A&P Labs Flashcards

1
Q

Define inferior

A

below

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2
Q

Define dorsal

A

back

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3
Q

Define ventral

A

front

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4
Q

Define anterior

A

forward part of the body

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5
Q

Define posterior

A

backside of the body

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6
Q

Define proximal

A

part of the limb nearest to the point of attachment

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7
Q

Define distal

A

opposite of proximal; most remote from the point of reference (attachment)

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8
Q

Define medial

A

Line that divides the body into right and left halves

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9
Q

Define lateral

A

Applied to appendages; surface farthest from median line

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10
Q

Define caudal

A

Tail end

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11
Q

Define cranial

A

Head end

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12
Q

Define superficial

A

Structures situated toward or near the surface of the body

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13
Q

Define peripheral

A

Towards the surface or outside

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14
Q

Define deep

A

Structures situated away from the body surface, toward the inside of the body

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15
Q

Define sagittal section

A

Vertical cut that divides the body into right and left sides

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16
Q

Define frontal section

A

Horizontal cut that divides the body into posterior and anterior portions

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17
Q

What is a frontal section also called?

A

Coronal section

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18
Q

What are all other sagittal sections called? (Hint: not midsagittal or median)

A

Parasagittal sections

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19
Q

What is the Transverse section?

A

Horizontal cut that divides the body into superior and inferior portions

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20
Q

Transverse sections are also called…?

A

Horizontal or cross sections

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21
Q

List the planes, 1._________ 2._________ 3._________

A
  1. Transverse plane. 2. Frontal plane. 3. Midsagittal plane
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22
Q

What does the Dorsal body cavity contain?

A

Contains brain and spinal cord

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23
Q

Define medial

A

Divides the body into right half and left half.

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24
Q

What is the Spinal (vertebral) cavity? and what does it contain?

A

Long tubular column that contains the spinal cord

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25
Q

What is the Cranial cavity and what does it contain?

A

Hollow portion of the skull that contains the brain

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26
Q

What does the Ventral body cavity contain?

A

Contains the visceral organs of viscera

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27
Q

What does the Thoracic cavity [superior portion of ventral body cavity] contain?

A

Contains right pleural, left pleural and pericardial cavity.

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28
Q

What does the Right pleural cavity contain?

A

Right lung

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29
Q

What does the Left pleural cavity contain?

A

Left lung

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30
Q

What does the Pericardial cavity contain?

A

Heart

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31
Q

What does the abdominopelvic cavity contain?

A

inferior to the diaphragm. consists the abdominal cavity and the pelvic cavity

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32
Q

What does the abdominal cavity contain?

A

stomach, liver, gallbladder, pancreas, spleen, kidneys, and intestines

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33
Q

What does the pelvic cavity contain?

A

inferior to the abdominal cavity. contains urinary bladder, sigmoid colon, rectum, uterus, and ovaries

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34
Q

What are the serous membranes? (function)

A

lining of closed cavities and cover the organs within

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35
Q

the serous membrane that lines the pleural cavities are called?

A

parietal pleurae

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36
Q

the serous membrane that lines the lungs is known as?

A

visceral pleurae

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37
Q

What is the serous membrane that lines the pericardial cavity?

A

parietal pericardium

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38
Q

What serous membranes lines the heart?

A

visceral pericardium

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39
Q

What is the serous membrane of the abdominal cavity?

A

peritoneum

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40
Q

What are the double folds in the peritoneum called?

A

Mesenteries

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41
Q

What does mesenteries do?

A

they extend from the body wall to the viscera, holding these organs in place. they contain blood vessels & nerves that supply the viscera enclosed by the peritoneum

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42
Q

What part of the peritoneum is associated with the walls of the abdominal cavity?

A

parietal peritoneum

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43
Q

What part of the microscope controls the amount of light emitted to the specimen

A

iris diaphragm

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44
Q

What part of the microscope supports the objective lenses

A

revolving nosepiece

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45
Q

What part of the microscope platform for viewing specimens of slides

A

object stage

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46
Q

What part of the microscope ability to distinguish the fine detail of a viewed object

A

fine focus

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47
Q

What part of the microscope controls working distance between slide and the objective lens

A

coarse focus

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48
Q

What part of the microscope ability to change magnification without refocusing

A

parafocal

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49
Q

What part of the microscope concentrates and directs the light up to the specimen

A

condenser

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50
Q

What part of the microscope permits depth perception of viewed object

A

resolution

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51
Q

What part of the microscope allows one to locate a specific area of the slide under view

A

pointer

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52
Q

What are the functions of the nucleus?

