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Sport Science sem 1 > A&P sem1 > Flashcards

A&P sem1 Flashcards

1
Q

describe levels of organisation in the cells

A
  • chemical e.g: h20
  • cell
  • tissue
  • organ e.g: lungs
    -system e.g: cardiovascular
    organism e.g: human
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2
Q

what are the 11 systems

A

**integumentary **- protection, sensation, thermoregulation

cardio vasucalar

**reproductive **- support developing foetus

digestive

skeletal

muscular

urinary - waste excretion, control blood

lymphatic - immune defence, pathogen

nervous - communication, control

endocrine - communication through hormones, glands
respiratory

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3
Q

describe the 4 types of tissue

A

connective - store energy, fill internal spaces
**epithelial **- layers of cells
neural - ability to conduct electrical impulses
muscular - ability to contract

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4
Q

Organ definition

A

DISCRETE COLLECTION OF TWO OR MORE TISSUES COOPERATIVELY PERFORMING A FUNCTION

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5
Q

POSITIONING
towards feet
towards head
nearest trunk of body
furthest trunk of body
towards belly button
away from belly button
towards back
towards front

A

towards feet = SUPERIOR

towards head = INFERIOR

nearest trunk of body =
PROXIMAL

furthest trunk of body = DISTAL

towards belly button = MEDIAL

away from belly button = LATERAL

towards back POSTERIOR/DORSAL

towards front ANTERIOR/VENTRAL

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6
Q

frontal plane
transverse plane
sagittal plane

A

frontal - cut front and back in half
transverse - cut legs off
sagittal - between eyes

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7
Q

Cavities
Back of body

front of body

A

Back = dorsal , brain and spinal chord

Front = ventral,
Thoracic cavity : plural and pericardial cavity)
Abdominopelvic cavity: abdominal, pelvic, peritoneal cavities

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8
Q

homeostasis
+
-

A

maintenance of constant internal environment
+ = exaggerates difference
- = returns to normal

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9
Q

Anatomy of:
CNS
PNS

A

CNS = brain+spinal chord, transmit motor commands, sensory data

PNS = tissue outside CNS, deliver sensory info to CNS, motor commands to peripheral tissue

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10
Q

homeostasis:
stimulus journey

A

stimulus
receptor
control centre
effector
response

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11
Q

what are the 3 types of receptors?

A

special sensory = senses

visceral sensory = internal organs

somatic sensory = skeletal muscle, joints, skin surface

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12
Q

NERVOUS SYSTEM
what division does:
- sensory info
- motor commands
go to?

A

sensory = AFFERENT
motor = EFFERENT

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13
Q

NERVOUS SYSTEM
what’s the difference between somatic and autonomic nervous system

What are the 2 divisions autonomic system includes

A

Somatic, have to think about your next action

Autonomic, body responds automatically via PARASYMPATHETIC (rest and digest) / SYMPATHETIC (fight or flight)

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14
Q

NERVOUS SYSTEM
what are the 4 structures of neurones?
where are they found?

A

anaxonic = brain. small, not common

bipolar = special sense organs

unipolar = cell body lies to one side, sensory neurones of pns

multi polar = cns, control skeletal muscle, 2 or more dendrites, single axon

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15
Q

Spinal chord
What neurones are myelinated, grey or white matter?

A

Grey matter = unmyelinated neurones

White matter = myelinated afferent neurones, rapid signal delivery

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16
Q

how many segments are there in the spinal chord?

A

31

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17
Q

what does each segment of the spinal chord contain?
and what do these do in the segment?

A

pair of dorsal root ganglia = sensory info to spinal chord through sensory neurones and cell bodies

pair of ventral roots = axons and motor neurones

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18
Q

where do dorsal roots and ventral roots bind?

A

in a single spinal nerve

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19
Q

SPINAL CHORD
what is a dermatome?

A

specific section of skin controlled by spinal nerves

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20
Q

describe the process of a reflex arc?

A

1)STIMULUS, activates receptor
2)SENSORY NEURONE activated through dorsal root
3) info processed by CNS
4)MOTOR NEURONE activated through ventral root
5)RESPONSE, by peripheral effector

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21
Q

What is a Golgi tendon organ?

A
  • muscle contracts, senses tension in tendon
  • has inhibitive afferent neuron
  • too much tension, GTO releases to protect
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22
Q

BRAIN: CEREBRUM
what are the 4 areas and what are they responsible for?

A

FRONTAL LOBE - voluntary motor association area, speech

TEMPORAL LOBE - auditory association area

OCCIPITAL LOBE - visual association area

PARIETAL LOBE - somatic sensory association area

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23
Q

BRAIN
Physical protection?

hint: 3

A
  • cranium bones
  • cranial meninges, 3 layers
  • cerebrospinal fluid, surrounds all exposed areas of cos
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24
Q

BRAIN
Biochemical isolation?

