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A&P sem1 Flashcards

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1
Q

describe levels of organisation in the cells

A
  • chemical e.g: h20
  • cell
  • tissue
  • organ e.g: lungs
    -system e.g: cardiovascular
    organism e.g: human
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2
Q

what are the 11 systems

A

**integumentary **- protection, sensation, thermoregulation

cardio vasucalar

**reproductive **- support developing foetus

digestive

skeletal

muscular

urinary - waste excretion, control blood

lymphatic - immune defence, pathogen

nervous - communication, control

endocrine - communication through hormones, glands
respiratory

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3
Q

describe the 4 types of tissue

A

connective - store energy, fill internal spaces
**epithelial **- layers of cells
neural - ability to conduct electrical impulses
muscular - ability to contract

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4
Q

Organ definition

A

DISCRETE COLLECTION OF TWO OR MORE TISSUES COOPERATIVELY PERFORMING A FUNCTION

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5
Q

POSITIONING
towards feet
towards head
nearest trunk of body
furthest trunk of body
towards belly button
away from belly button
towards back
towards front

A

towards feet = SUPERIOR

towards head = INFERIOR

nearest trunk of body =
PROXIMAL

furthest trunk of body = DISTAL

towards belly button = MEDIAL

away from belly button = LATERAL

towards back POSTERIOR/DORSAL

towards front ANTERIOR/VENTRAL

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6
Q

frontal plane
transverse plane
sagittal plane

A

frontal - cut front and back in half
transverse - cut legs off
sagittal - between eyes

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7
Q

Cavities
Back of body

front of body

A

Back = dorsal , brain and spinal chord

Front = ventral, thoracic cavity (plural and pericardial cavity)
and abdominopelvic cavity (abdominal, pelvic, peritoneal)

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8
Q

homeostasis
+
-

A

maintenance of constant internal environment
+ = exaggerates difference
- = returns to normal

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9
Q

Anatomy of:
CNS
PNS

A

CNS = brain+spinal chord, transmit motor commands, sensory data

PNS = tissue outside CNS, deliver sensory info to CNS, motor commands to peripheral tissue

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10
Q

homeostasis:
stimulus journey

A

stimulus
receptor
control centre
effector
response

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11
Q

what are the 3 types of receptors?

A

special sensory = senses

visceral sensory = internal organs

somatic sensory = skeletal muscle, joints, skin surface

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12
Q

what division does:
- sensory info
- motor commands
go to?

A

sensory = AFFERENT
motor = EFFERENT

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13
Q

what’s the difference between somatic and autonomic nervous system

What are the 2 divisions autonomic system includes

A

Somatic, have to think about your next action

Autonomic, body responds automatically via PARASYMPATHETIC (rest and digest) / SYMPATHETIC (fight or flight)

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14
Q

what are the 4 structures of neurones?
where are they found?

A

anaxonic = brain. small, not common

bipolar = special sense organs

unipolar = cell body lies to one side, sensory neurones of pns

multi polar = cns, control skeletal muscle, 2 or more dendrites, single axon

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15
Q

Spinal chord
What neurones are myelinated, grey or white matter?

A

Grey matter = unmyelinated neurones

White matter = myelinated afferent neurones, rapid signal delivery

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16
Q

how many segments are there in the spinal chord?

A

31

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17
Q

what does each segment of the spinal chord contain?
and what do these do in the segment?

A

pair of dorsal root ganglia = sensory info to spinal chord through sensory neurones and cell bodies

pair of ventral roots = axons and motor neurones

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18
Q

where do dorsal roots and ventral roots bind?

A

in a single spinal nerve

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19
Q

what is a dermatome?

A

specific section of skin controlled by spinal nerves

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20
Q

describe the process of a reflex arc?

A

1)STIMULUS, activates receptor
2)SENSORY NEURONE activated through dorsal root
3) info processed by CNS
4)MOTOR NEURONE activated through ventral root
5)RESPONSE, by peripheral effector

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21
Q

What is a Golgi tendon organ?

