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A&P Final > A&P1 Final > Flashcards

A&P1 Final Flashcards

1
Q 
A fracture in the shaft of a bone is a break in the:
	A. Epiphysis
	B. Periosteum
	C. Diaphysis
	D. Articular cartilage
A

C. Diaphysis

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2
Q 
Endosteum can be found:
	A. Lining of the medullary cavity
	B. Covering bones
	C. At articular surfaces
	D. Lining the epiphysis
A

A. Lining of the medullary cavity

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3
Q 
Muscle tendon fibers attach to bone by interlacing with:
	A. Compact bone
	B. Ligaments
	C. Periosteum
	D. Endosteum
A

C. Periosteum

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4
Q 
The organic matrix of bone consists of:
	A. Collagenous fibers
	B. Protein
	C. Polysaccharides
	D. All of the above
A

D. All of the above

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5
Q 
In bone formation the cells that produce the organic matrix are the:
	A. Osteoblasts
	B. Osteocytes
	C. Osteoclasts
	D. Chondrocytes
A

A. Osteoblasts

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6
Q 
The cells responsible for active erosion of bone minerals are called:
	A. Osteocytes
	B. Osteoclasts
	C. Osteoblasts
	D. Osteomorphytes
A

B. Osteoclasts

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7
Q 
Which of the following is not one of the primary functions performed by bone:
	A. Mineral storage
	B. Protection
	C. Hormonal production
	D. Hematopoiesis
A

C. Hormonal production

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8
Q

The cell organelles that synthesize organic matrix substances in bone formation are:
A. Mitochondria and Golgi apparatus
B. Ribosomes and Golgi apparatus
C. Endoplasmic reticulum and ribosomes
D. Endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi apparatus

A

D. Endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi apparatus

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9
Q 
The osteon, or haversian system:
	A. Delivers nutrients to and removes waste products from the bone cells
	B. Produces yellow marrow
	C. Resists stress
	D. Erodes bone
A

A. Delivers nutrients to and removes waste products from the bone cells

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10
Q

In Intramembranous ossification, the process of appositional growth refers to the:
A. Development of a core layer of spongy bone
B. Development of compact bone in long bones
C. Addition of an outside layer of osseous tissue on flat bones
D. Lengthening of long bone

A

C. Addition of an outside layer of osseous tissue on flat bones

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11
Q 
Hematopoiesis is carried out in the: 
	A. Osteoclasts
	B. Osteocytes
	C. Yellow bone marrow
	D. Red marrow
A

D. Red marrow

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12
Q 
The primary ossification center of a long bone is located:
	A. In the diaphysis
	B. In the epiphysis
	C. In the medullary cavity 
	D. At the epiphyseal cartilage
A

A. In the diaphysis

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13
Q 
The major purpose of the epiphyseal plate is:
	A. Mending of fractures
	B. Enlarging of epiphysis
	C. Providing strength in long bone
	D. Lengthening of long bones
A

D. Lengthening of long bones

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14
Q 
The first step in healing a fracture is:
	A. The formation of specialized callus
	B. The formation of a fracture hematoma
	C. Proper alignment of a fracture
	D. The formation of a collar of a normal bone covering the broken ends
A

B. The formation of a fracture hematoma

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15
Q 
Normally bone loss will begin to exceed bone gain between the ages of\_\_\_\_\_ years:
	A. 20 and 25
	B. 25 and 30
	C. 30 and 35
	D. 35 and 40
A

D. 35 and 40

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16
Q 
In bone growth the medullary cavity is enlarged because of the activity of:
	A. Osteoblasts
	B. Osteocytes
	C. Osteoclasts
	D. Chondrocytes
A

C. Osteoclasts

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17
Q 
What is the most abundant type of cartilage:
	A. Hyaline
	B. Elastic
	C. Fibrocartilage
	D. All of the above
A

A. Hyaline

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18
Q 
The form of the external ear is composed of:
	A. Fibrocartilage
	B. Elastic cartilage
	C. Osseous tissue
	D. Hyaline cartilage
A