A

blood brain barrier, CNS isolated from general circulation

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25
Q

CRANIAL NERVES
On
On
On
They
Travelled
And
Found
Voldemourt
Guarding
Very
Ancient
Horcruxes

A

Olfactory (S)
Optic (S)
Occulomotor (M)
Trochlear (M)
Trigeminal (B)
Abducens (M)
Facial (B)
Vestibulocochlear (S)
Glossopharyngeal (B)
Vagus (B0
Accessory (M)
Hypoglossal (M)

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26
Q

CRANIAL NERVES ROLE:
Olfactory (S)

Optic (S)

Occulomotor (M)

Trochlear (M)

A

Sensor, Receptor - olfactory epithelium in nasal cavity

Sensor, Receptor - retina

Motor, Control eye movement

Motor, control eye movement

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27
Q

CRANIAL NERVES ROLE 2:
Trigeminal (B)

Abducens (M)

Facial (B)

Vestibulocochlear (S)

A

Sensor, eyes, nose, forehead, structures of the mouth.
Motor, control of the chewing muscles

Motor, control lateral movement of eye.

Sensor of taste
Motor, control of facial expressions, tear gland and salivary glands

Sensor, balance and hearing

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28
Q

CRANIAL NERVES ROLE 3

Glossopharyngeal (B)

Vagus (B)

Accessory (M)

Hypoglossal (M)

A

Sensor, taste
Motor, control of pharyngeal muscles for swallowing.

roles in abdomen and thorax, key in cv system

Motor, control neck and upper back.

Motor, control muscles in tongue

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29
Q

BRAIN
What are the 3 layers on the cranial meninges?

A

1.dura matter (outside)
2. arachnoid matter (middle)
3. pia matter (inner)

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30
Q

what is a cell membranes resting potential?

A

-70mV

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31
Q

What are the 4 types of channels in a cell membrane called?

A
  • Leak channels (always open)
  • Gated channels (open depending on circumstances)
  • Voltage-gated
  • Mechanically-gated (respond to pressure e.g: pressing on skin)
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32
Q

Describe:
Depolarization

Repolarization

Hyperpolarization

A

Depolar = more Na+ into cell so more +, closer to 0mV

Repolar = Na+ back out of cell, back to resting potential

Hyper = K+ channels open, more + leaves, so even lower than -70mV

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33
Q

Describe the chemical gradient on a cell membrane?
What element moves quickest?
What is attracted where?

A

Higher conc of K+ inside, and higher Na+ outside

K+ moves out faster than Na+ in
Outside + repels K+
Inside - attracts Na+
K+ still move so net loss of +

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34
Q

What is a graded/local potential?

A
  • small stimuli exposes membrane to chemical
  • Na+ channel opens = Depolarisation
  • depolarisation causes local potential
  • stimuli removed = repolarisation

Not always big enough to cause full action potential

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35
Q

What is continuous propagation?

A

Mexican wave behaviour

Membrane depolarised to +30mV by AP, Na+ then move away to second segment

Causes new AP there

First segment = refractory period

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36
Q

How is an action potential created?

A
  • depolarisation of membrane to threshold -60mV
  • Na+ gates open, Na+ in until +30mV
  • Na+ gates close, K+ gates open
  • brief hyperpolarisation then resting potential
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37
Q

What is saltatory propagation?

A

when AP jumps from node to node along myelinated axon

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38
Q

Differences between:
Graded Potential and Action Potential?

A

1GP: no threshold
1AP: must reach threshold

2GP: amount hyper/depolar depends on stimulus
2AP: all or none

3GP: hyperpolaristing or depolarising
3AP: always depolarising

4GP: no refractory period
4AP: refractory period

5GP: most effect on membrane potential occurs closest to stimulation site
5AP: same strength of propagation across whole membrane

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39
Q

What are the 2 types of neurotransmitters?

A

Excitatory =
- depolarisation postsynaptic membrane, encourages AP

Inhibitory =
- hyper polarisation of postsynaptic membrane, suppress AP

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40
Q

Describe how acetylcholine is realised from a cholinergic synapse?

A
  • AP depolarises pre synaptic terminal
  • Ca2+ enters, Act released by exocytosis in synaptic vesicles
  • Ach diffuses, binds to postsynaptic receptors
  • Na+ channels open = graded depolarisation
  • depolarisation stops as Act broken down
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41
Q

NEUROTRANSMITTERS:
Name 5 important neurotransmitters

A

Acetylcholine
GABA
Dopamine
Serotonin
Norepinephrine/Noradrenaline

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42
Q

NEUROTRANSMITTERS:
Inhibitory or excitatory?
Released by?
What does it do?

GABA, DOPAMINE, SEROTONIN, NOREPINEPHRINE

A

GABA = inhib, not known

DOPAMINE = excit/inhib, precise muscle control, dopaminergic synapse in CNS

SEROTONIN = excit/inhib, sleep and wake cycle, serotonergic synapse In CNS

NORADRENALINE = excit, brain, adrenergic synapse

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43
Q

TISSUE
What are the different layers (2) and shapes (4) of EPITHELIAL tissue?

A

Layers:
1) simple
2) stratified

Shapes:
1) cuboidal
2) squamous
3) Columnar
4) transitional

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44
Q

TISSUE
What are the 2 components of neural tissue?

