Although many TV tuner cards provide this functionality, it is their video-capture component that gives them this capability. Any adapter that is strictly a TV tuner cannot capture video.
Which of the following is not an example of a standard peripheral input-device connector?
a) 1/8” jack
b) Mini- DIN
c) D- Subminiature
d) USB
a) 1/8” jack
Multimedia input devices, not standard input devices, use 1/8” jacks. Standard input devices include human interface devices, such as keyboards and mice. The other three options can be used for such devices.
Which category of adapters includes NICs?
a) Multimedia
b) I/O
c) communication
d) video
c)communication
Network interface cards are considered to be a form of communications adapter.
What category of adapter would you need to install to equip a system with one or more USB ports?
a) Multimedia
b) I/O
c) Communication
d) video
b) I/O
Interfaces, such as USB ports, are considered input/output ports. If you have to add USB capability to a computer, an I/O adapter with USB ports on it would meet the need.
What type of adapter has an RJ-11 jack built in?
a) modem
b) video
c) sound
d) NIC
a) modem
Modems have RJ-11 jacks for interface to the Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN). The modular jacks that Ethernet NICs have are known as RJ-45 jacks.
What type of pointing device features a ball and buttons on the top and a flat, steady surface on the bottom?
a) mouse
b) touchpad
c) trackball
d) trackpad
c) track ball
A trackball is a sort of stationary mouse that has the ball for movement detection on the top of the device along with the keys. The ball is actuated by the thumb or fingers, not by moving the device along a flat surface or mouse pad. Trackballs are ideal where desk space is limited. There is no such thing as a trackpad.
VGA-based video technologies use what type of signal between the adapter and monitor?
a) Digital
b) Analog
c) Compressed
d) Composite
b) analog
VGA signals are analog, uncompressed, component signals that carry all the video information for all three components of the original RGB signal.
Which of the following would be the best choice as a personal display technology if a user wants to save desk space and not have to deal with interference from nearby speakers?
a) CRT
b) HDMI
c) LCD
d) Projector
c)LCD
LCDs do not have electron guns that are aimed by magnets as CRTs do. This difference makes LCDs more compatible with nearby speaker magnets. Additionally, the cathode ray tube for which CRT monitors are named is a rather bulky component, requiring more desk space to accommodate the CRT’s cabinet. Projectors are not common personal display devices; they are used more in group environments. HDMI is a standard for connecting display devices, not a type of display device.
An associate is trying to explain why a particular model of CRT monitor displays images in such high quality but is unable to recall a specific term. The associate mentions that each phosphor is on average only 0.25mm away from the nearest phosphor of the same color. What is the associate trying to describe?
a) Resolution
b) Dot pitch
c) Refresh rate
d) The number of dots per inch
b) Dot pitch
The associate is trying to think of the term dot pitch. Essentially, dot pitch is the height of a dot-phosphor trio added to the distance between the next dot trio in the same direction. It works out to be the distance from any point on one dot to the same point on the next dot of the same color. The smaller this number, the better the display quality. The number of dots per inch is a similar concept but inversely proportional and not measured in fractions of a millimeter. Resolution is a software concept; dot phosphors are hardware related. The refresh rate has nothing to do with how close the
Which of the following is true regarding a monitor’s refresh rate?
a) The concept of refresh rate has no meaning with regard to LCDs.
b) LCDs are preferred to CRTs because they can display a larger range of resolutions.
c) LCDs tend not to be as clear as CRTs.
d) LCDs require more power than CRTs.
d)As you lower the resolution, the maximum refresh rate allowed tends to increase.
The maximum allowable refresh rate does tend to be affected by the resolution you choose in the operating system. The refresh rate is most often expressed in cycles per second (Hz), not millions of cycles per second (MHz). You must usually select the refresh rate you want from the display settings dialog boxes, not through the monitor’s built-in menu system, although the monitor’s system can often tell you which refresh rate you’re using. Finally, both the monitor and adapter must agree on the refresh rate you select. If either device does not support a particular refresh rate, such a rate cannot be used.
If you are unable to display a given resolution on a monitor, which of the following might explain why?
a) The graphics adapter does not have enough memory installed.
b) The video display unit does not have enough memory installed.
c) You are using a CRT with a single fixed resolution.
d) You have the refresh rate set too high.
a) The graphic adapter does not have enough memory installed.
The amount of memory installed on a graphics adapter is directly related to how many pixels can be displayed at one time and how many colors the pixels can be set to. Monitors don’t have memory installed in them. LCDs, not CRTs, have a single, fixed resolution called the native resolution. By default, you might be limited to a particular refresh rate because the resolution is too high, but the refresh rate is automatically adjusted down, if necessary, when you select a resolution.
Which video technology has a resolution of 1280 x 1024?
a) SVGA
b) SXGA
c) WSXGA
d) UXGA
b)SXGA
SXGA has a resolution of 1280 x 1024. Consult Table 4.1 for the resolutions that characterize other technologies.
What does a Q in video resolution names, such as QXGA, refer to?
a) Both the horizontal and vertical components of the resolution have been quadrupled.
b) The resolution is cut to one-fourth.
c) The technology is faster.
d) Both the horizontal and vertical components of the resolution have been doubled.
d)Both the horizontal and vertical components of the resolution have been doubled.
Although the Q stands for quad, the pixel count for each axis is only doubled, resulting in four times as many total pixels.
What is contrast ratio?
a) Contrast ratio is a selling point for LCDs. Higher contrast ratios mean darker blacks and brighter whites. The measure of luminance between adjacent pixels is known as contrast, not contrast ratio.
b) A term that was used with CRTs but has no meaning with LCDs
c) The ratio of luminance between two adjacent pixels
d) Something that can be corrected through degaussing
a)The ratio of luminance between the darkest and lightest colors that can be displayed
Contrast ratio is a selling point for LCDs. Higher contrast ratios mean darker blacks and brighter whites. The measure of luminance between adjacent pixels is known as contrast, not contrast ratio.
Which of the following display types physically creates the image displayed in a manner most similar to OLED displays?
a) CRT
b) LED
c) LCD
d) Plasma
d) plasma
Both OLED and plasma displays use electrodes to excite the material in a sealed chamber to produce light. Each in its own way uses that light to create red, green, or blue light within individual subpixels. Plasma is more akin to CRT in that they both use chemical phosphors to create the red, green, and blue hues. In contrast to the way CRTs and PDPs produce color, OLEDs natively produce these colors of light without the use of filters or phosphors.
