Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

A&P Study > A&P General > Flashcards

A&P General Flashcards

1
Q

What term is used where a computer is used in thee design and drafting process?

2 - Aircraft Drawings

A

Computer Aided Design and Drafting (CADD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Three classes of working drawings:

2 - Aircraft Drawings

A

Detail
Assembly
Installation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

A drawing in which the subassemblies or parts are shown as brought together on the aircraft is called an _______.

2 - Aircraft Drawings

A

Installation drawing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The title block is usually located in which corner?

2 - Aircraft Drawings

A

Lower right-hand corner

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

A specific measured distance from the datum or some other point identified by the manufacture, to a point in or on the aircraft is called a _______.

2 - Aircraft Drawings

A

Station number

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Zone numbers on aircraft blueprints are used to locate _____, _____, and _____ on large drawings.

2 - Aircraft Drawings

A

Parts
Sections
Views

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How many views are most common on an orthographic projection?

2 - Aircraft Drawings

A

One, two, or three view drawings are the most common

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

A line used to show an edge which is not visible is a ______ line.

2 - Aircraft Drawings

A

Hidden line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

When reading a blueprint, a dimension is given as 4.387 inches +.005 -.002.
What is the minimum acceptable size?

2 - Aircraft Drawings

A

4.385 inches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Sketches are usually made easier by the use of ______.

a. artist paper
b. a variety of templates
c. plain white paper

2 - Aircraft Drawings

A

b. a variety of templates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

For sketching purposes, what are the two basic shapes that almost all objects are composed of?

2 - Aircraft Drawings

A

Circles

Rectangles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which statement is applicable when using a sketch for making a part?

a. The sketch must show all information to manufacture the part
b. The sketch need not show all necessary construction details

2 - Aircraft Drawings

A

a. The sketch must show all information to manufacture the part

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What should be the first step of the procedure in sketching an aircraft wing skin repair?

2 - Aircraft Drawings

A

Block in the views

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

In what sizes is microfilm available?

2 - Aircraft Drawings

A

16-mm

35-mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The boiling point of a given liquid varies _____ with pressure.

3 - Physics

A

Directly with pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Water in an elevated reservoir and an airplane raised of the ground sitting on jacks are an example of what classification of energy?

3 - Physics

A

Potential energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

An engine that weighs 350 lbs is removed from an aircraft by a hoist. Engine is raised 3 ft and then moved forward 12 ft. A constant force of 70 lbs is required to move the loaded hoist. What is the total work input required to move the hoist?

3 - Physics

A

840 foot pounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How much work input is required to lower (not drop) a 120 pound weight from the top of a 3 foot table to the floor?

3 - Physics

A

360 foot pounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the force needed to push a 1600 lb airplane up t 6 inch tall ramp (resistance arm) and the length of the ramp is 24 inches (effort arm)

3 - Physics

A

400 pounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What stress is applied to an object when the force tries to cut or slice though?

3 - Physics

A

Shear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What stress acting on an object is great enough that it can cause the object to change its shape or to become distorted?

3 - Physics

A

Strain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What term describes the rate of motion in a particular direction?

3 - Physics

A

Velocity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What term describes the rate of change of velocity?

3 - Physics

A

Acceleration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is Newton’s first law of motion?

3 - Physics

A

Objects at rest tend to remain at rest and objects in motion tend to remain in motion at the same speed and in the same direction, unless acted on by an external force

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Temperature is a measure of _____ energy of the molecules of any substance.

3 - Physics

A

Kinetic energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the standard atmospheric pressure at sea level?

3 - Physics

A

29.92 Hg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What Law states that all gases expand and contract in direction proportion to thee change in absolute temperature, provided the pressure is held constant?

3 - Physics

A

Charles’ Law

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Which Law is used to calculate piston movement in a hydraulic system?

3 - Physics

A

Pascal’s Law

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Which Principle involves a venture?

3 - Physics

A

Bernoulli’s Principle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

When air flows over the top of the wing, air speed _____ and static pressure _____.

3 - Physics

A

Air speed increases

Static pressure decreases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

The speed of sound in the atmosphere changes with a change in _____.

3 - Physics

A

Temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the phenomenon that occurs when a particular rpm stresses the propeller to where it will come apart?

3 - Physics

A

Resonance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the standard day atmospheric pressure (psi)?

3 - Physics

A

14.7 psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What condition is the actual amount of water vapor in a mixture of air and water?

3 - Physics

A

Absolute humidity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the ratio of water vapor actually present in the atmosphere to the amount that would be present if the air were saturated at the prevailing temperature and pressure?

3 - Physics

A

Relative humidity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

The temperature to which humid air must be cooled at a constant pressure to become saturated is _____.

3 - Physics

A

Dewpoint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

When are privately owned aircraft weighed?

4 - Weight and Balance

A

When originally certificated, or after major alterations that affect the weight and balance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What should be clearly indicated on the Type Certificate Data Sheet?

a. Weight of unusable fuel
b. Minimum allowable gross weight
c. Location of the datum

4 - Weight and Balance

A

c. Location of the datum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What type of measurement is used to designate the arm in weight and balance computation?

a. weight x distance
b. weight
c. distance

4 - Weight and Balance

A

c. distance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What determines whether the value of the moment is preceded by a plus (+) or a minus (-) sign in aircraft weight and balance?