B. Elastic cartilage

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19
Q 
Which is not a part of the axial skeletal:
	A. Rib
	b. Vertebral column
	c. Mandible
	d. Clavicle
A

d. Clavicle

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20
Q 
. Which is not a part of the appendicular skeletal?
	A. Coxal bones
	B. Parietal Bone
	C. Radius
	D. Clavicle
A

B. Parietal Bone

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21
Q 
The axial skeleton consists of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ bones.
	A. 60
	B. 68
	C. 74
	D. 80
A

D. 80

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22
Q 
The appendicular skeleton consists of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ bones.
	A. 102
	B. 118
	C. 126
	D. 137
A

C. 126

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23
Q 
The term sinus, as it relates to bone markings, can be defined as a:
	A. Raised area or projection
	B. Cavity within a bone
	C. Tubelike opening or channel
	D. Groove or elongated depression
A

B. Cavity within a bone

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24
Q 
Which bone is a part of the axial skeleton:
	A. Rib
	B. Clavicle
	C. Radius
	D. Coxal Bone
A

A. Rib

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25
Q 
Which bone is a part of the appendicular skeletal?
	A. Scapula
	B. Vertebra
	C. Parietal
	D. Mandible
A

A. Scapula

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26
Q 
Which suture is between the occipital and parietal bone?
	A. Squamous
	B. Lambdoid
	C. Sagittal
	D. Coronal
A

B. Lambdoid

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27
Q 
Mastoiditis is the inflammation of a sinus within which bone(s)?
	A. Maxillae
	B. Frontal 
	C. Sphenoid
	D. Temporal
A

D. Temporal

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28
Q 
Which skull bone articulates with the first vertebra?
	A. Temporal
	B. Occipital 
	C. Sphenoid
	D. Ethmoid
A

B. Occipital

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29
Q 
The upper parts of the nasal septum and the side walls of the nasal cavity are formed by which bone(s)?
	A. Nasal
	B. Sphenoid
	C. Ethmoid
	D. Maxillae
A

C. Ethmoid

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30
Q

Which of the following is a true statement?
A. The ethmoid is a flat bone that lies anterior to the sphenoid.
B. The ethmoid is an irregular bone that lies posterior to the sphenoid but anterior to the nasal bone.
C. The ethmoid is an irregular bone that lies anterior to the sphenoid but posterior to the nasal bone.
D. The ethmoid is a short bone that lies anterior to the nasal bone.

A

C. The ethmoid is an irregular bone that lies anterior to the sphenoid but posterior to the nasal bone.

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31
Q 
Which of the following bones does not articulate with the maxillae?
	A. Palatine
	B. Mandible
	C. Inferior concha
	D. Zygomatic
A

B. Mandible

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32
Q

If the cribriform plate is damaged, there is a chance of:
A. Infectious materials passing from ear to brain.
B. Food passing from the mouth into the nose.
C. Difficulty chewing.
D. Infectious materials passing from the nose to the brain

A

D. Infectious materials passing from the nose to the brain

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33
Q

A fontanel can best be described as a(n):
A. Bone in the skull
B. Unossified area in the infant’s skull
C. articulation between two skull bones
D. Small opening

A

B. Unossified area in the infant’s skull

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34
Q 
The skeletal framework of the neck consists of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ vertebrae.
	A. Lumbar
	B. Thoracic
	C. Sacral
	D. Cervical
A

D. Cervical

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35
Q 
The number of thoracic vertebrae is:
	A. 5
	B. 8
	C. 10
	D. 12
A

D. 12

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36
Q 
The number of true pairs of ribs in the body is:
	A. 7
	B. 12
	C. 5
	D. 3
A

A. 7

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37
Q

The trochlea and capitulum can be described as:
A. Markings on the scapula
B. Parts of the proximal end of the ulna
C. Distal portions of the humerus
D. Metacarpal bones

A

C. Distal portions of the humerus

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38
Q 
The human hand has greater dexterity than the forepaw of the any animal because of the freely moveable joint of the:
	A. Elbow
	B. Shoulder
	C. Wrist
	D. Thumb
A

D. Thumb

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39
Q 
The ulna articulates proximally with the 
	A. Carpal bones
	B. Humerus
	C. Scapula
	D. None of the above is correct
A