When approaching an older LCD panel from the side, you don’t realize there is actually an image displayed on it until you are almost in front of it. Which two options might explain why you could not detect the image from the side? (Choose two.)
a) Older LCDs were equipped with a motion sensor.
b) Multiple monitors are in use, and the LCD is the secondary monitor, resulting in its poor oblique visibility.
c) The user has a privacy filter in place.
d) The monitor employs active-matrix pixel addressing.
e) It is a passive-matrix LCD panel.
c) The user has a privacy filter in place.
e) It is a passive-matrix LCD panel.
Older LCD panels might have employed a passive-matrix addressing for their pixels, resulting in a poorer viewing angle than that created by active-matrix LCD panels. Additionally, privacy filters intentionally limit the angle of screen visibility by changing the light’s polarization when viewed from the side. Antiglare filters might unintentionally do the same thing.
On which properties tab do you select the refresh rate to use between the graphics adapter and monitor in Windows Vista?
a) Adapter
b) Monitor
c) Advanced
d) Display Settings
b Monitor
Although it’s true that you must start with the Display Settings dialog box, which ironically shows a single tab labeled Monitor, and that you subsequently click the Advanced Settings button, it’s on the Monitor properties tab thereafter that you select the refresh rate. The Adapter tab in those same properties pages has no selection for refresh rate.
After a presentation using a video projector, when in a hurry to pack everything up and head to the airport, which of the following should you avoid doing immediately?
a) Unplugging the projector’s power cable
b) Unplugging the projector’s video cable from your laptop
c) Powering down the projector
d) Turning off your laptop
a)Unplugging the projector’s power cable
Unplugging the power to the projector before the projector’s fan has had the opportunity to cool the unit and stop running on its own can lead to expensive repairs on the projector or to the cost of replacing the projector outright.
What might cause your display to appear in a resolution of 640 x 480
a) You have your resolution set to SVGA.
b) You added memory to your graphics adapter but have not informed the BIOS of the new memory.
c) You have your resolution set to XGA.
d) You have booted XP into Safe Mode.
d)You have booted XP into Safe Mode.
Safe Mode in XP disables as many nonessential drivers and services as possible. One of the nonessential drivers it disables is the driver for the graphics adapter. Windows uses its standard VGA driver to control the graphics adapter while you are in Safe Mode. Another reason for defaulting back to standard VGA is that you might have a corrupt or incorrect driver for your adapter.
Which of the following results can occur with improper display settings?
a) The computer spontaneously reboots.
b) The graphics adapter automatically chooses to use the highest supported resolution.
c) You might have to scroll to see parts of the Desktop.
d) The mouse cursor changes or permanently disappears.
c)You might have to scroll to see parts of the Desktop.
If your monitor allows you to change the resolution, it might not actually allow you to change the resolution. As confusing as that sounds, your monitor might maintain its optimal hardware resolution, such as an LCD’s native resolution, and force you to scroll to see any pixels created by the chosen software resolution that it cannot fit on the hardware screen at that particular moment.
What is the single, fixed resolution of an LCD called?
a) Native resolution
b) Default resolution
c) Refresh rate
d) Burned-in resolution
a)Native resolution
An LCD’s native resolution is the single, fixed resolution that provides optimal clarity.
Which of the following is it possible to do with multimonitor settings?
a) Connect multiple monitors to your computer only by using a graphics adapter with two video interfaces.
b) Cause two different Desktops to merge onto the same monitor.
c) Connect two laptops together so they display the same Desktop.
d) Display different parts of your Desktop on different monitors.
d) Display different parts of your Desktop on different monitors.
The multimonitor feature allows two monitors to display exactly the same thing (clone) or to extend your Desktop onto the second monitor. There is no need to use one adapter to achieve this result. In fact, the two adapters don’t even have to use the same expansion-bus architecture. The two cards must, however, use the same graphics-adapter driver.
Which of the following types of LCD has the best performance characteristics?
a) Active matrix
b) Passive matrix
c) Dual matrix
d) Dual scan
a)Active matrix
Active matrix technology is superior to passive matrix. Dual scan is merely an enhanced form of passive matrix but is not on par with active matrix. Dual matrix isn’t an LCD type.
Which of the following resolutions is an example of a 16:10 aspect ratio?
a) 1280 x 1024
b) 1920 x 1200
c) 800 x 600
d) 2048 x 1536
b)1920 x 1200
Dividing 16 by 10 produces a value of 1.6. Dividing the first number of a 16:10 resolution by the second number always results in 1.6. Resolutions with a 4:3 aspect ratio produce the value 1.333, while 5:4 resolutions such as 1280 x 1024 produce the value 1.25.
Where can you find the best degaussing tool for modern CRT monitors?
a) At a computer specialty shop
b) At a consumer electronics store
c) Built into the monitor
d) As a freeware download
c)Built into the monitor
The built-in degaussing tool of the latest CRT monitors is designed to work with the monitor in which it is found. External degaussing tools, while effective, can be a little hard on the delicate inner workings of the CRT. Software alone cannot degauss a CRT monitor.
What is the unit of measure used by manufacturers of projectors to indicate the brightness of their product?
a) Lux
b) Lumens
c) Watts
d) Candelas
b) Lumens
A lumen is a unit of measure for the total amount of visible light that the projector gives off, based solely on what the human eye can perceive.
Which of the following is not a requirement for a graphic design workstation?
a) Fast hard
b) Maximum RAM
c) Powerful CPU
d) High-end video
a) Fast hard drive
Graphics design and CAD/CAM design workstations do not require a fast hard drive because the artist works with static images that do not stream from the drive. However, RAM in which to hold the highly detailed, sometimes 3D artwork before saving, a powerful processor for implementing complex algorithms on a small amount of information during rendering, and high-end video for assisting in the rendering and display of the images are necessary.
Which of the following is required when constructing an A/V editing workstation?
a) Gigabit NIC
b) Power processor
c) Maximum RAM
d) Fast hard drive
d) Fast hard drive
A/V editing workstations require specialized audio and video cards and large and fast hard drives and benefit from dual monitors. A fast NIC, extra RAM, and a faster than normal processor do not support the requirements of A/V editors.
Why do virtualization workstations require as many CPU cores as possible?
a) Each virtual machine has one or more cores installed directly in it.
b) Each virtual machine makes use of actual CPU resources for processing instructions and data.
c) Fault tolerance dictates that if one CPU core fails, there should be one or more in line to take its place.
d) Because each guest operating system runs in its own space, multiple cores are required to store the collective data.
b)Each virtual machine makes use of actual CPU resources for processing instructions and data.