4 - Weight and Balance

A

The result of a weight being added or removed and its location relative to the datum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

In a balance computation of an aircraft from which an item located aft of the datum was removed, use:

a. (-) weight X (-) arm (+) moment
b. (-) weight X (+) arm (-) moment
c. (+) weight X (-) arm (-) moment

4 - Weight and Balance

A

b. (-) weight X (+) arm (-) moment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

When dealing with weight and balance of an aircraft, the term “maximum weight” is interpreted to mean the maximum ________.

4 - Weight and Balance

A

Authorized weight of the aircraft and its contents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

The amount of fuel used for computing empty weight and corresponding CG is ________.

4 - Weight and Balance

A

Residual fuel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

The useful load of an aircraft is the difference between the _____ and the _____ .

4 - Weight and Balance

A

Difference between the maximum allowable gross weight and empty weight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

The useful load of an aircraft consists of the _____, _____, _____, and _____.

4 - Weight and Balance

A

Crew
Usable fuel
Passengers
Baggage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

When computing W&B, an airplane is considered to be in balance when _____.

a. all moment arms of the plane fall within CG range
b. the movement of thee passengers will not cause the moment arms to fall outside the CG range
c. the average moment arm of the loaded airplane falls within its CG range

4 - Weight and Balance

A

c. the average moment arm of the loaded airplane falls within its CG range

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Where are the weight and balance limitations for an aircraft listed?

4 - Weight and Balance

A

In the specifications for the particular aircraft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

To obtain useful weight data for purposes of determining the CG, it is necessary that an aircraft be weighed _____.

a. with useful items installed
b. no more than minimum fuel in all tanks
c. in a level flight attitude

4 - Weight and Balance

A

c. in a level flight attitude

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

The empty weight of an aircraft is 5,862 pounds with a moment of 88,957. However, when the aircraft was weighed, 20 pounds of potable water were on board at +84, and 23 pounds of hydraulic fluid were in a tank located at +101. What is the empty weight CG of the aircraft?

4 - Weight and Balance

A

151.365

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

How is the minimum fuel calculated?

Engine’s METO horse power divided by ______

4 - Weight and Balance

A

The engine’s METO horse power / 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Two boxes which weigh 10 pounds and 5 pounds are placed in an airplane so that their distance aft from the CG are 4 feet and 2 feet respectively. How far forward of the CG should a third box, weighing 20 pounds, be placed so that the CG will not be changed?

4 - Weight and Balance

A

2.5 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

The CG range in single rotor helicopters is _____.

a. More restricted than for airplanes
b. Approximately the same as the CG range for airplanes
c. Much greater than for airplanes

4 - Weight and Balance

A

a. More restricted than for airplanes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Improper loading of a helicopter which results in exceeding either the force or aft CG limits is hazardous due to the

a. reduction or loss of effective cyclic pitch control
b. reduction or loss of effective collective pitch control
c. coriolis Effect being translated to the fuselage

4 - Weight and Balance

A

a. reduction or loss of effective cyclic pitch control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Do weight-shift control aircraft and powered parachutes fall under the same CFR that governs certified airplanes and helicopters?

4 - Weight and Balance

A

No, never

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is the most significant factor affecting the weight and balance of a trike?

a. Weight of the equipment
b. Weight of the pilot
c. Weight of the fuel

4 - Weight and Balance

A

b. Weight of the pilot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

The Boeing 777 utilizes how many independent systems that provide information to the airplane’s flight management computer?

4 - Weight and Balance

A

Two

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is identified as being at a location that is a specific percent of the mean aerodynamic chord (% MAC)?

a. CG
b. The location of the weight in reference to the datum
c. Equipment distance from the fulcrum

4 - Weight and Balance

A

CG - Center of Gravity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What property of metal describes its ability to resist deformation?

5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware

A

Strength

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What property of metal can be hammered, rolled, or pressed into various shapes without cracking, breaking, or leaving some other detrimental effect?

5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware

A

Malleability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What property of metal describes its ability to be permanently drawn, bent, or twisted into various shapes without breaking.

5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware

A

Ductility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What property of metal allows little bending or deformation without shattering.

5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware

A

Brittleness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What property of metal describes its ability of a metal to become liquid by the application of heat.

5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware

A

Fusibility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

How would a cast-iron spark be identified?

a. Red as they leave the stone and turn into a straw color
b. Gives off long, straight shafts having a few white sprigs
c. Produces long shafts that are straw colored as they leave the stone and white at the end

5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware

A

a. Red as they leave the stone and turn into a straw color

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is the principle alloy of stainless steel?

a. chromium
b. molybdenum
c. nickel

5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware

A

a. chromium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Which of these materials is the most common applications for springs, castings, tie rods, and control cables?

a. 2024 aluminum alloy
b. stainless steel
c. zinc

5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware

A

b. stainless steel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Which principal alloying ingredient is more susceptible to corrosive action?

a. copper
b. magnesium
c. manganese

5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware

A

a. copper

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

In the four-digit aluminum index system number 2024, the first digit indicates the:

a. major alloying element
b. number of major alloying elements used in the metal
c. percent of alloying metal added

5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware

A

a. major alloying element

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What series alloy is copper the principal alloying element. Solution heat treatment, optimum properties equal to mild steel, poor corrosion resistance unclad.