A
  • muscle contracts, senses tension in tendon
  • has inhibitive afferent neuron
  • too much tension, GTO releases to protect
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22
Q

BRAIN: CEREBRUM
what are the 4 areas and what are they responsible for?

A

FRONTAL LOBE - somatic motor association area

TEMPORAL LOBE - auditory association area

OCCIPITAL LOBE - visual association area

PARIETAL LOBE - somatic sensory association area

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23
Q

BRAIN
Physical protection?

hint: 3

A
  • cranium bones
  • cranial meninges, 3 layers
  • cerebrospinal fluid, surrounds all exposed areas of cos
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24
Q

BRAIN
Biochemical isolation?

A

blood brain barrier, CNS isolated from general circulation

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25
Q

CRANIAL NERVES
On
On
On
They
Travelled
And
Found
Voldemourt
Guarding
Very
Ancient
Horcruxes

A

Olfactory (S)
Optic (S)
Occulomotor (M)
Trochlear (M)
Trigeminal (B)
Abducens (M)
Facial (B)
Vestibulocochlear (S)
Glossopharyngeal (B)
Vagus (B0
Accessory (M)
Hypoglossal (M)

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26
Q

CRANIAL NERVES ROLE:
Olfactory (S)

Optic (S)

Occulomotor (M)

Trochlear (M)

A

Sensor, Receptor - olfactory epithelium in nasal cavity

Sensor, Receptor - retina

Motor, Control eye movement

Motor, control eye movement

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27
Q

CRANIAL NERVES ROLE 2:
Trigeminal (B)

Abducens (M)

Facial (B)

Vestibulocochlear (S)

A

Sensor, eyes, nose, forehead, structures of the mouth.
Motor, control of the chewing muscles

Motor, control lateral movement of eye.

Sensor of taste
Motor, control of facial expressions, tear gland and salivary glands

Sensor, balance and hearing

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28
Q

CRANIAL NERVES ROLE 3

Glossopharyngeal (B)

Vagus (B)

Accessory (M)

Hypoglossal (M)

A

Sensor, taste
Motor, control of pharyngeal muscles for swallowing.

roles in abdomen and thorax, key in cv system

Motor, control neck and upper back.

Motor, control muscles in tongue

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29
Q

What are the 3 layers on the cranial meninges?

A

1.dura matter
2. arachnoid matter
3. pia matter

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30
Q

what is a cell membranes resting potential?

A

-70mV

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31
Q

What are the 4 types of channels in a cell membrane called?

A
  • Leak channels (always open)
  • Gated channels (open depending on circumstances)
  • Voltage-gated
  • Mechanically-gated (respond to pressure e.g: pressing on skin)
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32
Q

Describe:
Depolarization

Repolarization

Hyperpolarization

A

Depolar = more Na+ into cell so more +, closer to 0mV

Repolar = Na+ back out of cell, back to resting potential

Hyper = K+ channels open, more + leaves, so even lower than -70mV

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33
Q

Describe the chemical gradient on a cell membrane?
What element moves quickest?
What is attracted where?

A

Higher conc of K+ inside, and higher Na+ outside

K+ moves out faster than Na+ in
Outside + repels K+
Inside - attracts Na+
K+ still move so net loss of +

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34
Q

What is a graded/local potential?

A
  • small stimuli exposes membrane to chemical
  • Na+ channel opens = Depolarisation
  • depolarisation causes local potential
  • stimuli removed = repolarisation

Not always big enough to cause full action potential

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35
Q

What is continuous propagation?

A

Mexican wave behaviour

Membrane depolarised to +30mV by AP, Na+ then move away to second segment

Causes new AP there

First segment = refractory period

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36
Q

How is an action potential created?

A
  • depolarisation of membrane to threshold -60mV
  • Na+ gates open, Na+ in until +30mV
  • Na+ gates close, K+ gates open
  • brief hyperpolarisation then resting potential
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37
Q

What is saltatory propagation?

A

when AP jumps from node to node along myelinated axon

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38
Q

Differences between:
Graded Potential and Action Potential?