Virtual machines do not imply virtual processing. The data storage, processing cycles, and RAM usage are all real. The separate hard drive and chassis for each operating system are virtual. The other answers all have at least one fundamental problem with their logic. CPU cores are not installed in virtual machines but in CPU packages within physical machines. CPU cores do not take over for each other. There is no fault tolerance among them. Storing data is the job of RAM, which should also be maximized for virtualization workstations.
Why is high-end cooling a requirement for gaming PCs?
a) Gaming PCs tend to overclock their CPUs and run multiple high-performance GPUs.
b) Gaming controllers have components for tactile realism that generate copious amounts of heat.
c) Digital sound cards generate more heat than analog sound cards.
d) Placing that many hard drives in such a small space generates too much heat.
a)Gaming PCs tend to overclock their CPUs and run multiple high-performance GPUs.
The processors found in a gaming PC are many, and the CPU is often overclocked. Such a configuration generates too much heat for conventional cooling to dissipate before the system is damaged. These machines don’t have unusual hard-drive requirements. The cooling has no effect on external controllers, and sound cards don’t generate much heat, but analog would certainly generate more than digital.
Which of the following is not a common requirement of a home theater PC?
a) Surround sound
b) HDMI
c) Mirco-ATX case
d) TV turner
c)Micro-ATX case
Home theater PCs are based on the mini-ITX motherboard and have their own form factor, HTPC, a more compact form factor than chassis made for micro-ATX boards.
Which type of system simply needs to run standard versions of Windows and desktop applications?
a) Thin Client
b) Thick Client
c) Home Server PC
d) Virtualization workstation
b) Thick Client
Thick clients are standard desktop PCs. They stand in contrast to systems with specialized requirements, such as the remaining options.
Which of the following descriptions most closely matches that of a thin client?
a) A high-resolution monitor, keyboard, and mouse
b) A computer with a low-profile case
c) A laptop
d) A dumb terminal with a NIC
d) A dumb terminal with a NIC
Although not all thin clients are devoid of local processing capability, some are. High-resolution graphics are not a requirement of thin clients, but even such systems require a system unit with a NIC.
Why should you equip a home server PC with a gigabit NIC?
a) All systems, including the server, should communicate at the same speed.
b) The server should not be allowed to communicate at the higher speeds of the rest of the network or it will be overused.
c) The server should not be allowed to communicate at the higher speeds of the rest of the network or it will be overused.’
d) The operating system home servers run is not compatible with Fast Ethernet.
c)The server should exceed the communication speed of the clients to avoid a bottleneck.
Optimally, the server should communicate across a link that is the aggregate of all client links, but at the least, the server’s link should be a faster one to alleviate the potential bottleneck when all clients try to access the server simultaneously.
Which of the following reasons justifies having a powerful processor in a CAD/CAM workstation?
a) Only powerful processors can stream graphical information efficiently.
b) Manufacturing equipment is generally faster than design equipment, which needs faster processors to keep up.
c) Graphics adapters used in CAD/CAM do not have their own processors, so the CPU performs this job as well.
d) The algorithms used in rendering graphics can be processor intensive.
d)The algorithms used in rendering graphics can be processor intensive.
Quite simply, the rendering of 2D and 3D graphics makes use of complex algorithms that need all the processing power they can get to remain usable. These stations deal with static images, not streaming video. Manufacturing equipment is generally slower than computers used for the design phase. These workstations call for high-end video, which includes graphics adapters with GPUs often more powerful than the system’s CPU.
Why do A/V editing workstations benefit from more than one monitor?
a) Their software often has enough controls across their width that one monitor seems cramped.
b) While one graphics adapter works on one rendering project, the other can simply display a normal desktop.
c) Once the editing is complete, the second monitor is used to present the results to others on the team.
d) Additional monitors are used for remote collaboration among other editors.
a)Their software often has enough controls across their width that one monitor seems cramped.
Editors of this type of media have numerous controls and timelines to keep track of. These constructs often lie along the bottom of the application and run horizontally. Subsequent monitors allow the editor to spread out without shrinking the view excessively.
Which of the following is required by a virtualization workstation?
a) Multiple host operating systems
b) Maximum RAM allowed
c) File sharing services
d) Multiple NICs
b)Maximum RAM allowed
Maximum RAM and CPU cores are the primary requirements for such systems. Although there are multiple guest operating systems, generally there is but one host to those guests. File sharing may be a service the administrator decides to offer, and multiple NICs might prove advantageous with virtual machines that are popular among the clients, but these workstations do not require either.
All of the following are recommended for gaming PCs except ___________________ .
a) High-end cooling
b) A RAID array
c) High-end video
d) Better sound card
b)A RAID array
Gaming PCs are not known for requiring fault tolerance or data persistence. RAID arrays, therefore, are generally not included. The other components are a benefit for gaming PCs, however.
Which of the following system types does not require a CPU enhancement of any sort?
a) A/V editing workstation
b) Gaming PC
c) Graphic design workstation
d) Virtualization workstation
a) A/V editing workstation
A/V editing workstations require video enhancements and a hard drive capable of storing a large quantity of data and accessing it quickly. The other system types require faster or more plentiful processors.
Which of the following is the recommended video output technology for home theater PCs?
a) DVI
b) WUXGA
c) HDMI
d) YCbCr
c) HDMI
Because of its exceptional capabilities of digital video and audio output as well as its potential for support of future standards, HDMI is the home-theater video output technology of choice. Neither DVI nor component (YCbCr and YPbPr) can make the same claims. WUXGA is a resolution of 1920x1200 and not a video output technology.
Which of the following is a common feature of a standard thick client?
a) Has enhanced video capabilities
b) Has a high-performance hard drive
c) Has as much RAM installed as is possible
d) Can run a full version of Windows
d)Can run a full version of Windows
These standard systems do not have any special requirements, just that they can run Windows and desktop applications.
In a thin client configuration, if the operating system is not resident on the client, where is it normally found?
a) On a DVD inserted at bootup
b) On a USB flash drive
c) On the server for session-by-session client use
d) Embedded in a flash module on the motherboard
c)On the server for session-by-session client use
Clients request services of servers. Thin clients can request software services from their servers, whether in the form of running the software and passing the results to the client or passing the code of the software to the client to be executed by its processor and kept only in RAM.
Which of the following is not a common requirement in a home server PC?
a) File and print sharing
b) File and print sharing
c) Gigabit NIC
d) Media streaming
b) Maximum RAM
Additional RAM in the home server PC offers no advantage for the performance of the server past a certain point. The tasks the server is asked to perform do not require high performance.