5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware

A

2000 series alloy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Normalizing applies to heat treating

a. aluminum alloys only
b. iron-base metals only
c. both aluminum alloys and iron-base metals

5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware

A

b. iron-base metals only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

When a mechanical force is repeatedly applied to most metals at room temperature, such as rolling, hammering, or bending, the metals become:

5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware

A

cold worked, strain or work hardened

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Which form of an alloy, when the elements and compounds are absorbed, one into the other, and the constituents cannot be identified even under a microscope.

a. mechanical mixture
b. solid solution

5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware

A

b. solid solution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Which furnace uses a wire or ribbon for heating elements?

a. muffler
b. fuel fired
c. electric

5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware

A

c. electric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What is the period that rearrangement of the internal structure of the steel takes place?

a. soaking
b. heating
c. cooling

5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware

A

a. soaking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Steel is tempered after being hardened to:

a. increase its strength and decrease its internal stresses
b. increase its hardness and ductility
c. relieve its internal stresses and reduce its brittleness

5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware

A

c. relieve its internal stresses and reduce its brittleness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Which heat treating of steel is accomplished by heating the metal to just above the upper critical point, soaking at that temperature, and cooling very slowly in the furnace?

a. annealing
b. tempering
c. hardening

5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware

A

a. annealing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Which heat treating operation would be performed when the surface of the metal is changed chemically by introducing a high carbide or nitride content?

a. normalizing
b. tempering
c. casehardening

5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware

A

c. casehardening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Which type of heat treating requires special alloys for best results? (#20)

a. carborizing
b. normalizing
c. nitriding

5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware

A

c. nitriding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Which two are steps in the solution heat-treatment process?

a. soaking at a temperature for a specified length of time
b. aging or precipitation hardening spontaneously at room temperature
c. heating to a predetermined temperature

5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware

A

a. soaking at a temperature for a specified length of time

c. heating to a predetermined temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Which material can be heat treated repeatedly without harmful effects?

a. Unclad aluminum alloy in sheet form
b. Clad aluminum alloy
c. 6061-T9 stainless steel

5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware

A

a. Unclad aluminum alloy in sheet form

80
Q

What temperature range is used for precipitation hardening (‘F)?

5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware

A

250 ‘F to 375 ‘F

81
Q

What is the procedure that heats the alloys to an elevates temperature, holds or soaks them at this temperature for a length of time depending upon the mass of the metal, and then cooling in still air?

a. Annealing
b. Heat-treating
c. Plating

5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware

A

a. Annealing

82
Q

What tester uses a hardened spherical ball which is forced into the surface of the metal?

5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware

A

Brinell

83
Q

What is the process of forming a product by hammering or pressing?

5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware

A

Forging

84
Q

Structural parts, such as channels, angles, T-sections, and Z-sections, are formed by what process?

5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware

A

Extruding

85
Q

Sheets, bars, and rods are principle forms of:

a. cold drawing
b. hot rolling
c. cold rolling

5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware

A

c. Cold rolling

86
Q

What is used in aircraft canopies, windshields, and windows?

a. Laminated structures
b. Transparent plastic
c. Fiber reinforced material

5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware

A

b. Transparent plastic

87
Q

What are the two major classes of transparent plastic materials used in aircraft canopies?

a. Transparent and reinforced
b. Monolithic and laminated
c. Thermoplastic and thermosetting

5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware

A

c. Thermoplastic and thermosetting

88
Q

What two forms of transparent plastics are manufactured?

a. Thermoplastic and thermosetting
b. Transparent and reinforced
c. Monolithic and laminated

5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware

A

c. Monolithic and laminated

89
Q

What are two advantages of using composite materials?

a. Great variety of materials, processes, and techniques
b. Fiber-to-fiber transfer of stress allowed by chemical bonding
c. Bonded construction eliminates joints and fasteners

5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware

A

b. Fiber-to-fiber transfer of stress allowed by chemical bonding
c. Bonded construction eliminates joints and fasteners

90
Q

What must be done fi you can smell the resin vapors after placing the mask back on after a break?

5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware

A

Replace mask filters immediately

91
Q

What is a thermosetting material used in the manufacture of radomes, antenna covers, and wingtips?

a. Laminated structures
b. Fiber reinforced material
c. Reinforced plastic

5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware

A

c. Reinforced plastic

92
Q

Which type of rubber deteriorates the fastest?

a. Silicone
b. Synthetic
c. Natural

5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware

A

c. Natural

93
Q

Which type of rubber possesses exceptional resistance to ozone, sunlight, heat, and aging?

a. Neoprene
b. Butyl
c. Buna-N

5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware

A

a. Neoprene

94
Q

Which type of rubber is used for oil and gasoline hose, tank linings, gaskets, and seals?

a. Neoprene
b. Butyl
c. Buna-N

5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware

A

c. Buna-N

95
Q

What must be used if an O-ring packing is to be subjected to pressure from both sides?

a. A second O-ring
b. One backup ring on either side of the O-ring
c. Lubricant on the O-ring

5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware

A

b. One backup ring on either side of the O-ring

96
Q

What will happen to rubber sheeting when used as a gasket where it may come in contact with gasoline or oil?