A

1GP: no threshold
1AP: must reach threshold

2GP: amount hyper/depolar depends on stimulus
2AP: all or none

3GP: hyperpolaristing or depolarising
3AP: always depolarising

4GP: no refractory period
4AP: refractory period

5GP: most effect on membrane potential occurs closest to stimulation site
5AP: same strength of propagation across whole membrane

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39
Q

What are the 2 types of neurotransmitters?

A

Excitatory =
- depolarisation postsynaptic membrane, encourages AP

Inhibitory =
- hyper polarisation of postsynaptic membrane, suppress AP

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40
Q

Describe how acetylcholine is realised from a cholinergic synapse?

A
  • AP depolarises pre synaptic terminal
  • Ca2+ enters, Act released by exocytosis in synaptic vesicles
  • Ach diffuses, binds to postsynaptic receptors
  • Na+ channels open = graded depolarisation
  • depolarisation stops as Act broken down
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41
Q

NEUROTRANSMITTERS:
Name 5 important neurotransmitters

A

Acetylcholine
GABA
Dopamine
Serotonin
Norepinephrine/Noradrenaline

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42
Q

NEUROTRANSMITTERS:
Inhibitory or excitatory?
Released by?
What does it do?

GABA, DOPAMINE, SEROTONIN, NOREPINEPHRINE

A

GABA = inhib, not known

DOPAMINE = excit/inhib, precise muscle control, dopaminergic synapse in CNS

SEROTONIN = excit/inhib, sleep and wake cycle, serotonergic synapse In CNS

NORADRENALINE = excit, brain, adrenergic synapse

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43
Q

What are the different layers and shapes of epithelial tissue?

A

Layers: simple, stratified

Shapes: cuboidal, squamous, columnar, transitional

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44
Q

What are the 2 components of neural tissue?

A

Neurones
Neuroglia = support e.g: phagocytosis, repair damaged tissue, nutrients, maintain structure

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45
Q

Summarise the 3 types of muscle tissues?

A

SKELETAL = striated, voluntary control
CARDIAC = striated, involuntary, intercalated disks (electrical)
SMOOTH = visceral organs e.g: lungs, liver, heart

46
Q

EPITHELIAL TISSUE 1:
describe:
1. simple squamous
2. stratified squamous
3.simple cuboidal
4.stratified cuboidal
5.transitional

A
  1. diffusion, line blood vessels, flat
  2. line skin, basement membrane has new stem cells, daughter cells pushed to surface = protection
  3. secretion, tube/duct
  4. layers, protection, some cells destroyed in secretion

5.change shape, expand contract with bladder contents

47
Q

EPITHELIAL TISSUE 2:
1. simple columnar
2. pseudostratified columnar
3. stratified columnar

A
  1. absorption, microvilli on surface= big SA, height = protection
  2. nuclei at different heights, cilia move mucus, respiratory tract
  3. layers = protection, pharynx
48
Q

Summarise 3 types of glandular secretion

A

MEROCRINE = merely vesicles discharged
APOCRINE = part of cytoplasm shared
HOLOCRINE = whole cell bursts

49
Q

What are 3 main components of connective tissue?

A
  • CELLS = fibroblasts, macrophage,apidocytes
  • FIBRES = collagen, elastic, 3d branching
  • GROUND SUBSTANCE= blood, cartilage, bone
50
Q

What are the 3 types of cartilage?

A

HYALINE = chondrocyte, strong, flexible
ELASTIC = more elastic than collagen
FIBROCARTILAGE = intervertebral disk, strong, protect, little movement

51
Q

What are the 3 types of dense connective tissue?

A

DENSE REGULAR = tendon, ligament, fibroblasts/collagen so stretchy

DENSE IRREGULAR = tough sheets around organs, collagen

ELASTIC = less common, parallel arrangement

52
Q

What are the 2 types of loose connective tissue?

A

ADIPOSE = apidocytes. padding, energy, fill area, insulate

RECTICULAR = structure, e.g: around kidney, liver

53
Q

what cells produces/maintains cartilage tissue?

A

chondrocyte

54
Q

functions of the skeletal system?

A
  • Support against gravity
  • Leverage for muscle action
  • Protection of soft internal organs
  • Storage: Calcium, phosphorous, fat
  • Blood cell production
55
Q

What are the 4 types of tissue membranes?