A

contains DNA and controls cell activities

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53
Q

Define Diffusion

A

Movement of molecules from a regions of high concentration to a region of lower concentration

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54
Q

Define Selectively permeable/semipermeable

A

Only allows certain molecules to pass through it

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55
Q

Define Osmosis

A

Water molecules that move across a region is high concentration to a region of low concentration

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56
Q

What type of epithelium is found in the lining of the urinary tract?

A

Transitional epithelium

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57
Q

What is the type of epithelium found in the lining of the small intestines?

A

Simple columnar epithelium

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58
Q

What is the type of epithelium found in the lining of the trachea?

A

Pseudo Stratified columnar epithelium

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59
Q

What is the type of epithelium found in forming of the epidermis of the skin?

A

Keratinized stratified cuboidal epithelium

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60
Q

What is the type of epithelium found in the forming of blood capillaries?

A

Simple squamous epithelium

61
Q

What are the 3 components present in all types of connective tissues?

A

Cells, protein fibres, ground substance

62
Q

Name the kind of epithelium best designed for absorption

A

Simple columnar epithelium

63
Q

Name the kind of epithelium best designed for rapid diffusion

A

Simple squamous epithelium

64
Q

Name the kind of epithelium best designed for protection

A

Simple cuboidal epithelium

65
Q

Name the type of connective tissue which forms the framework of the liver, spleen, and lump nodes?

A

Reticular Connective tissue

66
Q

Name the type of connective tissue which fills in the spaces between organs and holds them in place?

A

Areolar connective tissue

67
Q

Name the type of connective tissue that composes tendons and ligaments?

A

Dense regular connective tissue

68
Q

What are the 2 types of fibres visible in the slides of areolar (loose) connective tissue?

A

collagen fibres, elastic fibres

69
Q

2 functions of adipose connective tissue are:

A

supports blood vessels, fills space between organs

70
Q

Define isotonic solutions

A

same concentration of dissolved particles and water particles inside and outside the cell

71
Q

What would happen to a RBC in an isotonic solution?

A

the RBC will remain normal, therefore same shape and volume.

72
Q

Define hypotonic solution

A

greater concentration of water outside of the cell. Therefore water will enter the cell and the cell will burst.

73
Q

What would happen to a RBC if placed in a hypotonic solution?

A

the cell will burst and the only remains would be fragments of the cell membrane.

74
Q

Define hypertonic solution

A

a solution that contains a greater concentration of dissolved particles and a lesser concentration of water molecules.

75
Q

What would happen to a RBC if placed in a hypertonic solution?

A

the cell will shrink

76
Q

What is the phospholipid bilayer, and what does it contain?

A

composed of a double layer of phospholipid molecules with protein molecules, it’s the cell wall that keeps the contents in the cell in and keeps certain things out (selectively permeable)

77
Q

meiosis

A

cell division to produce gametes. the cells are haploid (23 chromosomes)

78
Q

Define mitosis

A

cell division to produce somatic cells [body cells]. These cells are diploid (46 chromosomes)

79
Q

Define diploid number (2n)

A

complete number of chromosomes. 46 chromosomes. genetic composition of body cells

80
Q

Define haploid number (n)

A

only one member of each pair of homologous chromosomes is present, 23 chromosomes

81
Q

Define chromatids

A

double stranded chromosome held together by a centromere

82
Q

Define chromatin

A

uncoiled DNA

83
Q

Define centromere

A

a protein that holds the double stranded DNA together. also contains a kinetochore.

84
Q

Define kinetochore

A

a protein that brings itself and the DNA chromosome to the centrioles. latches itself to a spindle fibre first

85
Q

Define centrioles

A

two cylindrical bodies which lie at right angles to each other [opposite sides of the cell], sends spindle fibres to the equatorial plate, to separate the chromosomal pairs.

86
Q

What happens during prophase in mitosis?

A

chromosomes coil and shorten and become visible. the nuclear membrane disappears. centrioles (not visible) move to opposite poles of the cell. then spindle fibres extend between the two pairs of centrioles

87
Q

What happens during metaphase in mitosis?

A

chromosomes start lining themselves along the equatorial plate. the centromere of each chromatid pair is attached to 2 spindle fibres. the spindle fibres attach to kinetochore

88
Q

What happens during anaphase in mitosis?