a. The gasket will swell for a proper seal
b. Thee rubber will deteriorate very rapidly
c. The gasket will leak immediately

5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware

A

b. The rubber will deteriorate very rapidly

97
Q

The purpose of a wiper is to:

a. Clear off the side of windows of an aircraft
b. Prevent dirt from entering the system and protect the piston shaft against scouring
c. Seal the exposed portions of piston shafts when the piston extends

5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware

A

b. Prevent dirt from entering the system and protect the piston shaft against scouring

98
Q

Aircraft bolts are almost always manufactured with a:

a. Class 1 fit for the threads
b. Class 2 fit for the threads
c. Class 3 fit for the threads

5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware

A

c. Class 3 fit for the threads

99
Q

Aircraft bolts with a raised dash or asterisk marked on the bolthead are:

a. Close tolerance bolts
b. Standard steel bolts
c. Made of aluminum alloy

5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware

A

b. Standard steel bolts

100
Q

A bolt with either a raised or recessed triangle on the head is classified as an

a. NAS standard aircraft bolt
b. AN corrosion resistant bolt
c. NAS close tolerance bolt

5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware

A

c. NAS close tolerance bolt

101
Q

What type of special-purpose bolt is used where external tension loads are to be applied?

a. Eyebolt
b. Lockbolt
c. J-bolt

5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware

A

a. Eyebolt

102
Q

A fiber-type, self-locking nut must never be used on an aircraft if the bolt is:

a. Subject to rotation
b. Under shear loading
c. Under tension loading

5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware

A

a. Subject to rotation

103
Q

What metal is generally used in the construction of aircraft engine firewalls?

a. chrome molybdenum alloy steel
b. Corrosion resistant steel
c. Magnesium titanium alloy steel

5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware

A

b. Corrosion resistant steel

104
Q

What does the letters AD designate on a rivet head?

a. Aluminum alloy, 2024-T composition
b. Aluminum alloy, 1100 or 3003 composition
c. Aluminum alloy, 2117-T composition

5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware

A

c. Aluminum alloy, 2117-T composition

105
Q

What type of rivet has a head with a hollow shank or sleeve and a stem that extends through the hollow shank?

a. Pull-thru blind rivets
b. Bulbed cherry-lock rivets
c. Self-plugging (mechanical lock) rivets

5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware

A

a. Pull-thru blind rivets

106
Q

What type of rivet has a positive mechanical locking collar to resist vibrations that cause the friction lock rivets to loosen and possibly fall out?

a. Pull-thru blind rivets
b. Bulbed cherry-lock rivets
c. Self-plugging (mechanical lock) rivets

5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware

A

c. Self-plugging (mechanical lock) rivets

107
Q

What does the (17) in this aprt number: NAS177-14-17 mean?

a. Maximum grip length in 16ths of an inch
b. Nominal diameter in 32nds of an inch
c. Flathead rivet

5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware

A

a. Maximum grip length in 16ths of an inch

108
Q

How is the plain taper pin secured?

a. With a lock-nut
b. With a safety-wire
c. With a cotter pin

5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware

A

b. With safety-wire

109
Q

What is the preferred method for safetying turnbuckles?

a. The single-wrap safety wire method
b. Installing a cotter pin
c. The double-wrap safety wire method

5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware

A

c. The double-wrap safety wire method

110
Q

Intergranular corrosion in aluminum alloy parts:

a. Cannot always be detected by surface indications
b. Commonly appears as threadlike filaments of corrosion products under a dense film of paint
c. May be detected by surface pitting, and white, powdery deposit formed on the surface of thee metal

6 - Cleaning and Corrosion Control

A

a. Cannot always be detected by surface indications

111
Q

Fretting corrosion is most likely to occur

a. When two mating surfaces, normally in motion with respect to one another, are subject to slight relative rest
b. Only when two dissimilar metals are in contact
c. When two mating surfaces, normally at rest with respect to one another, are subject to slight relative motion

6 - Cleaning and Corrosion Control

A

c. When two mating surfaces, normally at rest with respect to one another, are subject to slight relative motion

112
Q

Caustic cleaning products used on aluminum structures have the effect of producing _____.

6 - Cleaning and Corrosion Control

A

Corrosion

113
Q

Which two are a corrosion-preventative maintenance function?

a. Daily draining of the fuel cell sumps
b. Making maximum use of protective covers on parked aircraft
c. Daily washing of the aircraft

6 - Cleaning and Corrosion Control

A

a. Daily draining of the fuel cell sumps

b. Making maximum use of protective covers on parked aircraft

114
Q

What should be used as a general guide to inspect areas for corrosion? (#5)

a. Scheduled maintenance checklists
b. Aircraft maintenance manual
c. Mechanics listing of corrosion prone areas

6 - Cleaning and Corrosion Control

A

a. Scheduled maintenance checklists

115
Q

What is added to seaplane and amphibian aircraft bilge areas to protect against corrosion?

6 - Cleaning and Corrosion Control

A

Paint

The interior compartments are painted to protect bilge areas.