A
  1. MUCOUS MEMBRANE: mucous attract pathogens, cilia clear mucous, areolar under
  2. SEROUS MEMBRANE: line body cavity, slippery, lube = transudate
  3. SKIN: stratified squamous epithelium, dense irregular connective tissue so strong
  4. SYNOVIAL: line, fluid and nutrition for joint
56
Q

What are the 3 layers between skin and body?

hint: fascia

A

1.body
2. subserous fascia: areolar tissue
3. deep fascia: dense connective tissue
4.superficial fascia: areolar + adipose tissue

57
Q

Describe the 3 different types of muscle TISSUE

A

SKELETAL: striated cells, attach to bones
CARDIAC: striated, intercalated disk allows electric around heart
SMOOTH: smooth, spindle shape cells, blood vessel wall

58
Q

What does the skeletal system include?

hint: 5

A
  • bones
  • cartilage
  • joint
  • ligament
  • other connective tissue
59
Q

What are the 6 different types of bone?

A
  1. flat: internal table, dipole, external table
  2. long: longer than they are wide, levers
  3. short: transfer forces for subtle movements
  4. irregular: complex shape
  5. sutral: between skull bones
  6. sesamoid
60
Q

What are the typical features of a LONG bone?

hint: 3

A

DIAPHYSIS: long shaft, surround medullary cavity

EPIPHYSES: forces transferred in different directions through TRABECULAR (ends)

ARTICULAR CARTILAGE: smooth cartilage, bone forms to joint

61
Q

What are the 3 main components of bone tissue?

A
  • GROUND SUBSTANCE: 2/3 , minerals, hydroxyapatite crystals, calcium salt, ions
  • PROTEIN: 1/3, type 1 collagen fibres(most abundent)
  • BONE CELLS: 2%
62
Q

what are the 4 types of cells classified as ‘bone cells’?

A

mesenchymal stem cells
osteoblasts
osteocytes
osteoclasts

63
Q

what are the roles of:
1.osteoblasts
2.osteocytes
3.osteoclasts

A
  1. build new bone (Builders)
  2. maintain bone, communicates through canaliculi
  3. acids and enzyme dissolve old bone (Crushers)
64
Q

Structure of compact bone

( compare to trabecular bone)

A

OSTEON: column, strength

CENTRAL CANAL: blood supply through osteons

LAMELLAE: layers of matrix

LACUNAE: dimples, osteocytes sit

65
Q

Structure of trabecular bone

(compare to compact bone )

A

NO OSTEONS

TRABECULAE: rods/bone arches, strength if diff direction

RED BONE MARROW: fill between trabeculae, nutrients

YELLOW BONE MARROW: fat store in medullary cavity

66
Q

Compare compact and trabecular bone

A
  • C =more dense than T
  • C =osteons T =cross bridge network
  • C = outer shaft long bone T = inside short/flat bone,
67
Q

Compare periosteum and endosteum

A

PERIOSTEUM: fibrous and cellular layer, nerves and lymphatic vessels
ENDOSTEUM: just cellular layer

68
Q

what is the name of bone formation?
what are the 3 types?

A

OSSIFICATION

Intramembraneous ossification

Endochondral ossification

Appositional bone growth

69
Q
  1. How are flat bones formed?
  2. What is the process called?
A
    • mesenchymal cells differentiate into osteoblasts
      - ossification forms spicules of bones
      - trabecular bone formed
      - remodelled to compact bone
  2. Intramembraneous ossification
70
Q
  1. What is the name of the process when cartilage turns to bone?
  2. How does it happen?
A
  1. Endochondral Ossification

2.- chondrocytes in cartilage get big and die
- osteoblast cover thin layer of bone shaft
- blood vessel and osteoblast penetrate, form primary ossification centre
- this gets bigger, 2ndary ossification centre form at epiphyses
- epiphyseal cartilage surround the 2 centres (growth plate)

71
Q

What is appositional bone growth?