B. Humerus

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40
Q 
Metacarpal bones from the framework of the;
	A. Wrist 
	B. Hand
	C. Ankle
	D. Foot
A

B. Hand

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41
Q 
The pisiform bone can be found in the:
	A. Wrist
	B. Ankle
	C. Neck
	D. Skull
A

A. Wrist

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42
Q 
The structure above the pelvic inlet, which is bordered by muscle in the front and bone along the sides and back, is called the:
	A. Pelvic Brim
	B. False Pelvis
	C. Pelvic Girdle
	D. True Pelvis
A

B. False Pelvis

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43
Q 
The anterior of the pelvic girdle is formed by the:
	A. Sacrum
	B. Ilium
	C. Ischium
	D. Pubis
A

D. Pubis

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44
Q 
During childbirth, a baby passes through an imaginary plane called the:
	A. Pelvic outlet
	B. Symphysis pubis
	C. Pelvic brim
	D. Ilium
A

A. Pelvic outlet

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45
Q 
The longest and heaviest bone in the body is the:
	A. Tibia
	B. Fibula
	C. Coral
	D. Femur
A

D. Femur

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46
Q 
A person with a fractured patella would expect discomfort in the:
	A. Elbow
	B. Knee
	C. Head
	D. Ankle
A

B. Knee

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47
Q 
Which of the following is not a tarsal bone?
	A. Cuneiform
	B. Navicular
	C. Scaphoid
	D. Talus
A

C. Scaphoid

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48
Q

Which of the following is not true?
A. The pubic arch in the male is less than a 90-degree angle.
B. The pelvic cavity is narrower in the male than in the female.
C. The coccyx is less flexible in the male.
D. All of the above are true

A

D. All of the above are true

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49
Q

Going from proximal to distal, the bones of the upper extremity are:
A. Metacarpals, carpals, ulna, and humerus
B. Carpals, metacarpals, ulna and humerus
C. Humerus, Radius, Carpals, and Metacarpals.

A

C. Humerus, Radius, Carpals, and Metacarpals.

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50
Q

Which of the following is a true statement?
A. Joints can be classified into five major categories.
B. The functional classification of joint centers around the type of connective tissue that joins bones together.
C. The structural classification of joints centers around the type of connective tissue that joins the bones together.
D. The structural classification of joints involves the degree of movement the joint permits.

A

B. The functional classification of joint centers around the type of connective tissue that joins bones together.

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51
Q 
Which of the following is not an example of a fibrous joint?
	A. Symphyses
	B. Sutures
	C. Sydnesmoses
	D. Gomphoses
A

A. Symphyses

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52
Q 
What are the unique joints that occur between the root of a tooth and the alveolar process of the mandible or maxilla?
	A. Symphyses
	B. Syndesmoses
	C. Gomphoses
	D. Synchondroses
A

C. Gomphoses

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53
Q 
What are the most movable joints in the body?
	A. Symphyses
	B. Synovial
	C. Syndesmoses
	D. Synchondroses
A

B. Synovial

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54
Q 
In terms of structure, which type of articulation has a joint capsule?
	A. Fibrous
	B. Cartilaginous
	C. Synovial
	D. Amphiarthrotic
A

C. Synovial

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55
Q 
In the terms of function, which is considered an immovable joint?
	A. Synarthroses
	B. Amphiarthroses
	C. Diarthroses
	D. All joints are move able
A

A. Synarthroses

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56
Q 
A condyloid joint is an example of a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_joint?
	A. Uniaxial
	B. Biaxial
	C. Multiaxial
	D. Inmmovable
A

B. Biaxial

57
Q 
Which joint allows for the widest range of movement?
	A. Gliding
	B. Saddle
	C. Ball-and-socket
	D. Hinge
A

C. Ball-and-socket

58
Q 
The pads of fibrocartilage located between the articulating ends of bones in some diarthroses are called?
	A. Ligaments
	B. Mensci
	C. Bursae
	D. Synovial membranes
59
Q 
Mensci are:
	A. Cords of dense white fibrous tissue
	B. Extensions of the periosteum 
	C. Hyaline cartilage cushions
	D. Fibrocartilage pads
A