All of the following systems benefit from increased RAM except ___________________ . (Choose two.)
a) Home theater PC
b) Virtualization workstation
c) Graphic design workstation
d) Gaming PC
a) Home theater PC
d) Gaming PC
Virtualization and graphic design workstations benefit from as much RAM as can be installed. Home theater PCs and gaming PCs do not require a large amount of temporary storage of instructions and data. They are more about the rapid movement of graphical data toward an output device.
Which of the following uses would not require a custom configuration for a PC?
a) A computer running Windows 7 Ultimate with 1TB of data and 250GB of applications installed
b) A computer running WHS 2011
c) A design computer used to drive a lathe that makes automotive rims
d) A computer to replace a BD player and DVR
a)A computer running Windows 7 Ultimate with 1TB of data and 250GB of applications installed
The Windows 7 computer can be built as a normal system with a 2TB or 3TB drive. WHS 2011 needs a home server PC. The rims are crafted by a type of CAD/CAM workstation capable of CNC. A home theater PC is an ideal choice to take the place of both the BD player and DVR.
Which of the following system types does not benefit from video enhancements?
a) CAD/CAM design workstation
b) Home server PC
c) A/V editing workstation
d) Home theater PC
c)Home server PC
The clients of the home server PC that use the server for streaming video content might benefit from enhanced video, but the server will not.
____________________ is immune to electromagnetic or radio-frequency interference.
a) Twisted-pair cabling
b) CSMA/CD
c) Broadband coaxial cabling
d) Fiber-optic cabling
d)Fiber-optic cabling
Companies that want to ensure the safety and integrity of their data should use fiber-optic cable because it cannot be affected by electromagnetic or radio-frequency interference. Even though some copper cables have shielding, they are not immune to EMI or RFI. This eliminates twisted-pair and coaxial. CSMA/CD is an access method, not a cable type.
Which IEEE 802 standard defines a bus topology using coaxial baseband cable and is able to transmit at 10Mbps?
a) 802.1
b) 802.2
c) 802.3
d) 802.5
c) 802.3
The IEEE 802.3 standard originally specified the use of a bus topology with coaxial baseband cable and can transmit data up to 10Mbps.
Which OSI layer signals “all clear” by making sure the data segments are error free?
a) Application layer
b) Session layer
c) Transport layer
d) Network layer
c) Transport layer
It is the responsibility of the Transport layer to signal an “all clear” by making sure the data segments are error free. It also controls the data flow and troubleshoots any problems with transmitting or receiving data frames.
___________________ is the type of media access method used by NICs that listen to or sense the cable to check for traffic and send only when they hear that no one else is transmitting.
a) Token passing
b) CSMA/CD
c) CSMA/CA
d) Demand priority
b)CSMA/CD
Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection (CSMA/CD) specifies that the NIC pause before transmitting a packet to ensure that the line is not being used. If no activity is detected, then it transmits the packet. If activity is detected, it waits until it is clear. In the case of two NICs transmitting at the same time (a collision), both NICs pause to detect and then retransmit the data.
What model is used to provide a common way to describe network protocols?
a) OSI
b) ISO
c) IEEE
d) CSMA/CD
a) OSI
The Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model is used to describe how network protocols should function. The OSI model was designed by the International Organization for Standardization (ISO).
A physical star topology consists of several workstations that branch off a central device called a ____________________ .
a) NIC
b) Bridge
c) Router
d) HUB
d) HUB
At the center of a star topology is a hub or a switch. A NIC is a network card, which each computer must have to be on the network. Bridges and routers are higher-level connectivity devices that connect network segments or networks together.
Of all network cabling options, ___________________ offers the longest possible segment length.
a) Unshielded twisted-pair
b) Coaxial
c) Fiber-optic
d) Shielded twisted-pair
c) Fiber optic
Fiber-optic cable can span distances of several kilometers because it has much lower attenuation, crosstalk, and interference in comparison to copper cables.
What devices transfer packets across multiple networks and use tables to store network addresses to determine the best destination?
a) Router
b) Bridges
c) Hubs
d) Switches
a) routers
Routers are designed to route (transfer) packets across networks. They are able to do this routing, and determine the best path to take, based on internal routing tables they maintain.
In which network design do users access resources from other workstations rather than from a central location?
a) Client-server
b) Star
c) Ring
d) Peer-to-peer
d) peer-to-peer
A peer-to-peer network has no servers, so all of the resources are shared from the various workstations on which they reside. This is the opposite of a client-server network, in which the majority of resources are located on servers that are dedicated to responding to client requests.
Which of the following wireless communication standards is often described in terms of a wireless personal area network?
a) Bluetooth
b) Infrared
c) Cellular
d) Ethernet
a) bluetooth
Bluetooth networks are often called wireless personal area networks (WPANs).
Which of the following statements are not associated with a star network? (Choose all that apply.)
a) A single cable break can cause complete network disruption.
b) All devices connect to a central device.
c) It uses a single backbone computer to connect all network devices.
d) It uses a dual-ring configuration.
a) A single cable break can cause complete network disruption.
c) All devices connect to a central device.
d) It uses a dual-ring configuration.
In a star network, all systems are connected using a central device such as a hub or a switch. The network is not disrupted for other users when more systems are added or removed. The star network design is used with today’s UTP-based networks.
In a star network, all systems are connected using a central device such as a hub or a switch. The network is not disrupted for other users when more systems are added or removed. The star network design is used with today’s UTP-based networks.
If you are going to run a network cable in the space above the drop ceiling in your office, which type of cable should you use?
a) Plenum
b) PVC
c) Coaxial
d) Fiber-optic
a)Plenum
For areas where a cable must be fire retardant, such as in a drop ceiling, you must run plenum-grade cable. Plenum refers to the coating on the sleeve of the cable, not the media (copper or fiber) within the cable itself. PVC is the other type of coating typically found on network cables, but it produces poisonous gas when burned.
Which of the following connector types is an MFF connector?
a) BNC
b) ST
c) SC
d) LC
d) LC
The local connector (LC) is a mini form factor (MFF) fiber-optic connector developed by Lucent Technologies. If it helps, think of LC as “Little Connector.”
The local connector (LC) is a mini form factor (MFF) fiber-optic connector developed by Lucent Technologies. If it helps, think of LC as “Little Connector.”
a) Toner probe
b) Cable tester
c) Multimeter
d) Lookback plug
a) toner probe
A toner probe will allow you to check the physical path of a cable through something like a wall. Cable testers will test to see if the cable works. Multimeters can test voltage and see if a cable is operational as well. Loopback plugs are used to test network adapters.