A

bones width increases
- bone deposited by osteoblasts
- bone reabsorbed by osteoclasts

72
Q

Explain how bone remodelling occurs

Explain roles of osteoclasts, osteoblasts, osteocytes

A
  • bone break down and reform
  • osteoClasts resorp, osteoBlasts form
  • osteoCytes detect force loading on bone
  • PTH (hormone) makes bones break down, release Ca
  • Calcitonin, makes bones form to store Ca
73
Q

How does a fracture repair occur ?

A
  1. fracture haematoma (clot), hold fracture in place
  2. external + internal callus form (extra security)
  3. external callus replaced by bone
  4. remodelled to normal bone
74
Q

Name the:
- 3 sections of AXIAL skeleton

  • 4 sections of APPENDICULAR skeleton
A

AXIAL:
- skull (and face bones)
- thoracic cage
- vertebral column

APPEDICULAR:
- pectoral girdle
- upper limbs
- pelvic girdle
- lower limbs

75
Q

Name the 6 areas of the cranium and where they are located?

A
  1. FRONTAL BONE = forehead
  2. PARIETAL BONE = parting
  3. TEMPORAL BONE= temples
  4. OCCIPITAL = base
  5. SPHENOID = side of face, connect cranial and facial
  6. ETHMOID = septum
76
Q

Name: (facial bones)
1. cheek bones
2. upper jaw (main bone)
3. bottom jaw

A
  1. zygomatic bones
  2. maxillary bones
  3. mandible
77
Q

How do facial bones support functions of the face?

A
  • support cavities and sense organs
  • attach muscles/structures for speech, facial expression, chewing
78
Q

Name 4 different facial sinuses and where they are located?

A
  • FRONTAL = middle above eyebrows
  • ETHMOIDAL = top of nose
  • SPHENOIDAL = nose bridge
  • MAXILLARY = inner cheeks, side of nose
79
Q

__________ is the feature that allows babies skulls to keep growing

A

Fontanels

80
Q

How many bones are in the vertebral column?

A

26

81
Q

Name the 5 sections of the vertebral column
How many bones are in each section?

A

Cervical 7
Thoracic 12
Lumbar 5
Sacrum 1
Coccygeal 1

82
Q

Name the 5 different areas + their role of a vertebral region

A
  1. BODY = weight bearing, invertebral discs separate
  2. ARCH = pedicle + lamina, protects
  3. SPINOUS PROCESS = muscle attach
  4. TRANSVERSE PROCESS = muscle attach
  5. ARTICULAR PROCESSES = facets, join vertebrae above + below
83
Q

Describe the difference in shape, features and spinous process in :
- cervical
- thoracic
- lumbar
Areas of the vertebrae

A

1) Shape:
C = oval body
T= heart shape body
L = massive

2) Features
C = transverse foramina (bloody supply to brain)
T = facet for rib attachment
L = blade transverse process (stick out horizontal)

3) Spinous process
C =split
T = long facing down
L = normal

84
Q

How many pairs of ‘true’ and ‘false’ ribs are there in the rib cage?

A

True = 7
False = 5

85
Q

The ribs are a ______________ bone.
___________ articulates with the _____________ process of the vertebrae.
_________________ articulate with the sternum.

A

curved flat bone

tubercule , transverse

Costal cartilages

86
Q

What are the functions and features of the pectoral girdle?

A

Clavicles + scapulae
- enables versatile movement
- articulation of the arm

87
Q

Describe the bones in the upper limb

hint: how they articulate with each other

A

HUMERUS: head with scapula, distal condyles with forearm
RADIUS: head with humerus, distal end in wrist
ULNA trochlear notch with humerus, Olecranon = elbow
HAND AND WRIST

88
Q

Describe the structure of the hand and wrist

hint:
How many bones in adult hand?
How many of each section?

A
  • 27 bones
  • 2 rows of CARPALS: (proximal with radius, distal with metacarpals)
  • METACARPALS = support palm
  • PHALANGES = 3 per finger proximal middle distal, 2 in thumb
89
Q

What 3 bones fuse to form the coxal bone (pelvis)?

What is the name of the surface that articulates with the femur?

A
  1. ilium = biggest
  2. Ischium = supports weight
  3. pubis = pubic region

ACETABULUM

90
Q

Describe the differences in a male and female pelvis

A

Pelvic outlet
M = narrow
F = broad

Pubic angle
M = 90degrees or less
F = 100degrees or more

91
Q

Describe the bones in the lower limb

hint: articulation and structure

A

FEMUR head, neck, greater trochanter, shaft, condyles
TIBIA medial+lateral condyles join to femur, distal end in ankle joint
FIBULA head articulate with tibia, shaft, distal = MALLEOULUS (ankle side)

92
Q

Describe the bones in the ankle/foot

hint: name of heel, largest bone in ankle, big toe name

A

TALUS, ankle articulate with tibia fibia
CALCANEUS, heel
5 metatarsals
Hallux = big toe

93
Q

What is the name of the curvature on the bottom of the foot?

A

NAVICULAR

94
Q

JOINTS
what are the 3 functional categories of joints?
What movement do they allow?

A

SYNARTHROSIS : immovable

AMPHIARTHROSIS: slight movement

DIARTHROSIS: free movement

95
Q

name 3 types of rotation?

A

left or right
medial
lateral

96
Q

what are the 4 structural classifications of joints?

A

fibrous
synovial
cartilaginous
bony fussion

97
Q

BONY JOINT
1.actual name:
2. movement allowed:
3. example:

A
  1. synostosis
  2. synarthrosis
  3. between L+R frontal bone on head
98
Q

FIBROUS JOINTS
1. how many?
2. names
3. movements
4. examples

A
  1. 3 types
  2. Suture, gomphosis, syndesmosis

SUTURE: synarthrosis, cranium, collagen join bones

GOMPHOSIS: synarthrosis, teeth+jaw, ligament

SYNDESMOSIS: amphiarthrosis, tibia+fibia ligament

99
Q

CARTILAGINOUS
1. how many
2. names
3. movement
4. examples

A
  1. 2
  2. Synchondrosis, symphysis

SYNCHONDROSIS: synarthrosis, costal cartilage

SYMPHYSIS: amphiarthrosis, pubic symphysis

100
Q

SYNOVIAL JOINT
1) 4 main structures?
2) 4 accessory structures and their functions?

A

1) articular cartilage, joint capsule, synovial membrane, synovial fluid

2) - Ligaments: support, strong, dense reg connect tissue

  • Bursae: synovial fluid pocket, less friction
  • Fat Pads: protection
  • Menisci: cushion
101
Q

Name 6 types of synovial joint?

A

condylar
ball and socket
gliding
hinge
saddle
pivot

102
Q

what are the 3 elements on an vertebrae articulation?

  1. what is the name of the joint surface?
A
  1. FIBROCARTILAGE PADS: symphysis
  2. ANNULUS FIBROSIS: outer fibrous layer
  3. NUCLEUS PULPOSUS: elastic core
  4. articular facet
103
Q

what type of joint is the intervertebral articular joint?

A

diarthrotic gliding joint

104
Q

compare and contrast shoulder and hip joint

A

both ball and socket

shoulder = GLENOID LABRUM, fibrocartilage ring
but
him = ACETABULAR LABRUM. deep + stronger cavity

105
Q

describe the elbow joint

type
articulations

A

hinge joint
ulna trochlear notch + humerus trochlea

humerus capitulum + radius head

106
Q

describe the knee joint

type
articulations

A

complex hinge joint

medial+lateral condyles
menisci articulations

ligaments maintain structure

107
Q

what ligaments in the knee prevent front+back movement?

what ligaments allow slight lateral movement?

A

anterior + posterior cruciate

tibial + fibula collateral

108
Q

name 3 common injuries at joints

A

SPRAIN: tear ligament

DISLOCATION: articulating surfaces displace

SUBLUXATION: partial dislocation

109
Q

name 3 common joint diseases

A

OSTEOARTHRITIS: age, articular cartilage damaged

RHEUMATOID ARTHRITIS: inflammation, autoimmune condition

GOUTY ARTHRITIS: crystals in joint, metabolic disorder

110
Q
A

Sport Science sem 1 (2 decks)

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