A

the centromere of each chromatid pair splits up and the chromatid separate. the sister chromatid is now a daughter chromosome. the daughter chromosomes are now being pulled to opposite poles of the cells (towards the centrioles)

89
Q

What happens during telophase in mitosis?

A

a new nuclear membrane is formed around each group of chromosomes, the chromosomes are gradually uncoil and lengthen.

90
Q

What is the difference in prophase I in meiosis compared to prophase in mitosis?

A

In prophase I in meiosis the homologous pairs move together [synapsis]. The chromosomes then begin crossing-over their genetic info (genetic variation occurs). The homologous pairs are also called a tetrad. In mitosis, there wouldn’t be any crossing any crossing over of traits, also no tetrads or homologous pairs.

91
Q

What is the difference between metaphase I in meiosis compared to metaphase in mitosis?

A

In metaphase I in meiosis, the homologous pairs of chromosomes line up along the equatorial plate. Then spindle fibres attach onto the homologous partner of the chromosome (so one double stranded chromosome), and pulling the tetrad apart. In mitosis the chromosomes wouldn’t line in tetrads, they would just lie there and 2 spindle fibres

92
Q

What is the difference between anaphase I in meiosis and anaphase in mitosis?

A

in anaphase I in meiosis, the centromeres and chromatids do not divide [therefore they are still double stranded]. 4 chromosomes at the end of each pole. DOUBLE STRANDED. In mitosis, the centromeres and chromatids do divide. Therefore they are SINGLE STRANDED.

93
Q

What is the difference between telophase I in meiosis and telophase in mitosis ?

A

In telophase I in meiosis, the two daughter cells contain double stranded chromosomes, also these cells are not done dividing. In telophase in mitosis, the two daughter cells contain single stranded chromosomes. These cells are now done dividing,

94
Q

What is the function and location of olfactory nerves ?

A

sensory-smell from nasal mucosa to olfactory bulb

95
Q

Summarise meiosis II

A

pretty much the same shit as mitosis, to be honest. only fucking diff is that the chromosomes are different compared to the parent cell (because of genetic variation and shit) and that its haploid

96
Q

What is the function and location of optic nerve

A

sensory-vision from retina to optic chiasma

97
Q

What is the function and location of oculomotor

A

motor — moves eye regulates the amount of light entering the eye by controlling pupil size, controls the ciliary muscle that controls the lens. Located in midbrain.

98
Q

What is the function and location of trochlear ?

A

Motor-moves the eye, location: midbrain

99
Q

What is the function and location of trigeminal: ophthalmic

A

sensory — pain, touch, and temperature from nasal mucous membrane, facial skin and cornea. Location: Pons

100
Q

What is the function and location of trigeminal: maxillary

A

sensory — pain, touch, and temperature from facial skin, mouth, teeth and anterior two-thirds of tongue. Location: Pons

101
Q

What is the function and location of trigeminal: mandibular

A

motor-chewing location: Pons

102
Q

What is the function and location of abducens

A

motor — moves eye (lateral rectus) location: Pons

103
Q

What is the function and location of facial nerve

A

sensory — taste of anterior two-thirds of tongue, motor — facial expressions and ears. secretion of saliva and tears. location: Pons

104
Q

What is the function and location of vestibulocochlear: cochlear

A

sensory — hearing location: groove bet pons and medulla oblongata

105
Q

What is the function and location of vestibulocochlear: vestibular

A

sensory — registers the movement of the body through space and the position of the head. (so in other words: how you hold yourself when moving). Location: groove bet pons and medulla oblongata

106
Q

What is the function and location of glossopharyngeal

A

motor — moves tongue, and muscles of pharynx. stimulates the secretion of the parotid salivary glands, sensory — touch, temperature, and pain from pharynx. taste from posterior of one-third of tongue location: Medulla Oblongata

107
Q

What are sutures?

A

immovable joints that fuse most of the skull bones together

108
Q

What are foramina?

A

several holes in the skull that blood vessels and nerves pass through

109
Q

What is foramen magnum?

A

one large hole at the base of the skull that the spinal cord passes through as it enters the vertebral column

110
Q

What is the vertebral foramen?

A

a large hole which the spinal cord passes through

111
Q

What is the function of the vertebral column?

A

a flexible column that provides support for the upper body while still allowing movement. Also provides a hard bony, protective covering for the spinal cord

112
Q

What are the three layers that cover the brain and spinal cord called? (general term)

A

meninges

113
Q

List the 3 layers of connective tissue that cover the brain

A

Dura mater Periosteal layer Meningeal layer Arachnoid mater Pia mater

114
Q

What is cerebrospinal fluid?