A

Neurones
Neuroglia = support e.g: phagocytosis, repair damaged tissue, nutrients, maintain structure

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45
Q

TISSUE
Summarise the 3 types of muscle tissues?

A

SKELETAL = striated, voluntary control
CARDIAC = striated, involuntary, intercalated disks (electrical)
SMOOTH = visceral organs e.g: lungs, liver, heart

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46
Q

EPITHELIAL TISSUE 1:
describe:
1. simple squamous
2. stratified squamous
3.simple cuboidal
4.stratified cuboidal
5.transitional

A
  1. ALVEOLI diffusion, line blood vessels, flat
  2. SKIN line skin, basement membrane has new stem cells, daughter cells pushed to surface = protection
  3. GLAND secretion, tube/duct
  4. SWEAT GLAND layers, protection, some cells destroyed in secretion
  5. change shape, expand contract with bladder contents
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47
Q

EPITHELIAL TISSUE 2:
1. simple columnar
2. pseudostratified columnar
3. stratified columnar

A
  1. absorption, microvilli on surface= big SA, height = protection
  2. nuclei at different heights, cilia move mucus, respiratory tract
  3. layers = protection, pharynx
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48
Q

TISSUE
Summarise 3 types of glandular secretion

A

MEROCRINE = merely vesicles discharged
APOCRINE = part of cytoplasm shared
HOLOCRINE = whole cell bursts

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49
Q

TISSUE
What are 3 main components of connective tissue?

A
  • CELLS = fibroblasts, macrophage,apidocytes
  • FIBRES = collagen, elastic, 3d branching
  • GROUND SUBSTANCE= blood, cartilage, bone
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50
Q

TISSUE
What are the 3 types of cartilage?

A

HYALINE = chondrocyte, strong, flexible
ELASTIC = more elastic than collagen
FIBROCARTILAGE = intervertebral disk, strong, protect, little movement

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51
Q

TISSUE
What are the 3 types of dense connective tissue?

A

DENSE REGULAR = tendon, ligament, fibroblasts/collagen so stretchy

DENSE IRREGULAR = tough sheets around organs, collagen

ELASTIC = less common, parallel arrangement

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52
Q

TISSUE
What are the 2 types of loose connective tissue?

A

ADIPOSE = apidocytes. padding, energy, fill area, insulate

RECTICULAR = structure, e.g: around kidney, liver

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53
Q

TISSUE
what cells produces/maintains cartilage tissue?

A

chondrocyte

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54
Q

functions of the skeletal system?

A
  • Support against gravity
  • Leverage for muscle action
  • Protection of soft internal organs
  • Storage: Calcium, phosphorous, fat
  • Blood cell production
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55
Q

TISSUE
What are the 4 types of tissue membranes?

A
  1. MUCOUS MEMBRANE: mucous attract pathogens, cilia clear mucous, areolar under
  2. SEROUS MEMBRANE: line body cavity, slippery, lube = transudate
  3. SKIN: stratified squamous epithelium, dense irregular connective tissue so strong
  4. SYNOVIAL: line, fluid and nutrition for joint
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56
Q

TISSUE
What are the 3 layers between skin and body?

hint: fascia

A

1.body
2. subserous fascia: areolar tissue
3. deep fascia: dense connective tissue
4.superficial fascia: areolar + adipose tissue

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57
Q

TISSUE
Describe the 3 different types of muscle TISSUE

A

SKELETAL: striated cells, attach to bones
CARDIAC: striated, intercalated disk allows electric around heart
SMOOTH: smooth, spindle shape cells, blood vessel wall

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58
Q

What does the skeletal system include?

hint: 5

A
  • bones
  • cartilage
  • joint
  • ligament
  • other connective tissue
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59
Q

BONE
What are the 6 different types of bone?

A
  1. flat: internal table, dipole, external table
  2. long: longer than they are wide, levers
  3. short: transfer forces for subtle movements
  4. irregular: complex shape
  5. sutral: between skull bones
  6. sesamoid
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60
Q

BONE
What are the typical features of a LONG bone?

hint: 3

A

DIAPHYSIS: long shaft, surround medullary cavity

EPIPHYSES: forces transferred in different directions through TRABECULAR (ends)

ARTICULAR CARTILAGE: smooth cartilage, bone forms to joint

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61
Q

BONE
What are the 3 main components of bone tissue?

A
  • GROUND SUBSTANCE: 2/3 , minerals, hydroxyapatite crystals, calcium salt, ions
  • PROTEIN: 1/3, type 1 collagen fibres(most abundent)
  • BONE CELLS: 2%
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62
Q

BONE
what are the 4 types of cells classified as ‘bone cells’?