116
Q

What may be used to remove corrosion from highly stressed steel surfaces?

a. Steel wire brushes
b. Fine grit aluminum oxide
c. Abrasive papers and compounds

6 - Cleaning and Corrosion Control

A

b. fine grit aluminum oxide

117
Q

A primary cause of intergranular corrosion is:

a. Improper heat treatment
b. Improper application of primer
c. Dissimilar metal contact

6 - Cleaning and Corrosion Control

A

a. improper heat treatment

118
Q

The lifting or flaking of the metal at the surface due to delamination of grain boundaries caused by the pressure of corrosion residual product buildup is called:

a. Brinelling
b. Exfoliation
c. Granulation

6 - Cleaning and Corrosion Control

A

b. Exfoliation

119
Q

Corrosion should be removed from magnesium parts with a _____.

a. Silicon carbide brush
b. Stiff, nonmetallic brush
c. Carborundum abrasive

6 - Cleaning and Corrosion Control

A

b. Stiff, nonmetallic brush

120
Q

Which is an approved cleaner fro titanium surfaces?

a. Steel wool
b. Aluminum polish
c. Water

6 - Cleaning and Corrosion Control

A

b. Aluminum polish

121
Q

How are dissimilar metal joints not involving magnesium protected from corrosion?

a. Application of a layer of pressure-sensitive vinyl tape 0.003 inch thick
b. Application of two coats of zinc chromate primer to each surface
c. Application of two coats of zinc chromate primer in addition to normal primer requirements

6 - Cleaning and Corrosion Control

A

c. Application of two coats of zinc chromate primer in addition to normal primer requirements

122
Q

Which standard type of damage is “corrosion which has scarred or eaten away the surface protective coats and begun to etch the metal”?

a. Damage repairable by insertion
b. Damage repairable by patching
c. Negligible damage

6 - Cleaning and Corrosion Control

A

c. Negligible damage

123
Q

Which method of cleaning is preferred over the mechanical method?

a. Blast
b. Chemical
c. Electro-cleaning

6 - Cleaning and Corrosion Control

A

b. Chemical

124
Q

A nonelectrolytic chemical treatment for aluminum alloys to increase corrosion resistance and paint bonding qualities is called _____.

a. Anodizing
b. Dichromating
c. Alodizing

6 - Cleaning and Corrosion Control

A

c. Alodizing

125
Q

What is the most effective barrier between metal surfaces and corrosive media?

6 - Cleaning and Corrosion Control

A

Paint

A good, intact paint finish.

126
Q

What locations are best suited for performing an aircraft wash?

6 - Cleaning and Corrosion Control

A

Outside in shaded areas.

127
Q

Why is a plastic surface flushed with fresh water before it is cleaned with soap and water?

a. To prevent scratching
b. To prevent crazing
c. To prevent discoloration

6 - Cleaning and Corrosion Control

A

a. To prevent scratching

128
Q

What should be done to prevent rapid deterioration when oil or grease comes in contact with a tire?

a. Wipe the tire with a cloth dampened with aromatic naptha and then wipe dry with a clean cloth.
b. Wipe the tire thoroughly with a dry cloth.
c. Wash with a mild soap solution

6 - Cleaning and Corrosion Control

A

c. Wash with a mild soap solution

129
Q

Which type of flammable or combustible solvent should NOT be used for aircraft cleaning or refurbishing?

a. High flash point solvents
b. Low flash point solvents
c. Mixed liquids

6 - Cleaning and Corrosion Control

A

b. Low flash point solvents

130
Q

What is used for cleaning propeller and rotor blades?

a. A fine spray of kerosene
b. Wipe surface with clean engine oil
c. Fresh water and soap and approved cleaning solvents

6 - Cleaning and Corrosion Control

A

c. Fresh water and soap and approved cleaning solvents

131
Q

Select the solvent recommended for wipedown of cleaned surfaces just before painting:

a. Aromatic naptha
b. Dry-cleaning solvent
c. Aliphatic naptha

6 - Cleaning and Corrosion Control

A

c. Aliphatic naptha

132
Q

Select the solvent used to clean acrylics and rubber:

a. Aliphatic naptha
b. Methyl ethyl ketone
c. Aromatic naptha

6 - Cleaning and Corrosion Control

A

a. Aliphatic naptha

133
Q

Which type of emulsion compounds are useful for removing heavy deposits, such as carbon, grease, oil, or tar?

a. Alcohol emulsions
b. Water emulsions
c. Solvent emulsions

6 - Cleaning and Corrosion Control

A

c. Solvent emulsions

134
Q

Which cleaning compound is useful for removing light to medium soils, operational films, oils, or greases?

a. MIL-C-22543A
b. Oil-soluble detergent
c. MIL-C-5410 Type I and II

6 - Cleaning and Corrosion Control

A

c. MIL-C-5410 Type I and II

135
Q

What are the three grades of aluminum wool?

a. Type 1; Type 2; Type 3
b. 200, 400, 800 grit
c. Coarse, medium, and fine

6 - Cleaning and Corrosion Control

A

c. Coarse, medium, and fine

136
Q

Fayed (Frayed?) surfaces cause concern in chemical cleaning because of the danger of:

a. Corrosion by imbedded iron oxide
b. Entrapping corrosive materials
c. Forming passive oxides

6 - Cleaning and Corrosion Control

A

b. Entrapping corrosive materials

137
Q

What type of tubing has replaced copper tubes in aircraft installations?

a. Steel tubes
b. Flexible rubber hose
c. Aluminum alloy or corrosion-resistant steel tubing