A

fluid similar to blood plasma, it fills the four ventricles of the brain and central canal. Also it cushions the CNS and serves as a pathway to the blood for waste substances

115
Q

What is turners syndrome?

A

effects females when there is only one x-chromosome present (X_) less developed in primary and secondary female characteristics cannot have children, they don’t produce much estrogen

116
Q

What is Klinefelter syndrome (KS)?

A

effect males more than one x is present (XXY) sterile less developed in primary and secondary male characteristics appears feminine

117
Q

What is Jacob’s syndrome?

A

males more that one Y-chromosome is present (XYY) more developed in the primary and secondary male characteristics more hairy

118
Q

What is meta female syndrome?

A

female with more than normal number of x-chromosomes (XXX or XXXX) more developed in primary and secondary female characteristics pretty normal, only known as metafemale when tested very tall

119
Q

What is trisomy 21?

A

an extra 21 chromosome (three number 21 chromosomes) down syndrome facial features slanted/almond shaped eyes extra body fat, chubby fingers and toes

120
Q

What is Cri-du-chat syndrome?

A

monosomy disorder on number 5 chromosome the chromosome is missing parts or entirely causes the infants cry to be very high pitch, kinda like a cat “cry of the cat”

121
Q

Which muscle tissues contain striations?

A

skeletal muscles cardiac muscles

122
Q

Which muscle tissues are involuntary and which are voluntary?

A

involuntary smooth muscle tissue cardiac muscle tissue voluntary skeletal muscle tissue

123
Q

where are skeletal muscles found in the body?

A

along bones

124
Q

where are smooth muscle tissue found in the body?

A

walls of organs and blood vessels eg. stomach, intestines, bladder…

125
Q

where are cardiac muscle tissue found in the body?

A

the heart

126
Q

What is the function of skeletal muscle tissue?

A

move ligaments (bones)

127
Q

What is the function of smooth muscle tissue?

A

propel the contents of hollow organs

128
Q

What is the function of cardiac muscle tissues?

A

contacts the heart to push the blood through the heart.

129
Q

Where in the cardiac muscle cell is the nucleus? (position)

A

centre of the cell

130
Q

Where in the skeletal muscle cell is the nucleus? (position)

A

edge of the cell (peripherally)

131
Q

Where is the location of the nucleus in the smooth muscle tissue? (position)

A

centre of the cell

132
Q

What is the shape of the skeletal muscle tissue?

A

striated, long, cylindrical

133
Q

What is the shape of the smooth muscle tissue?

A

short, spindle shaped, no striations.

134
Q

What is the shape of the cardiac muscle tissue?

A

branches , shorten fibres, cylindrical, striated

135
Q

What is the cytoplasm of the muscle cell referred to?

A

sarcoplasm

136
Q

What is the cell membrane of the muscle cell referred to as?

A

sarcolemma

137
Q

What are neurons?

A
  • convert stimuli into electrical signals releases chemicals that allow communication bet neurons
138
Q

What does a neuron consist of?

A

cell body [soma], dendrites, and an axon.

139
Q

What is the function of Nissl bodies?

A

produce proteins and lipid they are aggregations of RER

140
Q

What is the function of a dendrite?

A

A dendrite receives input/stimuli form other neurons and conduct impulses inside the body.

141
Q

What is the function of telodendrites?

A

fine branched endings of the axon passes the signal to the next cell at the terminal region

142
Q

What is the function of the axon?

A

conduct info to other cells (neuron)

143
Q

What is the function of myelin?

A

it increases the speed of nerve transmission

144
Q

Define ganglia

A

cluster of neuron cell bodies

145
Q

Define mucous membranes

A

line body cavities. are exposed to the external bacteria (open to exterior)

146
Q

Define serous membranes

A

moist membranes that line/cover the walls of organs within the closed ventral body cavities

147
Q

Define cutaneous membranes

A

skin which is exposed to the air and is a dry membrane

148
Q

What are some functions of our skin?

A

Protection of the underlying body parts; excretion of water, salts and wastes; regulation of our body temperature [through evaporation], and sensory reception including touch, temperature and pain.

149
Q

What are the Pacinian corpuscles and what are some of its functions?

A

A Pacinian corpuscles is a type of nervous tissue receptor that detects deep pressure; responds to vibrations. Pacinian corpuscles are found in the fingers, pancreas, and walls of the urinary bladder.