D. Fibrocartilage pads

60
Q

An example of a hinge joint is/are:
A. Head of radius articulating with the ulna
B. Interphalangeal joints
C. First metacarpal articulating with the trapezium
D. Head of the numerous articulating with the scapula

A

B. Interphalangeal joints

61
Q 
The knee joint is an example of a \_\_\_\_\_ joint.
	A. Hinge
	B. Ball-and-socket 
	C. Saddle 
	D. Gliding
62
Q

An example of a pivot joint is/are:
A. Head of the radius articulating with the ulna
B. First metacarpal articulating with trapezium
C. Humorous articulating with the scapula
D. Interphalangial joint

A

A. Head of the radius articulating with the ulna

63
Q 
The distal end of the radius articulating with the carpal bones is an example of \_\_\_\_\_ joint:
	A. Saddle
	B. Gliding
	C. Condyloid (ellipsoial) 
	D. Pivot
A

C. Condyloid (ellipsoial)

64
Q 
Which of the following is an example of a biaxial joint:
	A. Pivot 
	B. Hinge
	C. Ball-and-socket 
	D. Condyloid
A

D. Condyloid

65
Q 
A gliding joint is an example of a (an ) \_\_\_\_\_ joint:
	A. Uniaxial
	B. Biaxial
	C. Multiaxial
	D. Pivot
A

C. Multiaxial

66
Q 
Which joint allows for the most movement?
	A. Gliding
	B. Saddle
	C. Ball-and-socket 
	D. Trochoid
A

C. Ball-and-socket

67
Q 
Skeletal muscles constitute approximately \_\_\_\_\_ of our body weight?
	A. 10%
	B. 25%
	C. 50%
	D. 75%
68
Q 
The connective tissue sheath that envelopes bundles of muscle fibers is the:
	A. Epimysium
	B. Endomysium
	C. Periosteum
	D. Perimysium
A

D. Perimysium

69
Q 
The covering of individual muscle fibers is the 
	A. Epimysium
	B. Endomysium
	C. Periosteum
	D. Perimysium
A

B. Endomysium

70
Q 
Groups of skeletal muscle fibers are bound together by a connective tissue envelope called the:
	A. Endomysium
	B. Perimysium
	C. Epimysium
	D. Apoeurosis
A

B. Perimysium

71
Q

An aponeurosis could be described as:
A. Flat sheet of connective tissue connecting muscle to other structures
B. Sheath that surrounds tendons
C. Deep fascia that covers muscles
D. Junction between a neuron and a muscle

A

A. Flat sheet of connective tissue connecting muscle to other structures

72
Q 
Muscles that contract at the same time as the prime mover are called:
	A. Synergist
	B. Fixator 
	C. Antagonist
	D. Both A and B
A

D. Both A and B

73
Q 
Which of the following is not a component of a lever system:
	A. Fixator
	B. Bone 
	C. Joint
	D. Pull
A

A. Fixator

74
Q 
The type of lever arrangement in which the pull is exerted between the fulcrum and resistance or weight to be moved is a \_\_\_\_\_ class lever.
	A. First 
	B. Second 
	C. Third 
	D. Fourth
75
Q 
Muscles may be named according to:
	A. Function 
	B. Direction of fibers
	C. Points if attachments 
	D. All of the above
A

D. All of the above

76
Q 
The Sternocleidomastoid muscle I an example of a muscle named for it:
	A. Function
	B. Number of attachments
	C. Size
	D. Points of attachment
A

D. Points of attachment

77
Q 
A muscle that assists with mastication is the:
	A. Orbicularis oris
	B. Buccinator
	C. Platysma
	D. Masseter
A

D. Masseter

78
Q 
The muscle that draws the eyebrows together, producing verticals wrinkles above the nose (frowning), is called the:
	A. Epicranius
	B. Corrugator supercili
	C. Orbicularis oculi
	D. Orbicularis oris
A

B. Corrugator supercili

79
Q 
Which of the following muscles has fibers on a transverse plane?
	A. Rectus Abdominis
	B. External oblique
	C. Transverse abdominis
	D. Internal intercostal
A