7 - Fluid and Fittings

A

c. Aluminum alloy or corrosion-resistant tubing

138
Q

Which tubings have the characteristics (high strength, abrasion resistance) necessary for use in high pressure (3,000psi) hydraulic systems for operation of landing gear and flaps?

a. Titanium 3AL-2
b. Aluminum alloy
c. Corrosion resistant steel annealed

7 - Fluid and Fittings

A

c. Corrosion resistant steel annealed

139
Q

What type of tubing has a higher tensile strength permitting the use of thinner walls?

a. Titanium
b. Steel
c. Aluminum alloy or corrosion-resistant steel

7 - Fluid and Fittings

A

b. Steel

140
Q

Metal tubing fluid lines are sized by wall thickness and:

a. Outside diameter in 1/32 inch increments
b. Inside diameter in 1/16 inch increments
c. Outside diameter in 1/16 inch increments

7 - Fluid and Fittings

A

C. Outside diameter in 1/16 inch increments

141
Q

Which coupling nut should be selected for use with 1/2 inch aluminum oil lines which are to be assembled using flared tube ends and standard AN nuts, sleeves, and fittings?

a. AN-818-16
b. AN-818-8
c. AN-818-5

7 - Fluid and Fittings

A

b. AN-818-8

142
Q

The material specifications for a certain aircraft require that a replacement oil line be fabricated from 3/4 inch 0.072 5052-0 aluminum alloy tubing. What is the inside dimension of this tubing?

7 - Fluid and Fittings

A

0.606 inch

143
Q

When flaring aluminum tubing for use with AN fittings, the flare angle must be:

a. 37’-40’
b. 40’-45’
c. 35’-37’

7 - Fluid and Fittings

A

c. 35’-37’

144
Q

What is an advantage of a double flare on aluminum tubing?

a. Ease of construction
b. It is more resistant to the shearing effect of torque
c. It is less resistant to the shearing effect of torque

7 - Fluid and Fittings

A

b. It is more resistant to the shearing effect of torque

145
Q

A gas or fluid line marked with the letters PHDAN is:

a. A high pressure line
b. Carrying a substance that cannot be made non-toxic
c. Carrying a substance which may be dangerous to personnel

7 - Fluid and Fittings

A

c. Carrying a substance which may be dangerous to personnel

146
Q

What is the color of an AN steel flared tube fitting?

a. Blue
b. Red
c. Black

7 - Fluid and Fittings

A

c. Black

147
Q

Which fittings are installed with portable hydraulically powered tooling?

a. Swaged
b. Cryofit
c. Flareless

7 - Fluid and Fittings

A

a. Swaged

148
Q

Hydraulic tubing, which is damaged in a localized area to such an extent that repair is necessary, may be repaired by:

a. Cutting out the damaged area using a swaged tube fitting to join the tube ends
b. Replacing the entire tubing using the same size and material as the original
c. Cutting out the damaged section and soldering in a replacement section of tubing

7 - Fluid and Fittings

A

a. Cutting out the damaged area using a swaged tube fitting to join the tube ends

149
Q

Excessive stress on fluid or pneumatic metal tubing caused by expansion and contraction due to temperature changes can best be avoided by:

a. Not subjecting the aircraft to sudden changes in temperature
b. Using short, straight sections of tubing between fixed parts of the aircraft
c. Providing bends in the tubing

7 - Fluid and Fittings

A

c. Providing bends in the tubing

150
Q

Scratches or nicks on the straight portion of aluminum alloy tubing may be repaired if they are no deeper than:

a. 20 percent of the wall thickness
b. 1/32 inch or 20 percent of wall thickness, whichever is less
c. 10 percent of wall thickness

7 - Fluid and Fittings

A

c. 10 percent of wall thickness

151
Q

A scratch or nick in aluminum alloy tubing can be repaired by burnishing provided the scratch or nick does not:

a. Appear in the heel of a bend in the tube
b. Exceed 10 percent of the tube diameter
c. Exceed 20 percent of the wall thickness of the tube

7 - Fluid and Fittings

A

a. Appear in the heel of a bend in the tube

152
Q

A 3/8 inch aircraft high-pressure flexible hose as compared to a 3/8 inch metal tubing used in the same system will:

a. Have about the same o.d.
b. Have equivalent flow characteristics
c. Usually have interchangeable applications

7 - Fluid and Fittings

A

c. Usually have interchangeable applications

153
Q

Which two hose materials are compatible with phosphate-ester base hydraulic fluids?

Butyl
Teflon
Buna-N
Neoprene

7 - Fluid and Fittings

A

Butyl

Teflon

154
Q

The term “cold flow” is generally associated with:

a. Welding and sheet metal
b. Vaporizing fuel
c. Flexible hose

7 - Fluid and Fittings

A

c. Flexible hose

155
Q

Flexible hose used in aircraft systems is classified in size according to the:

a. Inside diameter
b. Wall thickness
c. Outside diameter

7 - Fluid and Fittings

A

a. Inside diameter

156
Q

Before the hose is installed on the aircraft, it is recommended that the hose be tested:

a. At least full system pressure
b. At least 2 times system pressure
c. At least 1.5 times system pressure

7 - Fluid and Fittings

A

c. At least 1.5 times system pressure

157
Q

Flexible lines must be installed with:

a. A slack of at least 10 to 12 percent of the length
b. Enough slack to allow maximum flexing during operation
c. A slack of 5 to 8 percent of the length

7 - Fluid and Fittings

A

c. A slack of 5 to 8 percent of the length

158
Q

The maximum distance between end fittings to which a straight hose assembly is to be connected is 50 inches. The minimum hose length to make such a connection should be:

a. 51.5 inches
b. 54.5 inches
c. 52.5 inches

7 - Fluid and Fittings

A

c. 52.5 inches

Flexible lines must be installed with a slack of 5 to 8 percent of the length.