A

mesenchymal stem cells
osteoblasts
osteocytes
osteoclasts

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63
Q

BONE
what are the roles of:
1.osteoblasts
2.osteocytes
3.osteoclasts

A
  1. build new bone (Builders)
  2. maintain bone, communicates through canaliculi
  3. acids and enzyme dissolve old bone (Crushers)
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64
Q

BONE
Structure of compact bone

( compare to trabecular bone)

A

OSTEON: column, strength

CENTRAL CANAL: blood supply through osteons

LAMELLAE: layers of matrix

LACUNAE: dimples, osteocytes sit

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65
Q

BONE
Structure of trabecular bone

(compare to compact bone )

A

NO OSTEONS

TRABECULAE: rods/bone arches, strength if diff direction

RED BONE MARROW: fill between trabeculae, nutrients

YELLOW BONE MARROW: fat store in medullary cavity

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66
Q

BONE
Compare compact and trabecular bone

A
  • C =more dense than T
  • C =osteons T =cross bridge network
  • C = outer shaft long bone T = inside short/flat bone,
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67
Q

BONE
Compare periosteum and endosteum

A

PERIOSTEUM: outside bone, fibrous and cellular layer, nerves and lymphatic vessels
ENDOSTEUM: inside bone, just cellular layer

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68
Q

BONE
what is the name of bone formation?
what are the 3 types?

A

OSSIFICATION

Intramembraneous ossification

Endochondral ossification

Appositional bone growth

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69
Q

BONE
1. How are flat bones formed?
2. What is the process called?

A
    • mesenchymal cells differentiate into osteoblasts
      - ossification forms spicules of bones
      - trabecular bone formed
      - remodelled to compact bone
  2. Intramembraneous ossification
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70
Q

BONE
1. What is the name of the process when cartilage turns to bone?
2. How does it happen?

A
  1. Endochondral Ossification

2.- chondrocytes in cartilage get big and die
- osteoblast cover thin layer of bone shaft
- blood vessel and osteoblast penetrate, form primary ossification centre
- this gets bigger, 2ndary ossification centre form at epiphyses
- epiphyseal cartilage surround the 2 centres (growth plate)

71
Q

BONE
What is appositional bone growth?

A

bones width increases
- bone deposited by osteoblasts
- bone reabsorbed by osteoclasts

72
Q

BONE
Explain how bone remodelling occurs

Explain roles of osteoclasts, osteoblasts, osteocytes

A
  • bone break down and reform
  • osteoClasts resorp, osteoBlasts form
  • osteoCytes detect force loading on bone
  • PTH (hormone) makes bones break down, release Ca
  • Calcitonin, makes bones form to store Ca
73
Q

BONE
How does a fracture repair?

A
  1. fracture haematoma (clot), hold fracture in place
  2. external + internal callus form (extra security)
  3. external callus replaced by bone
  4. remodelled to normal bone
74
Q

BONE
Name the:
- 3 sections of AXIAL skeleton

  • 4 sections of APPENDICULAR skeleton
A

AXIAL:
- skull (and face bones)
- thoracic cage
- vertebral column

APPEDICULAR:
- pectoral girdle
- upper limbs
- pelvic girdle
- lower limbs

75
Q

BONE
Name the 6 areas of the cranium and where they are located?

A
  1. FRONTAL BONE = forehead
  2. PARIETAL BONE = parting
  3. TEMPORAL BONE= temples
  4. OCCIPITAL = base
  5. SPHENOID = side of face, connect cranial and facial
  6. ETHMOID = septum
76
Q

BONE
Name: (facial bones)
1. cheek bones
2. upper jaw (main bone)
3. bottom jaw

A
  1. zygomatic bones
  2. maxillary bones
  3. mandible
77
Q

BONE
How do facial bones support functions of the face?

A
  • support cavities and sense organs
  • attach muscles/structures for speech, facial expression, chewing
78
Q

BONE
Name 4 different facial sinuses and where they are located?

A
  • FRONTAL = middle above eyebrows
  • ETHMOIDAL = top of nose
  • SPHENOIDAL = nose bridge
  • MAXILLARY = inner cheeks, side of nose
79
Q

BONE
__________ is the feature that allows babies skulls to keep growing

80
Q

BONE
How many bones are in the vertebral column?

81
Q

BONE
Name the 5 sections of the vertebral column
How many bones are in each section?

A

Cervical 7
Thoracic 12
Lumbar 5
Sacrum 1
Coccygeal 1

82
Q

BONE
Name the 5 different areas + their role of a vertebral region

A
  1. BODY = weight bearing, invertebral discs separate
  2. ARCH = pedicle + lamina, protects
  3. SPINOUS PROCESS = muscle attach
  4. TRANSVERSE PROCESS = muscle attach
  5. ARTICULAR PROCESSES = facets, join vertebrae above + below
83
Q

BONE
Describe the difference in shape, features and spinous process in :
- cervical
- thoracic
- lumbar
Areas of the vertebrae

A

1) Shape:
C = oval body
T= heart shape body
L = massive

2) Features
C = transverse foramina (bloody supply to brain)
T = facet for rib attachment
L = blade transverse process (stick out horizontal)

3) Spinous process
C =split
T = long facing down
L = normal

84
Q

BONE
How many pairs of ‘true’ and ‘false’ ribs are there in the rib cage?

A

True = 7
False = 5

85
Q

BONE
The ribs are a ______________ bone.
___________ articulates with the _____________ process of the vertebrae.
_________________ articulate with the sternum.

A

curved flat bone

tubercule , transverse

Costal cartilages

86
Q

BONE
What are the functions and features of the pectoral girdle?

A

Clavicles + scapulae
- enables versatile movement
- articulation of the arm

87
Q

BONE
Describe the bones in the upper limb

hint: how they articulate with each other

A

HUMERUS: head with scapula, distal condyles with forearm
RADIUS: head with humerus, distal end in wrist
ULNA trochlear notch with humerus, Olecranon = elbow
HAND AND WRIST

88
Q

BONE
Describe the structure of the hand and wrist

hint:
How many bones in adult hand?
How many of each section?

A
  • 27 bones
  • 2 rows of CARPALS: (proximal with radius, distal with metacarpals)
  • METACARPALS = support palm
  • PHALANGES = 3 per finger proximal middle distal, 2 in thumb
89
Q

BONE
What 3 bones fuse to form the coxal bone (pelvis)?

What is the name of the surface that articulates with the femur?

A
  1. ilium = biggest
  2. Ischium = supports weight
  3. pubis = pubic region

ACETABULUM

90
Q

BONE
Describe the differences in a male and female pelvis

A

Pelvic outlet
M = narrow
F = broad

Pubic angle
M = 90degrees or less
F = 100degrees or more

91
Q

BONE
Describe the bones in the lower limb

hint: articulation and structure

A

FEMUR head, neck, greater trochanter, shaft, condyles
TIBIA medial+lateral condyles join to femur, distal end in ankle joint
FIBULA head articulate with tibia, shaft, distal = MALLEOULUS (ankle side)

92
Q

BONE
Describe the bones in the ankle/foot

hint: name of heel, largest bone in ankle, big toe name

A

TALUS, ankle articulate with tibia fibia
CALCANEUS, heel
5 metatarsals
Hallux = big toe

93
Q

BONE
What is the name of the curvature on the bottom of the foot?

94
Q

JOINTS
what are the 3 functional categories of joints?
What movement do they allow?

A

SYNARTHROSIS : immovable

AMPHIARTHROSIS: slight movement

DIARTHROSIS: free movement

95
Q

JOINTS
name 3 types of rotation?

A

left or right
medial
lateral

96
Q

JOINTS
what are the 4 structural classifications of joints?

A

fibrous
synovial
cartilaginous
bony fussion

97
Q

BONY JOINT
1.actual name:
2. movement allowed:
3. example:

A
  1. synostosis
  2. synarthrosis
  3. between L+R frontal bone on head
98
Q

FIBROUS JOINTS
1. how many?
2. names
3. movements
4. examples

A
  1. 3 types
  2. Suture, gomphosis, syndesmosis

SUTURE: synarthrosis, cranium, collagen join bones

GOMPHOSIS: synarthrosis, teeth+jaw, ligament

SYNDESMOSIS: amphiarthrosis, tibia+fibia ligament

99
Q

CARTILAGINOUS JOINT
1. how many
2. names
3. movement
4. examples

A
  1. 2
  2. Synchondrosis, symphysis

SYNCHONDROSIS: synarthrosis, costal cartilage

SYMPHYSIS: amphiarthrosis, pubic symphysis

100
Q

SYNOVIAL JOINT
1) 4 main structures?
2) 4 accessory structures and their functions?

A

1) articular cartilage, joint capsule, synovial membrane, synovial fluid

2) - Ligaments: support, strong, dense reg connect tissue

  • Bursae: synovial fluid pocket, less friction
  • Fat Pads: protection
  • Menisci: cushion
101
Q

Name 6 types of synovial joint?

A

condylar
ball and socket
gliding
hinge
saddle
pivot

102
Q

JOINT
what are the 3 elements on an vertebrae articulation?

  1. what is the name of the joint surface?
A
  1. FIBROCARTILAGE PADS: symphysis
  2. ANNULUS FIBROSIS: outer fibrous layer
  3. NUCLEUS PULPOSUS: elastic core
  4. articular facet
103
Q

JOINT
what type of joint is the intervertebral articular joint?

A

diarthrotic gliding joint

104
Q

JOINT
compare and contrast shoulder and hip joint

A

both ball and socket

shoulder = GLENOID LABRUM, fibrocartilage ring
but
hip = ACETABULAR LABRUM. deep + stronger cavity

105
Q

JOINT
describe the elbow joint

type
articulations

A

hinge joint
ulna trochlear notch + humerus trochlea

humerus capitulum + radius head

106
Q

JOINT
describe the knee joint

type
articulations

A

complex hinge joint

medial+lateral condyles
menisci articulations

ligaments maintain structure

107
Q

JOINT
what ligaments in the knee prevent front+back movement?

what ligaments allow slight lateral movement?

A

anterior + posterior cruciate

tibial + fibula collateral

108
Q

JOINT
3 common injuries at joints

A

SPRAIN: tear ligament

DISLOCATION: articulating surfaces displace

SUBLUXATION: partial dislocation

109
Q

JOINT
name 3 common joint diseases

(types of arthritis)

A

OSTEOARTHRITIS: age, articular cartilage damaged

RHEUMATOID ARTHRITIS: inflammation, autoimmune condition

GOUTY ARTHRITIS: crystals in joint, metabolic disorder

110
Q

MUSCLE
what are 4 roles of the muscles in the body

A
  • movement
  • structure, posture
  • thermoregulation
  • storing/moving substances
111
Q

MUSCLES
what is the name of a bundle of muscle fibres

A

fasciculus

112
Q

MUSCLES
what are fasciculus surrounded by

A

perimysium
endomysium (layer of tissues)

113
Q

MUSCLES
what is the excitable membrane around fibres called?

A

sarcolemma

114
Q

MUSCLES
what is the intracellular fluid called in muscle fibres?

A

sarcoplasm

115
Q

MUSCLES
what is the name of the fibrils in muscle fibres?

A

myofibrils

116
Q

MUSCLES
what are myofibrils composed of?

A

sarcomeres

117
Q

MUSCLES
what are sarcomeres composed of?

A

myofilaments

118
Q

MUSCLES
what are the two main components in the sarcomere

A

actin + myosin

119
Q

MUSCLES
describe actin

A

thin filament
tropomyosin covers binding sites
double helical strand

120
Q

MUSCLES
describe myosin

A

thick filament
2 subunits:
S1: globular head
S2: flexibile region, tail

121
Q

MUSCLES
SLIDING FILAMENT
what is the name of:
1. the molecular spring
2. ‘scaffolding/glue’

A
  1. titin
  2. nebula, desmin
122
Q

MUSCLES
sarcoplasmic reticulum
structure + role

A

interconnecting tubules
regulate Ca+ levels for contraction

123
Q

MUSCLES
summarise the cross bridge cycle (8 stages)

A

1) AP arrives
2) Ca+ released from SR
3) Ca+ attach to troponin
4) tropomyosin move, expose binding site
5) ATP hydrolysis, myosin head move, cross bridge form
6) POWERSTROKE, pi from myosin head, head change angle
7) myosin head pick up new atp, prev bond with actin released
8) repeat until Ca+/ATP level drop

124
Q

MUSCLES
what is the length tension relationship?

clue: 3 diff positions of bicep

A

1) FULL TENSE, filaments overlap, can’t generate tension
2) RIGHT ANGLE ELBOW, some overlap, produce tension
3) FULL EXTENSION, little actin myosin overlap, little opportunity to develop tension

125
Q

MUSCLES
FORCE VELOCITY RELATIONSHIP
is force greater/less than isometric when shortening or lengthening?

A

isometric greater than shortening, less time for myosin head to attach to binding site

isometric less than lengthening, force myosin head to detach

126
Q

MUSCLES
TYPE 1, TYPE 2A, TYPE 2X

  1. myosin heavy chain
  2. cross sectional area
  3. appearance
  4. endurance capacity
  5. max force
  6. max shortening capacity
  7. max power
A

1) 1 = MHC I. 2 = MHC IIA. 3 = MHC IIX
2) 1 = small 2 = medium. 3 = large
3) 1= red 2 = pink 3 = white
4) 1 = high. 2 = intermediate. 3 = low
5) 1 = low 2 = intermediate 3 = high
6) 1 = slow 2 = fast 3 = very fast
7) 1 = weak 2 = intermediate 3 = strong

127
Q

MUSCLES
what is the name of the small gap between motor end plate and neurone?

A

synaptic cleft

128
Q

MUSCLES
summarise a nerve impulse is stimulated and travels causing muscle contraction

hint: 9 points

A

1) AP arrives
2) axon terminal depolarised
3) Ca+ into axon terminal
4) ACH release into synaptic cleft
5) ACH react with Na+ channel on post synaptic membrane
6) Na+ channel ope, Na + in, depolarisation
7) muscle cell membrane charge increase, Ca+ channel open, ca+ in
8) Ca+ released from sarcoplasmic recticulum
9) AP stops, ACH re enters neuron as choline + acetic acid

129
Q

MUSCLES
what’s the difference between afferent and efferent neurones

A

AFFERENT: impulse from sensory receptors/sense organ to cns

EFFERENT: impulse from cns to limbs/organs

130
Q

name the 6 GENERAL senses

A
  1. touch
  2. pressure
  3. vibration
  4. temperature
  5. pain
  6. proprioception (body position)
131
Q

name the 5 SPECIAL senses

A
  1. smell (olfaction)
  2. taste (gustation)
  3. vision
  4. hearing
  5. balance (equillibrium)
132
Q

SENSES
what’s the difference between sensation and perception

A

sensation: info that arrives in sensory receptors

perception: when it arrives at conscious awareness

133
Q

SENSES
SMELL/OLFACTORY
1. what is it provided by?
2. where are _____ located?
3. what are _____ made of?

A
  1. paired olfactory organs
  2. upper nasal cavity ,either side of septum
  3. olfactory epithelium, olfactory glands, receptor cells
134
Q

SENSES
SMELL/OLFACTORY
describe the process that allows us to smell
(5 points)

A
  1. air in nasal cavity — olfactory organs
  2. water sol chemicals dissolve in mucus
  3. particles bind to ODORANT BINDING PROTEINS
  4. receptor membrane permeability changed
  5. AP, info — cns
135
Q

SENSES
SMELL/OLFACTORY
what is the pathway of the action potential — brain
(4)

A
  1. AP to axons in olfactory bulb
  2. olfactory tract
  3. olfactory cortex in cerebrum
  4. hypothalamus , part of limbic system
136
Q

SENSES
TASTE
1. what are the name of the receptors?
2. where are they located?
3. what are the 3 different sections of answer2?

A
  1. taste buds
  2. papillae
  3. filiform (0tb) , fungiform (5tb) , circumvallate (100tb)
137
Q

SENSES
TASTE
1. what is the name of the cells in the sensory receptors?
2. what’s the name of the pore these cells are in?

A
  1. gustatory cells
  2. taste pore
138
Q

SENSES
what are the 4 different taste sensations?
bonus point: the 2 extras

A
  1. sweet
  2. salty
  3. sour
  4. bitter
  5. water
  6. umami
139
Q

SENSES
what are the 3 nerves the taste buds are monitored by?

A
  1. facial nerve
  2. glossopharyngeal nerve
  3. vagus nerve
140
Q

SENSES
TASTE
how does the taste sensation occur?
where do sensory fibres synapse?
where do postsynaptic neurone axons synapse?

A
  1. chemicals detected by receptors
  2. membrane potential changes
  3. AP in sensory neuron
  4. sensory fibres synapse @ medullaO nucleus
  5. postsynaptic neurone axons synapse in thalamus
141
Q

SENSES
VISION
1. what is the olfactory organ?
2. what muscles support it?

A
  1. the eye
  2. ocular muscles
142
Q

SENSES
VISION
describe the pathway of light in the eye
describe the structure of: cornea, lens, retina

A
  1. light refracted at cornea + lens
  2. absorbed @ retina by photoreceptors

cornea - water based
lens - hard structure, layers
posterior cavity - surrounded by retina
photo receptors - rods + cones

143
Q

VISION
1. what’s the difference between rods + cones?

A

RODS = presence/absence of light, 100mill, periphery
CONES = colour info, 5mill, central Vision

144
Q

VISION
_________ are in photoreceptors that contains ________ which can be broken into ______ and _______ which allows an _________ to be generated

A

Photopigments
rhodopsin
opsin
retinol
action potential

145
Q

VISION
1. how many optic nerves are there in the eyes?
2. where do these nerves go to?

A
  1. 2
  2. diencephalon @ optic chiasm
    1/2 nerve fibres cross, reach thalamus
    visual cortex of cerebrum
146
Q

HEARING
1. what are the 3 sections of the ear?
2. where are the receptors located? what are they?

A
  1. inner ear, middle ear, outer ear
  2. inner ear, hair cells/mechanoreceptors
147
Q

HEARING, middle ear
1. what is the name of the membrane between in outer+middle ear?
2. what is the name of the 3 different auditory ossicles?
3. what’s the name of the tube connecting it to the throat?

A

air filled cavity
1. separated from outer ear by TYMPANIC MEMBRANE
2. auditory ossicles: malleus, incus, stapes
3. auditory tube

148
Q

HEARING , inner ear
1. where are the receptors?
2. what is the name of the 2 fluids found here?

A
  1. membranous labyrinth, cochlea duct, ORGAN OF CORTI
  2. endolymph + perilymph
149
Q

HEARING, inner ear
1. what is the name of the 3 ducts in the cochlea?

A
  1. vestibula duct
    cochlear duct
    tympanic duct
150
Q

HEARING
describe the process of hearing
(6 points)

A
  1. sound waves reach tympanic membrane
  2. vibration by auditory ossicles
  3. stapes vibrate against oval window
  4. fluid moves hair cells against tectorial membrane
  5. intensity of vibration info stimulate cns, cochlear branch of cranial nerve
  6. axons – medullaO, cochlear nucleus
151
Q

HEARING inner ear
What are the only 2 areas that don’t have dense bone?

A

Tympanic duct base (round window)
Vestibular duct base (oval window)

152
Q

HEARING
where are the sensory receptors located that monitor cochlear hair cells?

A

spiral ganglion

153
Q

EQUILLIBRIUM , inner ear
equilibrium sensation are provided by hair cells of the __________ ___________, ______ _______ ________ & __________

A

vestibular apparatus
semi circular canals
otoliths

154
Q

EQUILLIBRIUM
1. in the inner ear, receptors respond to ________ ________
2. hair cells are located in __________
3. _____________ is the raised structure in ampulla

A
  1. rotational movements
  2. ampulla
  3. crista
155
Q

EQUILLIBRIUM
in the otoliths, what detects:
1. horizontal accelerations
2. vertical accelerations

A
  1. utricle
  2. saccule
156
Q

EQULLIBRIUM
afferent fibres form ________ __________of _____________nerve
fibres synapse on neurones in _____________ _________

A

vesitublar branch, vestibulocochlear
vestibular nuclei

157
Q

EQULLIBRIUM
what are 4 roles of the vestibular nuclei?

A
  1. integrate sensory info from each side of head
  2. relay info to cerebellum
  3. relay info to cerebral cortex
  4. send commands to motor nuclei in brain stem + spinal chord
158
Q

what are the 2 components of the integumentary system?

A
  1. cutaneous membrane
  2. accessory structures
159
Q

name 6 functions of the integumentary system

A
  1. protection
  2. excretion e.g: sweat
    3, maintain body temp
  3. produce melanin + keratin
  4. synthesise vitD
  5. sensation: touch pain pressure
160
Q

INTEGUMENTARY
what are the 3 layers of the cutaneous membrane?

A
  1. epidermis
  2. dermis
  3. hypodermis
161
Q

INTEGUMENTARY
In the cutaneous structure, the epidermis has layers of ___________ ________________ . The _________ membrane is in contact with the ____________ layer of the dermis.

A

stratified epithelium
basement
epithelial

162
Q

INTEGUMENTARY
Describe how the epidermis regenerates
(5 points)

A
  1. STRATUM BASALE (bottom) basal keratinocytes divide and push daughter cells up
  2. STRATUM SPINOSUM keratinocytes shrink + dehydrate
  3. STRATUM GRANULOSUM cells start dying
  4. STRATUM LUCIDUM flat clear cells (thick skin)
  5. STARTUM CORNEUM dead skin, flake off
163
Q

INTEGUMENTARY
____________ _____________ _____________ accelerates growth in the epidermis

A

EGF: epidermal growth factor

164
Q

INTEGUMENTARY
Compare thick and thin skin
THICK
1. location
2. epidermal thickness
3. epidermal strata
4. epidermal ridges
5. hair follicles
6. sweat glands
7. sensory receptors

A

1) fingertips, palm, soles
2) 0.6-4.5mm
3) thick strata lucidum, spinous, corner
4) present
5) absent
6) more
7) more

165
Q

INTEGUMENTARY
Compare thick and thin skin
THIN
1. location
2. epidermal thickness
3. epidermal strata
4. epidermal ridges
5. hair follicles
6. sweat glands
7. sensory receptors

A

1) everywhere else
2) 0.1-0.15mm
3) no strata lucidum, thinner spinosum + corneum
4) absent
5) present
6) less
7) less

166
Q

INTEGUMENTARY
1) The dermis is made of _________ and __________ fibres.
2) The layer closest to epidermis is the __________ layer and is made of _________ ____________.
3) Below this is the ____________ layer and is ___________ .
4) The blood vessels are in the __________ + ____________ plexus.

A

1) collagen , elastin
2) papillary, areolar tissue
3) reticular , fibrous
4) papillary, cutaneous

167
Q

INTEGUMENTARY
HYPODERMIS
1. what does it do so skin can move?
2. what type of tissue is it?
3. name the 2 types of tissue in it
4. what is the hypodermis aka?

A
  1. change shape
  2. loose connective
  3. areolar + adipose
  4. Subcutaneous layer
168
Q

what are the 3 functions of hair?

A
  1. protection
  2. insulation
  3. sensation
169
Q

INTEGUMENTARY - Hair structure
The core is called the ______ and contains soft _________ . It is surrounded by the ___________ which has thick layers of hard ___________. The ________ is thin and tough and contains ______ keratin.
The visible section is the _______ .
In dermis, the _______ ______ muscle is attached which contracts when cold.

A

Medulla, keratin, cortex, keratin, cuticle, hard
shaft
arrector pili

170
Q

INTEGUMENTARY - hair follicle
name the 4 layers, inside – outside

The thicker bulb base is called the _________

A
  1. internal root sheath
  2. external root sheath
  3. glassy membrane
  4. connective tissue sheath

papilla

171
Q

INTEGUMENTARY - hair growth cycle
1. ________ ______ in _______ ________ divide
2. __________ ______ pushed toward surface
3. increasingly _________
4. at end of cycle, follicles become _______ , connections between ______ ________ and ______ break down

A
  1. basal cells, hair matrix
  2. daughter cells
  3. keratinised
  4. inactive, hair matrix , root
172
Q

INTEGUMENTARY - nail structure
from inside to outside

include cuticle name

A
  1. phalanx (bone)
  2. dermis
  3. epidermis
  4. lunula (nail)
  5. eponychium (cuticle)
173
Q

INTEGUMENTARY - sweat glands
Compare + contrast apocrine and merocrine sweat glands

A

APOCRINE =
- secrete into hair follicles, pubic
- body thick odour

MEROCRINE =
- less deep, dermis
- skin duct
- watery fluid

174
Q

INTEGUMENTARY - skin injury repair
8 stages from bleeding wound to complete epidermis

A

1) wound bleeds
2) clot, fibrin network
3) stratum basal cells migrate
4) phagocytic cells engulf pathogens
5) macrophages + fibroblasts produce granulation tissue
6) fibroblasts produce mesh, scab
7) fibrin clot break
8) epidermis complete

Sport Science sem 1 (3 decks)

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