C. Transverse abdominis

80
Q 
Which of the following muscle(s) function(s) to protect the abdominal viscera?
	A. External oblique
	B. Internal oblique
	C. Transversus abdominis
	D. All of the above
A

D. All of the above

81
Q 
Which muscle(s) form(s) most of the pelvic floor?
	A. Levator ani
	B. Coccygeus
	C. Ischiocavernous
	D. Both A and B
A

D. Both A and B

82
Q

Purposeful movement is determined by:
A. The relationship of muscles to joints
B. How muscles are attached to the skeleton
C. The manner in which muscles are grouped
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

83
Q 
Which fibrous connective tissue structures have a lining of synovial membrane?
	A. Tendon sheaths
	B. Aponeurosis
	C. Fascicies
	D. Both B and C
A

A. Tendon sheaths

84
Q 
Which of the following muscles do not move the upper arm:
	A. Pectoralis major
	B. Latissimus dorsi
	C. Deltoid
	D. Trapezius
A

D. Trapezius

85
Q 
All of the following muscles are part of the rotator cuff muscles except the:
	A. Deltoid
	B. Infraspinatus
	C. Supraspinatus
	D. Teres minor
A

A. Deltoid

86
Q 
The teres major and teres minor muscles move the:
	A. Forearm
	B. Arm
	C. Shoulder
	D. Wrist
87
Q 
The muscle that allows the thumb to be drawn across the palm to touch the tip of any finger is the:
	A. Extensor digitorum
	B. Opponens pollicis
	C. Palmaris longus
	D. Flexor carpi radialis
A

B. Opponens pollicis

88
Q 
The muscle that raises or lowers the shoulders or shrugs them is the:
	A. Deltoid
	B. Latissimus dorsi
	C. Trapezius
	D. Pectoralis major
A

C. Trapezius

89
Q 
The muscle that extends and adducts the arm is the: 
	A. Deltoid
	B. Latissimus dorsi
	C. Trapezius
	D. Pectoralis minor
A

B. Latissimus dorsi

90
Q 
The posterior arm muscle that extends the forearm is the:
	A. Biceps brachii
	B. Triceps brachii
	C. Supination
	D. Brachialis
A

B. Triceps brachii

91
Q 
The muscle that flexes the semipronated or semisupinated forearm is the:
	A. Biceps brachii
	B. Brachialis
	C. Brachioradialis
	D. Triceps brachii
A

C. Brachioradialis

92
Q 
Muscles that move the upper arm originate on the 
	A. Ulna and humerus
	B. Clavicle and scapula
	C. Humerus
	D. Ulna and radius
A

B. Clavicle and scapula

93
Q

In pushing (pressing) a weight from shoulder height to above the head, which of the following muscles is least utilized?
A. Triceps brachii
B. Biceps brachii
C. Deltoid

A

B. Biceps brachii

94
Q 
The muscle(s) assisting in rotating the arm outward is(are) the:
	A. Teres minor
	B. Latissimus dorsi
	C. Supraspinatus
	D. All of the above are correct
A

A. Teres minor

95
Q 
The action of the brachialis muscle is to \_\_\_\_\_ the forearm?
	A. Flex
	B. Extend
	C. Pronate
	D. Supinate
96
Q

The flexor muscles that move the fingers are mostly located on the:
A. Anterior lateral surface of the forearm
B. Anterior medial surface of the forearm
C. Posterior surface of the forearm
D. Posterior surface of the hand

A

B. Anterior medial surface of the forearm

97
Q 
Which of the following is not a muscle that moves the thigh?
	A. Adductor longus
	B. Gracilis
	C. Iliopsoas
	D. Sacrospinalis
A

D. Sacrospinalis

98
Q 
Which of the following is not a muscle of the quadriceps femoris group?
	A. Rectus femoris
	B. Biceps femoris
	C. Vastus medialis
	D. Vastus intermedius
A

B. Biceps femoris

99
Q 
When an athlete injures a muscle of the hamstring group, the injury is on the:
	A. Upper arm
	B. Posterior lower leg
	C. Posterior thigh
	D. Anterior though
A

C. Posterior thigh

100
Q 
Which of the following is not a muscle that moves the foot?
	A. Sartorius
	B. Peroneus longus
	C. Tibialis anterior
	D. Soleus
A