159
Q

A certain amount of slack must be left in a flexible hose during installation because, when under pressure, it:

a. Contracts in length and expands in diameter
b. Expands in length and diameter
c. Expands in length and contracts in diameter

7 - Fluid and Fittings

A

A. Contracts in length and expands in diameter

160
Q

How far apart must clamps be to support a hose?

a. 12 inches or less
b. 18 inches or less
c. 24 inches or less

7 - Fluid and Fittings

A

c. 24 inches or less

161
Q

Which of these statements are true?

  1. Bonded clamps are used for support when installing metal tubing.
  2. Unbonded clamps are used for support when installing wiring.

7 - Fluid and Fittings

A

Both statements are true

162
Q

When installing bonded clamps to support metal tubing:

a. Paint clamp and tube after clamp installation to prevent corrosion
b. Paint removal from tube is not recommended as it will inhibit corrosion
c. Remove paint or anodizing from tube at clamp location

7 - Fluid and Fittings

A

c. Remove paint or anodizing from tube at clamp location

163
Q

What should be noted when opening inspection plates and cowlings?

a. Screw locations
b. Panel positions
c. Any oil or other evidence of fluid leakage

8 - Inspection Fundamentals

A

c. Any oil or other evidence of fluid leakage

164
Q

What document(s) provide for the inspection of all civil aircraft at specific intervals?

a. Aircraft Type Specification Data Sheets
b. Code of Federal Regulations
c. Maintenance manuals

8 - Inspection Fundamentals

A

b. Code of Federal Regulations

165
Q

Which situation would require a special inspection?

a. Take-off in inclement weather
b. A rough landing
c. A landing in inclement weather

8 - Inspection Fundamentals

A

b. A rough landing

166
Q

What method of inspection is a borescope inspection?

a. Ultrasonic inspection
b. Visual inspection
c. Eddy current inspection

8 - Inspection Fundamentals

A

b. Visual inspection

167
Q

Liquid penetrant inspection methods may be used on which (3) of the following?

  1. Porous plastics
  2. Ferrous metals
  3. Nonferrous metals
  4. Smooth unpainted wood
  5. Nonporous plastics

8 - Inspection Fundamentals

A

2, 3, 5

Ferrous metals
Nonferrous metals
Nonporous plastics

168
Q

To detect a minute crack using a dye penetrant inspection usually requires:

a. A longer than normal penetrating time
b. The surface to be highly polished
c. That the developer be applied to a flat surface

8 - Inspection Fundamentals

A

a. A longer than normal penetrating time

169
Q

In performing a dye penetrant inspection, the he developer:

a. Thoroughly cleans the surface prior to inspection
b. Seeps into a surface crack to indicate the presence of a defect
c. Dries and a bright red indication will appear where there are surface defects

8 - Inspection Fundamentals

A

c. Dries and a bright red indication will appear where there are surface defects

170
Q

If dye penetrant inspection indications are not sharp and clear, the most probable cause is that the part:

a. Was not correctly degaussed before the developer was applied
b. Was not thoroughly washed before the developer was applied
c. Does not have any appreciable damage

8 - Inspection Fundamentals

A

b. Was not thoroughly washed before the developer was applied

171
Q

What is thee most widely used method of electronic test involving the intersection of magnetic fields and circulatory currents?

a. Ultrasonic test
b. X-ray
c. Eddy current test

8 - Inspection Fundamentals

A

c. Eddy current test

172
Q

What nondestructive testing method requires little or no part preparation; it is used to detect surface or near surface defects in most metals, and may also be used to separate metals or alloys and their heat treat conditions?

a. Ultrasonic inspection
b. Magnetic particle inspection
c. Eddy current inspection

8 - Inspection Fundamentals

A

c. Eddy current inspection

173
Q

Which nondestructive testing method is suitable to locate defects in all types of materials and voids too small to be seen by x-ray?

a. Ultrasonic
b. Magnetic particle
c. Eddy current

8 - Inspection Fundamentals

A

a. Ultrasonic

174
Q

What is the nondestructive testing method of detecting invisible cracks and other defects in ferromagnetic materials such as iron and steel?

a. Eddy current inspection
b. Magnetic particle inspection
c. Ultrasonic inspection

8 - Inspection Fundamentals

A

b. Magnetic particle inspection

175
Q

Which of the following materials may be inspected using the magnetic particle inspection method?