A toner probe will allow you to check the physical path of a cable through something like a wall. Cable testers will test to see if the cable works. Multimeters can test voltage and see if a cable is operational as well. Loopback plugs are used to test network adapters.
a) 6
b) 7
c) 21
d) 42
c)21
In a mesh network, the number of connections is determined by the formula n(n-1)/2. With seven computers, that means 21 connections.
Which tool is used by technicians to connect an RJ-45 connector to the end of a cable?
a) Punch-down tool
b) Crimper
c) Cable tester
d) Looopback plug
b) Crimper
A crimper can attach connectors to the end of a network cable. A punch-down tool will attach a cable to a wiring frame such as a 110 block. Cable testers will see if the cable works properly after you’ve created it. A loopback plug is for testing network cards.
What type of device will block unwanted traffic from your network using a set of rules called an ACL?
a) Router
b) Firewall
c) Internet appliance
d) NAS
b) Firewall
The job of a firewall is to block unwanted traffic. Firewalls do this by using a list of rules called an access control list (ACL). Routers connect networks to each other. Internet appliances give the user Internet access. A network attached storage (NAS) device is like a dedicated file server.
What type of coaxial cable is recommended for digital television cable signals?
a) RG-6
b) RG-8
c) RG-58
d) RG-59
a) RG-6
The two RG standards used for cable television are RG-6 and RG-59. Of the two, RG-6 is better and can handle digital signals. RG-59 is for analog signals only. RG-8 is thicknet coax, and RG-58 is thinnet coax.
Which of the following devices work at Layer 2 of the OSI model? (Choose two.)
a) HUB
b) Router
c) Bridge
d) Switch
c) Bridge
d) Switch
Bridges and switches are Layer 2 devices. Hubs work at Layer 1, and routers work at Layer 3. Note that some switches are called multilayer switches and will work at Layer 3 as well.
Transmitting at 10Gbps, how far can signals on an MMF cable travel?
a) 100 meters
b) 550 metes
c) 1kilometer
d) 40 kilometers
b) 550 meters
Multimode fiber (MMF) can transmit up to 550 meters, depending on the Ethernet specification. Other standards using MMF can transmit only up to 300 meters. If you need to transmit up to 40 kilometers, you will need to use single-mode fiber (SMF).
You have just set up a network that will use the TCP/IP protocol, and you want client computers to automatically obtain IP configuration information. Which type of server do you need for this?
a) DNS
b) DHCP
c) Domain controller
d) IP configuration server
b)DHCP
A Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server provides IP configuration information to hosts when they join the network. A Domain Name System (DNS) server resolves hostnames to IP addresses. A domain controller may provide login authentication, but it does not provide IP configuration information. There is no IP configuration server.
You have a computer with the IP address 171.226.18.1. What class is this address?
a) Class A
b) Class B
c) Class C
d) Not a valid IP address
b) Class B
Class A addresses have a first octet between 1 and 126, Class B between 128 and 191, and class C between 192 and 223. With a first octet of 171, this is a Class B address.
Which TCP/IP protocol uses port 80?
a) HTTP
b) HTTPS
c) Telnet
d) POP3
a) HTTP
HTTP uses port 80. HTTPS uses 443, Telnet 23, and POP3 110.
What is the maximum number of IPv6 addresses that can be assigned to one IPv6 interface?
a) One ( unicast)
b) Two ( unicast and anycast)
c) Three (unicast,anycast,and (multicast)
d) None of the above
d) none of the above
An IPv6 interface is not limited in the number of addresses it can be assigned, although there could be limitations based upon practicality.
Which of the following are valid examples of IPv6 addresses? (Choose three.)
a) 2001:0db8:3c4d:0012:0000:0000:1234:56ab
b) ::ffff:c0a8:173
c) 2001:db8:3c4d:12::1234:56ab
d) 2001::1ab4::5468
a) 2001:0db8:3c4d:0012:0000:0000:1234:56ab
b) ::ffff:c0a8:173
c) 2001:db8:3c4d:12::1234:56ab
An IPv6 address contains 128 bits, written in eight 16-bit fields represented by four hexadecimal digits. Option A contains all eight fields expressed in full. Option B is an IPv4 address expressed in IPv6 form. Option C is the same address as option A but written in accepted shorthand. Option D is not valid because the double colons (::) can be used only once within an address.
Which of the following IP addresses would not be valid for a DNS server on the Internet?
a) 10.25.11.33
b) 18.33.66.254
c) 155.11863.11
d) 192.186.12.2
a) 10.25.11.33
DNS servers resolve hostnames to IP addresses. On the Internet, a DNS server needs to have a public IP address. The address 10.25.11.33 is in a private address space, so that address would not be valid for a DNS server on the Internet.
The workstations on your network are configured to use a DHCP server. One of the workstations can’t communicate with other computers. Its IP address is 169.254.1.18. What could be the problem?
a) The subnet mask is wrong.
b) It has a private IP address.
c) The default gateway is wrong.
d) It can’t reach the DHCP server.
d)It can’t reach the DHCP server.
The address assigned to the computer is an APIPA address. Microsoft client computers (and others) will configure themselves with an address in this range if they are unable to reach a DHCP server.
Which of the following protocols is responsible for sending email?
a) IMAP4
b) POP3
c) SMTP
d) SNMP
c) SMTP
Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) is responsible for sending email. IMAP4 and POP3 both receive email. SNMP is a network management protocol.
What port does the RDP protocol work on?
a) 53
b) 143
c) 389
d) 3389
d) 3389
Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) works on port 3389. DNS works on port 53, IMAP4 works on 143, and LDAP works on 389.
Which two TCP/IP protocols work at the Host-to-Host layer of the DOD model? (Choose two.)
a) IP
b) ARP
c) TCP
d) UDP
c) TCP
d) UDP
The two protocols that work at the Host-to-Host layer are TCP and UDP. IP and ARP both work at the Internet layer.
What are two advantages that TCP has over UDP? (Choose two.)
a) Acknowledged delivery
b) Faster delivery
c) Lower overhead
d) Virtual circuits
a) Acknowledge delivery
d) Virtual circuits
TCP is a connection-oriented protocol that establishes virtual circuits and acknowledges delivery of packets. Because of these features, it has higher overhead than UDP and is a little slower.
Your friend is concerned about the security of making an online purchase. What should you tell him to look for in the address bar of the web browser?
a) HTTP
b) HTTPS
c) SSH
d) SFTP
b) HTTPS
The HTTP protocol is inherently unsecure, but the HTTPS protocol is secure. (SSH and SFTP are secure as well, but they are not protocols used to connect to websites.)
You are manually configuring a TCP/IP host. Another administrator gives you the router’s IP address. What is the TCP/IP term for this?
a) Default gateway
b) Subnet mask
c) DNS server
d) DHCP Server
a) default gateway
The router is your doorway out into other networks and is known in TCP/IP terms as the default gateway. Without this configuration option, you will not be able to get to external networks.
Your network is running IPv4. Which of the configuration options are mandatory for your host to communicate on the network? (Choose two.)
a) IP address
b) Subnet mast
c) Default gateway
d) DNS server address
a) IP address
b) Subnet mask
The only mandatory IPv4 configuration items are an IP address and a subnet mask. If you are not connecting to another network, you do not need a default gateway. DNS servers resolve hostnames to IP addresses but they are not mandatory.
Which of the following protocols is used for secure delivery of email?
a) SMTP
b) SNMP
c) POP3
d) IMAP4
d) IMAP4
IMAP4 and POP3 are the two protocols that are used for email delivery. Of the two, only IMAP4 provides security features. SMTP sends email. SNMP is a network management protocol.
Which protocol was developed to be a secure alternative to Telnet?
a) SMB
b) SSH
c) SNMP
d) SFTP
b) SSH
The Secure Shell (SSH) was developed as a secure alternative to Telnet. SMB is Server Message Block, which is a network file system. SNMP is for network management. SFTP is designed for secure file downloads. It’s a secure analogy to FTP, not a replacement for Telnet.
Which of the following protocols uses TCP port 23?
a) Telnet
b) SSH
c) FTP
d) DNS
a) Telnet
Telnet uses port 23. SSH uses port 22. FTP uses ports 21 and 20. DNS uses port 53.
Which of the following is an IPv6 broadcast address?
a) ::1
b) FE80::
c) FF00::
d) ::FFFF
e) None of the above
e) None of the above
IPv6 does not have broadcasts. IPv6 does have multicasts, which are a bit like targeted broadcasts. FF00:: is the first part of a multicast address.
You are setting up a small network that will not connect to the Internet. You want computers to be able to locate each other by using hostnames. What service will do this?
a) DNS
b) DHCP
c) FTP
d) APIPA
a) DNS
DNS is typically known as a name resolver on the Internet, but it will work on private networks as well. DNS resolves hostnames to IP addresses. DHCP automatically configures clients with IP address information. FTP is for file downloads. APIPA is a process used to automatically assign clients a private IP address when they can’t reach the DHCP server.
Which of the following protocols is responsible for resolving IP addresses to hardware addresses?
a) DNS
b) DHCP
c) ARP
d) RARP
c) ARP
The Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) resolves IP addresses to hardware (MAC) addresses. RARP does the reverse—it resolves MAC addresses to IP addresses. DNS resolves hostnames to IP addresses. DHCP automatically configures TCP/IP clients.
Which of the following wireless IEEE standards operate on the 2.4GHz radio frequency and are directly compatible with each other? (Choose two.)
a) 802.11a
b) 802.11b
c) 802.11d
d) 802.11g
b) 802.11 b
d) 802.11 g
Both 802.11b and 802.11g operate in the 2.4GHz range and use similar transmission standards. Many devices on the market are listed as 802.11b/g, meaning they will work with either system. Alternatively, 802.11a operates in the 5GHz range. Finally, 802.11d is not a commonly implemented standard.
What is the primary function of the SSID?
a) Secure communication between a web server and browser
b) Secure communication between a server and remote host
c) A type of password used to help secure a wireless connection
d) A type of password used to secure an Ethernet 802.3 connection
c) A type of password used to help secure a wireless connection
A service-set identifier (SSID) is the unique name given to the wireless network. All hardware that is to participate on the network must be configured to use the same SSID. Essentially, it is the network name. When you are using Windows to connect to a wireless network, all available wireless networks will be listed by their SSID.
Which two of the following are standards for cellular communications?
a) GSM
b) SIG
c) CDMA
d) CCFL
a) GSM
c) CDMA
The Global System for Mobile Communications (GSM) and Code Division Multiple Access (CDMA) are cellular standards. A SIG is a special interest group, and cold cathode fluorescent lamp (CCFL) is a backlight on a laptop.
What is the most secure wireless encryption standard for 802.11 networks?
a) WEP
b) WPA
c) WPA2
d) SAFER+
c) WPA2
WEP was the original encryption standard developed for WiFi networks, but it is easily hacked. WPA is an upgrade, but WPA2 is more secure and incorporates the entire 802.11i standard. SAFER+ is used to encrypt Bluetooth communications.
What level of QoS is designated for interactive voice and video?
a) 1
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6
c) 5
QoS level 5 is designated for interactive voice and video, with less than 100ms delay. Level 1 is for background applications and is low priority. Level 4 is known as controlled load, which is lower priority than interactive voice and video. Level 6 only has 10ms latency but is reserved for control traffic.
You have just installed a wireless router on your home network. Which of the following should you do to make it highly secure? (Choose two.)
a) Change the default administrator name and password.
b) Change the SSID.
c) Enable WEP.
d) Configure it to channel 11.
a) Change the default administrator name and password.
b) Change the SSID
You should always change the default administrator name and password as well as the default SSID when installing a new wireless router. Enabling encryption is also a good idea, but WPA and WPA2 are better options than WEP. The channel has nothing to do with security.
You are setting up a small office network for a client. Which Internet service would you recommend to provide the best speed?
a) DSL
b) Dial-up
c) Satellite
d) BRI ISDN
e) PRI ISDN
a) DSL
Of the options listed, DSL provides the fastest speed. DSL can easily provide 12Mbps downloads. Dial-up is limited to 56Kbps, and ISDN BRI (128Kbps) and PRI (about 1.5Mbps) don’t even come close. Satellite is also much slower than DSL.
Which service allows users with private IP addresses to access the Internet using a public IP address?
a) DHCP
b) DNS
c) DMZ
d) NAT
d) NAT
Network Address Translation (NAT) allows users to have a private IP address and still access the Internet with a public IP address. NAT is installed on a router and translates the private IP address into a public one for the user to access the Internet. DHCP assigns IP configuration information to clients. DNS resolves hostnames to IP addresses. A DMZ is an area on a network between an external router and an internal router.
You are installing a single 802.11g wireless network. The office space is large enough that you need three WAPs. What channels should you configure the WAPs on to avoid communication issues?
a) 2,5, and 7
b) 1,8,and 14
c) 1,6,and 11
d) 3,6,and 9
c) 1,6, and 11
There are 14 communication channels in the 2.4GHz range, but only the first 11 are configurable. The three non-overlapping channels are 1, 6, and 11.
You are setting up a wireless network. Which wireless standards would give the users over 40Mbps throughput? (Choose three.)
a) 802.11a
b) 802.11g
d) 802.11n
a) 802.11a
c) 802.11g
d) 802.11n
Three current standards, 802.11a (54Mbps), 802.11g (54Mbps), and 802.11n (450Mbps) give users the required throughput.
Which of the following are 4G standards? (Choose two.)
a) LTE
b) GSM
c) CDMA
d) WiMAX
a) LTE
d) WiMAX
LTE and WiMAX are 4G standards. GSM and CDMA are cell phone communication standards. (CDMA 2000 is the same as LTE, and it’s 4G, but CDMA by itself is not 4G.)
Which of the following wireless communication methods has an operational range of 1 meter with a viewing angle of 30 degrees?
a) Bluetooth
b) Infrared
c) WiMAX
d) Satellite
b) Infrared
Infrared is limited to about 1 meter, with a viewing angle of about 30 degrees. Most Bluetooth devices can transmit up to 10 meters. WiMAX has a maximum range of about 5 miles. Satellite signals can travel from the surface of the Earth to a small metal can orbiting the planet.
Which of the following are advantages to using dial-up Internet service? (Choose two.)
a) High speed
b) Broad availability
c) Low Cost
d) High Security
b) Broad availability
c) low cost
Dial-up Internet is archaic by today’s standards, but it is widely available (anywhere there is phone service) and it’s generally lower in cost than other Internet access methods. It’s definitely not high speed, and its security is really no different than that of broadband Internet access methods.
Which of the following security standards was the first to introduce a dynamic 128-bit per-packet security key?
a) WEP
b) TKIP
c) AES
d) CCMP
b) TKIP
WEP could use a 64-bit or 128-bit security key, but it was a static key. TKIP introduced a dynamic per-packet key. AES and CCMP came after TKIP.
You are running an 802.11g wireless router in mixed mode. You have three 802.11g wireless NICs using the router. A new user connects using an 802.11b wireless NIC. What will happen?
a) The user with 802.11b will access the network at 11Mbps while the users with 802.11g will access the network at 54Mbps.
b) The user with 802.11b will not be able to communicate on the network.
c) The user with 802.11b will access the network at 11Mbps. The users with 802.11g will access the network at 54Mbps unless they are communicating with the 802.11b device, which will be at 11Mbps.
d) All users will access the network at 11Mbps.
d)All users will access the network at 11Mbps.
The good news is that 802.11g is backward compatible with 802.11b. The bad news is if you run in a mixed environment, all devices that communicate with the WAP (or router) will be forced to slow down to accommodate the older technology.
When enabled, which feature of a wireless router allows only specified computers to access the network?
a) Port forwarding
b) WPS
c) SSID
d) MAC filtering
d) MAC filtering
MAC filtering is a security option that can specify that only computers with specific MAC (hardware) addresses can access the network. Port forwarding is a feature of firewalls. WPS is an easy setup mechanism for wireless networks. SSID is the wireless network name.
A firewall operates by using a set of rules known as what?
a) SLA
b) ACL
c) Default deny
d) DMZ
b) ACL
The set of rules for access on a firewall is called an access control list (ACL). An SLA is an agreement on service level for QoS. Default deny is a good policy for firewalls because it doesn’t let any traffic through. A DMZ is a subnet located between an external network router and an internal router.
You have set up a wireless router on your network and configured it to use AES. What configuration option do you need to choose on the client computers?
a) WEP
b) WPA
c) WPA2
d) TKIP
c) WPA2
If your router is using AES, the clients will need to use WPA2. TKIP is a protocol utilized by WPA. WEP is the weakest of the encryption options.
Besides 802.11 standards, which wireless communication method works in the 2.4GHz range?
a) Bluetooth
b) Infrared
c) Satallite
d) Cellular
a) Bluetooth
Bluetooth also operates in the 2.4GHz range.
Which of the following broadband technologies provides two dedicated, digital data channels that can be combined for greater throughput?
a) DSL
b) Cable
c) Satellite
d) BRI ISDN
e) PRI ISDN
d) BRI ISDN
Basic rate interface ISDN (BRI ISDN) provides two separate 64Kbps B channels for data transmissions. These channels can be combined to increase throughput. A PRI ISDN uses 23 B channels. DSL, cable, and satellite do not offer multiple dedicated digital channels.
Where can you obtain the service manual for a laptop computer?
a) By pressing F1 while in Windows
b) By pressing F2 while the system is booting up
c) With the laptop, as a paper copy
d) From the manufacturer’s website
d) From the manufacturer’s website
Laptop service manuals can be obtained from the manufacturer’s website. It’s very rare that paper service manuals are shipped with the laptop. Pressing F1 while in Windows will open Windows Help, and pressing F2 on many laptops during the system boot will take you into the BIOS.
Which of the following is not a benefit of laptop design?
a) Portability
b) Increased performance
c) Desktop replacement
d) Higher - quality construction
b) Increase performance
By and large, compromises always must be made when comparing laptops to desktops. Although laptops can be used as desktop replacements, their performance is almost always lower than comparably priced desktops.
Which of the following are components of an LCD? (Choose two.)
a) Inverter
b) Screen
c) CRT
d) Backdrop
a) Inverter
b) Screen
The components of an LCD screen are the inverter, screen, and backlight. The video card is also a key component of the LCD system. A CRT is a different technology than LCD.
Which laptop input device was released with the IBM ThinkPad series of laptops?
a) Touchpad
b) Mouse
c) Point stick
d) Trackball
c) point stick
The Touchpoint point stick was released with the IBM ThinkPad series of laptops.
Which laptop accessory allows you to power your laptop from a car or airplane?
a) AC adaper
b) DC adapter
c) Battery converter
d) Automotive Wizard
b) DC Adapter
A DC adapter converts the DC output from a car or airplane accessory power plug into the DC voltages required by your laptop.
A DC adapter converts the DC output from a car or airplane accessory power plug into the DC voltages required by your laptop.
a) 72
b) 144
c) 172
d) 198
c) 172
MicroDIMMs can have 144 or 172 pins.
__________ is the fastest and most modern interface used as an expansion method for external peripherals, such as mice, web cams, scanners, and printers, and is popular on laptops and desktops alike.
a) Parallel
b) PS/2
c) USB
d) ATA
c) USB
__________ is the fastest and most modern interface used as an expansion method for external peripherals, such as mice, web cams, scanners, and printers, and is popular on laptops and desktops alike.
What type of connector does the Mini PCI IIIA standard use?
a) 100-pin card edge
b) 100-pin stacking
c) 124-pin card edge
d) 124-pin stacking
c) 124-pin card edge
Mini PCI IIIA uses a 124-pin card edge connector, as does Mini PCI IIIB. Mini PCI standards IA, IB, IIA, and IIB use 100-pin stacking connectors.
Which laptop component is often upgraded with an external PCMCIA device?
a) Video card
b) Motherboard
c) Network card
d) Keyboard
c) network card
Network cards are available in PCMCIA forms. If your network card fails or you need an upgrade, you can easily install an external PCMCIA NIC.
Which type of PC Card is used most often for expansion devices like NICs, sound cards, and so on?
a) Type I
b) Type II
c) Type III
d) Type !V
b) Type II
A Type II PC Card is the type used most often for expansion devices like NICs, sound cards, SCSI controllers, modems, and so on.
Which of the following expansion buses uses serial communications and is capable of operating in USB and PCIe modes?
a) Express Card
b) Card Bus
c) Mini PCI
d) Fire Wire
a) Express card
The ExpressCard bus brings USB 2.0 and PCIe to the small-form-factor computing industry. CardBus supports USB 1.1 and PCI only. Mini PCI is PCI, not PCIe.
What should you do first to remove external devices from your laptop?
a) Just remove the device.
b) Unplug the power to the device, then remove the devices
c) Click the Safe Remove Hardware icon.
d) Click the Remove Hardware Now icon.
c)
c) Click the Safe Remove Hardware icon.
Before removing external hardware, you should click the Safely Remove Hardware icon.
PC Cards rely on which type of software to operate? (Choose two.)
a) Cardmember Services
b) Card Servvices
c) Modem Services
d) Socket Services
b) Card Service
d) Socket Service
The PC Card architecture has two components. The first is the Socket Services software, and the second is the Card Services software.
What component allows you to keep desktop devices such as keyboard, monitor, and mouse permanently connected so they can be used by an attached laptop?
a) Docking station
b) Keyboard, video, mouse (KVM) switch
c) Print server
d) USB hub
a) Docking station
A docking station made specifically for its associated brand and model of laptop can host desktop components permanently, regardless of whether the laptop is attached to the docking station. When the laptop’s portability is not required, but instead use of the desktop components is the priority, attaching the laptop to the docking station makes such components available to the laptop without separately attaching each component.
The process by which the processor slows down to conserve power is officially called _________.
a) Underclocking
b) Cooling
c) Disengaging
d) Throttling
d) Throttling
The processor can reduce how fast it’s working, which is called throttling, to help conserve battery life.
When replacing your laptop’s AC adapter, which of the following purchases is acceptable to obtain the same or better results?
a)An AC adapter with a higher voltage rating than the original
b) An AC adapter with a higher wattage
rating than the original
c)A DC adapter with the same voltage rating as the original
d)An AC adapter with a lower voltage and wattage rating than the original
b) An AC adapter with a higher wattage rating than the original
Think of wattage as a “bucket” of power that the attached device can draw on. A bigger bucket simply holds more power but does not force the power on the device. Less wattage is not advised, however. Voltage can be thought of as the pressure behind the power to the device. Anything but the proper voltage is dangerous for the device. When you replace a laptop’s AC adapter, you should match the voltage ratings of the original adapter. This also means you should use an adapter with a fixed voltage if that matches the characteristics of the original; otherwise, obtain one that automatically switches voltages at the levels needed.
What should you do for a Li-ion battery that appears to charge fully but does not last as long as the battery’s meter indicates it will last?
a) Replace the battery.
b) Exercise the battery.
c) Calibrate the battery.
d) Short the terminals to discharge the battery.
c) Calibrate the battery.
Battery calibration for Li-ion batteries allows the powered device to drain the battery’s power before recharging. Battery exercising is the initial charging and discharging of nickel-based batteries so that they will function as expected. You should never short a battery’s terminals, and replacement is a last resort when any battery has reached the end of its life.
How do laptop hard drives differ from desktop hard drives?
a) Laptop hard drives use completely different standards from those used by desktop hard drives for communication with the host.
b) Laptop hard drives are solid state; desktop hard drives have spinning platters.
c) Laptop hard drives require a separate power connection; desktop hard drives are powered through the drive interface.
d) The most common form factor of a laptop hard drive is about an inch smaller than that of a desktop hard drive.
d) The most common form factor of a laptop hard drive is about an inch smaller than that of a desktop hard drive.
Laptop hard drives commonly have a 2 1/2( form factor. The most common form factor for desktop hard drives is 3 1/2(. Laptop hard drives use the same drive technologies as their desktop counterparts, such as serial and parallel ATA. As with desktop hard drives, laptop hard drives are available in both solid-state and conventional varieties. Unlike desktop hard drives, laptop hard drives do not have separate power connectors.
What type of connector does a Mini PCI type IIA card have?
a) 52-pin card edge
b) 100-pin stacking
c) 100-pin card edge
d) 124-pin card edge
b) 100-pin stacking
Mini PCI cards have either a 100-pin stacking connector or a 124-pin card edge connector. Type II cards have a 100-pin stacking connector. Mini PCIe cards have 52-pin card edge connectors.
Which of the following memory types has the smallest form factor?
a) RIMM
b) DIMM
c) MicroDIMM
d) SODIMM
c) MicroDIMM
The SODIMM and MicroDIMM are the common laptop small-form factor memory standards. Of the two, MicroDIMM is smaller.
Which voltage is applied to the paper to transfer the toner to the paper in an EP process laser printer?
a) +600VDC
b) –600VDC
c) +6000VDC
d) -6000VDC
a) +600VDC
Because the toner on the drum has a slight negative charge (–100VDC), it requires a positive charge to transfer it to the paper; +600VDC is the voltage used in an EP process laser printer.
Which types of printers are referred to as page printers because they receive their print job instructions one page at a time? (Choose two.)
a) Daisy wheel
b) Dot matrix
c) Bubble-jet
d) Laser
e) Thermal
c) Bubble-jet
d) Laser
A page printer is a type of computer printer that prints a page at a time. Common types of page printers are the laser printer and the inkjet (or bubble-jet) printer.