A. Sartorius

101
Q 
Which of the following is not one of the major functions of muscles?
	A. Movement
	B. Protection
	C. Heat production
	D. Posture
A

B. Protection

102
Q 
The plasma membrane of a muscle fiber is called the:
	A. Sarcolemma
	B. Myofibril
	C. Sarcoplasm
	D. Sarcomere
A

A. Sarcolemma

103
Q 
Bundles of fine fibers that extend lengthwise along muscle fibers are called?
	A. Myofibrils
	B. Myofilaments
	C. Striae
	D. Sarcoplasmic Reticulum
A

A. Myofibrils

104
Q 
The smallest contractile unit of muscle is?
	A. Fiber
	B. Myofibril
	C. Sarcomere
	D. Myofilament
A

C. Sarcomere

105
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_ Muscle is also known as striated muscle?
	A. Smooth
	B. Skeletal
	C. Involuntary
	D. Visceral
A

B. Skeletal

106
Q 
The ability of muscle cells to respond to nerve stimuli is called?
	A.  Irritability
	B. Contractility
	C. Extensibility
	D. Elasticity
A

A. Irritability

107
Q 
In the structure called a triad, the T tubule is sandwiched between?
	A. Actin filaments
	B. Myofibrils
	C. Sarcolemma
	D. Sacs of the sarcoplasmic reticulum
A

D. Sacs of the sarcoplasmic reticulum

108
Q

The chief function of T tubules is to?
A. Provide nutrients to the muscle fiber
B. Allow for the fiber to contract
C. Allow for electrical signals to move deeper into the cell
D. Allow for the generation of new muscle fibers

A

C. Allow for electrical signals to move deeper into the cell

109
Q 
Which of the following proteins found in Myofilaments contains the cross-bridges?
	A.  Myosin
	B. Actin
	C. Tropomyosin
	D. Troponin
110
Q 
The protein molecule that has heads jutting out for cross-bridging is?
	A. Actin
	B. Myosin
	C. Troponin
	D. Tropomyosin
111
Q 
Thick filaments extend the length of the?
	A. A Band
	B. Z line
	C. I band
	D. None of the above are correct
112
Q 
The neurotransmitter(s) secreted at the motor end plates of skeletal muscles is(are):
	A. Dopamine
	B. Norepinephrine
	C. Acetylcholine
	D. Any of the above
A

C. Acetylcholine

113
Q

The first event to occur in muscle relaxation is that?
A. Tropomyosin returns to its original position
B. Myosin cross-bridges are prevented from binding to actin
C. The sarcoplasmic reticulum begins actively pumping calcium back into its sac
D. Acetylcholine is released

A

C. The sarcoplasmic reticulum begins actively pumping calcium back into its sac

114
Q 
The purpose of creatine phosphate in muscle contraction is to?
	A. Carry Oxygen
	B. Store Calcium
	C. Replenish energy supply
	D. Rotate the cross bridges
A

C. Replenish energy supply

115
Q

Aerobic respiration:
A. Allows the body to avoid the use of oxygen for a short time
B. Results in the formation of an incompletely catabolized molecule
C. Results in the formation of lactic acid
D. Produces a maximum amount of energy available from each glucose molecule

A

D. Produces a maximum amount of energy available from each glucose molecule

116
Q 
Skeletal muscles are innervated by:
	A. Somatic motor neurons
	B. Autonomic motor neurons
	C. Both somatic and autonomic motor neurons
	D. Internal stimulation
A

A. Somatic motor neurons

117
Q 
A motor unit is most correctly described as a \_\_\_\_\_\_ and a motor neuron?
	A. Sarcomere
	B. Myofibril
	C. Muscle Fiber
	D. Filament
A

C. Muscle Fiber

118
Q 
White fibers are also called \_\_\_\_\_ fibers:
	A. Fast
	B. Slow
	C. Elongated
	D. Intermediate
119
Q

Most body movements are _____ contractions?
A. Isotonic
B. Isometric
C. Combination of isotonic and isometric
D. Single twitch

A

C. Combination of isotonic and isometric

120
Q 
Endurance training is also known as:
	A. Isometric
	B. Hypertrophy
	C. Aerobic Training
	D. Strength training
A

C. Aerobic Training

121
Q 
During which phase of the twitch contraction is there a triggering of the release of calcium ions into the sarcoplasm?
	A. Latent period 
	B. Contraction phase
	C. Relaxation phase
	D. None of the above
A

A. Latent period

122
Q

Physiological muscle fatigue may be cause by:
A. A relative lack of ATP
B. High levels of lactic acid
C. Failure of the sodium-potassium pumps
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

123
Q

All of the following are true characteristics of an isometric contraction except:
A. The muscle does not shorten
B. It can produce work by tightening to resist a force
C. Movement if produced
D. The tension produced by the myosin cross-bridges cannot overcome the load placed on the muscle

A

C. Movement if produced

124
Q 
A contraction in which the tension within the muscle remains the same but the length changes is called a (n) \_\_\_\_\_\_contraction.
	A. Tonic
	B. Isotonic 
	C. Isometric
	D. Tetanic
A

B. Isotonic

125
Q 
Attempting to pick up an object too heavy to lift would result in which type of muscle contraction?
	A. Isotonic
	B. Flaccid
	C. Treppe
	D. Isometric
A

D. Isometric

126
Q

Which of the following is/are classified as nerve fibers?
A. Axon
B. Dendrites
C. Both A and B

A

C. Both A and B

127
Q 
Which of the following conduct impulses toward the cell body?
	A. Axons
	B. Dendrites
	C. Nissl bodies
	D. None of the above
A

B. Dendrites

128
Q 
A neuron with one axon and several dendrites is a:
	A. Multipolar
	B. Unipolar
	C. Bipolar
	D. None of the above
A

A. Multipolar

129
Q 
Which type of neuron lies entirely within the CNS?
	A. Afferent
	B. Efferent
	C. Interneuron
	D. None of the above
A

C. Interneuron

130
Q

Which sequence best represents the course of an impulse over a reflex arc?
A. Receptor, Synapse, Sensory Neuron, Motor Neuron Effector
B. Effector, Sensory Neuron, Synapse, Motor Neuron, Receptor
C. Receptor, Motor Neuron, Synapse, Sensory Neuron, Effector
D. Receptor, Sensory Neuron, Interneuron, Motor Neuron, Effector

A

D. Receptor, Sensory Neuron, Interneuron, Motor Neuron, Effector

131
Q 
A complete nerve, consisting of numerous fascicles and their blood supply, is held together by a fibrous coat called the:
	A. Endoneurium
	B. Perineurium
	C. Epineurium
	D. Fascicles
A

C. Epineurium

132
Q 
Small, distinct regions of gray matter within the CNS are usually called: 
	A. White matter
	B. Nuclei 
	C. Ganglia
	D. Fascicles
133
Q 
Nerves that contain mostly efferent fibers are called:
	A. Sensory nerves 
	B. Motor Nerves 
	C. Mixed nerves 
	D. Schwann nerves
A

B. Motor Nerves

134
Q 
Gray matter in the CNS consists of:
	A. Nerve fibers 
	B. Neuroglia 
	C. Axons
	D. Cell bodies
A

D. Cell bodies

135
Q 
Most nerves in the human nervous system are: 
	A. Sensory nerves
	B. Motor nerves
	C. Mixed nerves
	D. Reflex nerves
A

C. Mixed nerves

136
Q

Evidence now indicates that neurons may be replaced. T/F

137
Q

Regeneration of nerve fibers will occur if the cell body is intact and the fibers have a neurilemma. T/F

138
Q

There are no differences between the CNS and the PNS concerning the repair of damaged fibers. T/F

139
Q

A. Neurons B. Neuroglia

  1. Axon
  2. Supporting cells
  3. Astrocytes
  4. Sensory
  5. Conduct impulses
  6. Form the myelin sheath around the central nerve fibers
  7. Phagocytosis
  8. Efferent
  9. Multiple sclerosis
  10. Multipolar
A
  1. A
  2. B
  3. B
  4. A
  5. A
  6. B
  7. B
  8. A
  9. B
  10. A

A&P Final (1 decks)

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