  1. Magnesium alloys
  2. Aluminum alloys
  3. Iron alloys
  4. Copper alloys
  5. Zinc alloys

8 - Inspection Fundamentals

A

3

Iron alloys

176
Q

The magnetic particle inspection is used primarily to detect:

a. Deep subsurface flaws
b. Distortion
c. Flaws on or near the surface

8 - Inspection Fundamentals

A

c. Flaws on or near the surface

177
Q

What two types of indicating mediums are available for magnetic particle inspection?

a. Wet and dry process materials
b. High retentivity and low permeability material
c. Iron and ferric oxides

8 - Inspection Fundamentals

A

a. Wet and dry process materials

178
Q

T or F? In nondestructive testing, a discontinuity may be defined as an interruption in the normal physical structure or configuration of a part.

8 - Inspection Fundamentals

A

TRUE

179
Q

T or F? A discontinuity may or may not affect the usefulness of a part.

8 - Inspection Fundamentals

A

TRUE

180
Q

In a magnetic particle inspection, a flaw that is perpendicular to the magnetic field flux lines generally causes:

a. A large disruption in the magnetic field
b. No disruption in the magnetic field
c. A minimal disruption in the magnetic field

8 - Inspection Fundamentals

A

a. A large disruption in the magnetic field

181
Q

When checking an item with the magnetic particle inspection method, circular and longitudinal magnetization should be used to:

a. Reveal all possible defects
b. Evenly magnetize the entire part
c. Ensure uniform current flow

8 - Inspection Fundamentals

A

a. Reveal all possible defects

182
Q

What method of magnetic particle inspection is used most often to inspect aircraft parts for invisible cracks and other defects?

a. Induction
b. Continuous
c. Residual

8 - Inspection Fundamentals

A

a. Induction

183
Q

Circular magnetization of a part can be used to detect defects that are:

a. Perpendicular to the concentric circles of magnetic force within the part
b. Parallel to the long axis of the part
c. Perpendicular to the long axis of the part

8 - Inspection Fundamentals

A

b. Parallel to the long axis of the part

184
Q

Which statement relating to the residual magnetizing inspection method is true?

a. It is used in practically all circular and longitudinal magnetizing procedures
b. It may be used with steels which have been heat treated for stressed applications
c. Subsurface discontinuities are made readily apparent

8 - Inspection Fundamentals

A

b. It may be used with steels which have been heat treated for stressed applications

185
Q

What is the nondestructive testing method of detecting invisible cracks and other defects in ferromagnetic materials such as iron and steel using a fluorescent particle solution and black light?

a. Ultrasonic inspection
b. Magnaglo inspection
c. Eddy current inspection

8 - Inspection Fundamentals

A

b. Magnaglo inspection

186
Q

The testing medium that is generally used in magnetic particle inspection uses a ferromagnetic material that has:

a. High permeability and low retentivity
b. Low permeability and high retentivity
c. High permeability and high retentivity

8 - Inspection Fundamentals

A

a. High permeability and low retentivity

187
Q

One way a part may be demagnetized after magnetic particle inspection is by:

a. Subjecting the part to high voltage, low amperage AC
b. Slowly decreasing magnetizing force is applied first in one direction and then the other
c. Slowly moving the part into an AC magnetic field of sufficient strength

8 - Inspection Fundamentals

A

b. Slowly decreasing magnetizing force is applied first in one direction and then the other

188
Q

T or F? An aircraft may be demagnetized by subjecting it to a magnetizing force from alternating current that is gradually reduced in strength.

8 - Inspection Fundamentals

A

TRUE

189
Q

T or F? An aircraft part may be demagnetized by subjecting it to a magnetizing force from direct current that is I alternately reversed in direction and gradually reduced in strength.

8 - Inspection Fundamentals

A

TRUE

190
Q

Which of these factors are considered essential knowledge for x-ray exposure?

  1. Processing of the film
  2. Material thickness and density
  3. Exposure distance and angle
  4. Film characteristics

8 - Inspection Fundamentals

A

Three

191
Q

Which is not a category of radiography flaw?

a. A crack
b. A dimensional irregularity
c. A void

8 - Inspection Fundamentals

A

a. A crack

192
Q

What method of inspection is used to indicate defects in composite materials?

a. Radiographic
b. Tap
c. Ultrasonic

8 - Inspection Fundamentals

A

b. Tap

193
Q

A mechanic has completed a bonded honeycomb repair using the potted compound repair technique. What nondestructive testing method is used to determine the soundness of the repair after the repair has cured?

a. Ring test
b. Ultrasonic test
c. Eddy current test

8 - Inspection Fundamentals

A

a. Ring test

194
Q

Select a characteristic of a good weld.

a. The depth of penetration shall be sufficient to ensure fusion of the filler rod
b. The height of the weld bead should be 1/8 inch above the base metal
c. The weld should taper off smoothly into the base metal and is uniform in width

8 - Inspection Fundamentals

A

c. The weld should taper off smoothly into the base metal and is uniform in width

195
Q

On a fillet weld, the penetration requirement includes what percentages of the base metal thickness?

a. 60 to 75 percent
b. 25 to 50 percent
c. 80 to 100 percent

8 - Inspection Fundamentals

A

b. 25 to 50 percent

196
Q

Which condition indicates a part has been welded too rapidly?

a. Gas pockets, porosity, and slag inclusions
b. Cracking adjacent to the weld
c. Discoloration of the base metal

8 - Inspection Fundamentals

A

a. Gas pockets, porosity, and slag inclusions

197
Q

9 - Hand Tools and Measuring Devices

A

u

A&P Study (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions