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Biosciences 2 > A&P > Flashcards

A&P Flashcards

1
Q

What is homeostasis?

A

The maintenance of stable living conditions

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2
Q

Components of a feedback system

A

Stimulus, Controlled condition, Receptor, Control Centre, Effectors, Response

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3
Q

What does a negative feedback system do?

A

Reverses an effect

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4
Q

What does a positive feedback system do?

A

Enhances an effect

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5
Q

What are the different methods of measuring body temperature?

A

Oral, axillary, tympanic and rectal

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6
Q

What is core temperature?

A

The temperature of the deep tissues of the body.

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7
Q

Average core temperature

A

36.5-37.5°C

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8
Q

What is peripheral temperature?

A

The temperature of the blood flow through the vessels under the skin

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9
Q

Average peripheral temperature

A

18-36°C

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10
Q

Cyclic variations in normal temperature

A

0.25-0.5°C

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11
Q

Axillary temperature

A

Armpit. Usually 1°C lower than oral and up to 2°C lower than rectal. Least accurate.

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12
Q

Rectal temperature

A

Usually most accurate - especially best for infants.

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13
Q

Role of hypothalamus in regulating temperature

A

The hypothalamus checks our current temperature and compares it with the normal temperature of about 37°C. If our temperature is too low, the hypothalamus makes sure that the body generates and maintains heat.

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14
Q

Signs of a temperature

A

Increased heart rate, red face due to increased blood flow.

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15
Q

Tissue repair - normal vs. scar

A

New cells originate via cell division from the stroma, or the parenchyma. If parenchymal cells accomplish the repair, tissue regeneration is possible. However, if fibroblasts need to come in, then they synthesise materials that aggregate to form scar tissue, through a process called fibrosis.

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16
Q

Why is the endocrine system ductless?

A

It is quicker to dump hormones directly into the bloodstream

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17
Q

Technical term for generating heat

A

Thermogenesis

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18
Q

What do goosebumps do?

A

Trap air

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19
Q

Flow chart of temperature regulation

A

Stimulus decreases body temp –> Thermoreceptors –> Hypothalamus and anterior pituitary –> Vasoconstriction decreases heat loss through skin, Adrenal medulla releases hormones that increase cellular metabolism, skeletal muscles contract and cause shivering, thyroid gland release thyroid hormones which increases metabolic rate –> Response

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20
Q

What is heat?

A

A form of energy measured in calories

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21
Q

What is a calorie?

A

The amount of energy required to raise the temperature of 1g of water by 1°C.

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22
Q

Metabolic rate definition

A

The rate at which heat is produced from the catabolism of food

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23
Q

4 principle routes of heat loss

A
  1. Radiation
  2. Conduction
  3. Convection
  4. Evaporation
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24
Q

BMR

A

Basal Metabolic Rate

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25
Q

Where are baroreceptors located?

A

In the carotid sinus and its aortic arch.

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26
Q

How do baroreceptors detect pressure changes?

A

By responding to changes in the tension of the arterial wall

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27
Q

Flow chart of an injury

A

Injury –> Platelets release growth factors –> Neutrophils and macrophages engulf bacteria –> Epithelial + endothelial cells and fibroblasts produce growth factors –> Synthesis of extracellular matrix and new capillaries –> Fibroblasts orchestrate remodelling of scar by producing ECM, MMPs and TIMPs –> Mature scar

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28
Q

Which part of the brain connects the endocrine and the nervous system?

A

The hypothalamus

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29
Q

What is the response of the effector to the stimulus in a negative feedback system?

A

It inhibits the original stimulus

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30
Q

What does the adrenal medulla respond to?

A

Neural stimuli, not ACTH

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31
Q

What does innate immunity include?

A

External physical and chemical barriers provided by skin and mucous membranes. Also includes various internal defences such as antimicrobial substances, NK cells, phagocytes, inflammation and fever

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32
Q

First line of defence against pathogens?

A

Skin and mucous membranes.

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33
Q

Second line of defence against pathogens?

A

Internal defences

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34
Q

What does telomerase do?

A

maintains chromosome ends

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35
Q

4 main types of antimicrobial substances

A

interferons, complement system, iron binding proteins and antimicrobial proteins

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36
Q

What is inflammation?

A

Defensive response to tissue damage

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37
Q

Impact of fever

A

Intensifies effects of interferons, inhibits growth of some microbes and speeds up body reactions that aid repair

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38
Q

5 cardinal signs

A

Pain, redness, swelling, heat, loss of function

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39
Q

2 examples of commensal bacteria and their location

A

Staphylococcus aureus - mouth

Escherichia coli - gut

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40
Q

Flow diagram for inflammation

A

Tissue injury –> microbes enter –> release chemicals which are recognised by body –> initiates release of phagocytes –> blood vessels leak fluid into tissues, causing swelling

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41
Q

Difference between granular and agranular leukocytes

A

Granular contain granules that are visible under a light microscope after staining

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42
Q

Why don’t red blood cells contain a nucleus?

A

to increase surface area, allowing space for haemoglobin

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43
Q

What does the T in T cells mean?

A

Thymus

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44
Q

What does the B in B cells mean?

A

Bursa

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45
Q

Which cells are formed from a myeloid stem cell?

A

Erythrocytes, platelets, leukocytes

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46
Q

Which cells are formed from lymphoid stem cells?

A

T, B and NK cells

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47
Q

What does adaptive immunity mean?

A

The production of specific types of cells or antibodies to destroy a particular antigen. Involves B and T cells.

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48
Q

Two types of adaptive immunity

A

Cell mediated and antibody mediated

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49
Q

Cell mediated immunity

A

Doesn’t use antibodies. Cytotoxic T cells directly attack invading antigens and phagocytes are activated.

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50
Q

Antibody mediated immunity/humoral

A

B cells transform into plasma cells, then secrete antibodies

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51
Q

Clonal selection

A

Lymphocyte proliferates and differentiates in response to specific antigen, forming a clone of cells that can recognise the same antigen.

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52
Q

What is an antigen?

A

Any substance the body recognises as foreign

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53
Q

Which 2 types of cells does clonal selection lead to?

A

Effector and memory

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54
Q

Effector cells

A

carry out immune responses that result in the destruction/inactivation of the antigen.

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55
Q

Memory cells

A

do not participate in initial immune response, but if antigen reappears in future, will quickly respond by proliferating and differentiating into more effector and memory cells.

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56
Q

Effector cells include…

A

active helper T cells, active cytotoxic T cells and plasma cells

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57
Q

Memory cells include…

A

memory helper T cells, memory cytotoxic T cells and memory B cells.

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58
Q

Naturally acquired active immunity

A

After exposure to microbe, antigen is recognised by B cells and T cells and costimulation leads to the antibody secreting plasma cells, cytotoxic T cells and B and T memory cells

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59
Q

Naturally acquired passive immunity

A

Transfer of IgG antiboies from mother to foetus aross placenta or of IgA antibodies via breastmilk.

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60
Q

Artificially acquired active immunity

A

antigens introduced during vaccination stimulate cell mediated and antibody mediated immune responses, leading to the production of memory cells. Antigens pretreated to be immunogenic but not pathogenic, meaning they will trigger an immune response but not cause illness.

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61
Q

Artificially acquired passive immunity

A

IV injection of immunoglobulins

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62
Q

What are interferons?

A

a group of signalling proteins made and released by cells in response to the presence of viruses

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63
Q

What do interferons do?

A

Boost immune response and regulate the action of several genes which control the secretion of cellular proteins affecting growth

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64
Q

What does the complement system do?

A

enhances the ability of antibodies and phagocytic cells to clear microbes, promote inflammation and attack the pathogen’s cell membrane

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65
Q

Iron binding proteins

A

carrier proteins needed for the proliferation and maturation of immune cells

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66
Q

Antimicrobial proteins

A

contain sites that target specific microbial macromolecules.

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67
Q

What do the smaller antimicrobial proteins do?

A

disrupt structure and function of microbial cell membranes

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68
Q

What is chemotaxis

A

the movement of an organism in response to a chemical stimulus

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69
Q

What do immune cells use chemotaxis for?

A

to circulate between vascular and lymphatic systems and to migrate from the blood to the site of infection

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70
Q

IgA - where is it? what does it protect against?

A

Found in mucous, saliva, tears and breast milk. Protects against pathogens

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71
Q

IgD - where is it? what does it do?

A

part of B cell receptor, activates basophils and mast cells

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72
Q

IgE - what does it do?

A

protects against parasitic worms and responsible for allergic reactions

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73
Q

IgG - how does it travel?

A

secreted by plasma cells in blood, crosses from mother to foetus via placenta

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74
Q

IgM - where is it? what does it do?

A

may be attached to surface of B cell or secreted into blood. Responsible for early stages of immunity.

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75
Q

What is a mast cell?

A

a cell filled with basophil granules

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76
Q

Frank-Starling law

A

the greater the force of contraction during systole, the more forcefully it will contract

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77
Q

How does ANS affect force of contraction?

A

Stimulation increases force, inhibition decreases force

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78
Q

Effect of increased nerve impulses from vagus nerves (parasympathetic)

A

decreased heart rate

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79
Q

Effect of increased nerve impulses from cardiac accelerator nerves (sympathetic)

A

increased heart rate and contractility

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80
Q

Effect of increased nerve impulses from vasomotor nerves (sympathetic)

A

vasoconstriction

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81
Q

Perfusion definition

A

the passage of fluid through the circulatory system or lymphatic system to an organ or a tissue, usually referring to the delivery of blood to a capillary bed in tissue

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82
Q

Signs and symptoms of altered perfusion

A

dyspnoea, cough, chest pain, tachycardia, hypotension, cyanosis, changes in arterial blood gases, changes in ECG and biochemistry, confusion and anxiety, oedema, finger clubbing

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83
Q

How does the movement of fluids and solutes out of capillaries into the interstitial fluid occur?

A

via filtration which is driven by blood hydrostatic pressure

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84
Q

What assists the return of venous blood from the foot to the right atrium?

A

a system of valves within the veins

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85
Q

What percentage of the fluids in the body are extracellular?

A

33%

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86
Q

What percentage of the fluids in the body are intracellular?

A

67%

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87
Q

What percentage of extracellular fluid is made up of interstitial?

A

80%

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88
Q

What percentage of extracellular fluid is made up of plasma?

A

20%

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89
Q

Components of average daily water gain and their amounts

A

Metabolic water - 200mL
Ingested foods - 700mL
Ingested liquids - 1600mL

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90
Q

Components of average daily water loss and their amounts

A

GI tract - 100mL
Lungs - 300mL
Skin - 600mL
Kidneys - 1500mL

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91
Q

Dehydration pathway - decreased flow of saliva

A

Dehydration –> decreased flow of saliva –> dry mouth and pharynx –> stimulates thirst centre in hypothalamus –> increases thirst –> increases water intake –> increases body water to normal level and decreases thirst

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92
Q

Dehydration pathway - Increased blood osmotic pressure

A

Dehydration –> increased blood osmotic pressure –> stimulates osmoreceptors in hypothalamus –> stimulates thirst centre in hypothalamus –> increases thirst –> increases water intake –> increases body water to normal level and decreases thirst

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93
Q

Dehydration pathway - decreased blood volume

A

Dehydration –> decreased blood volume –> decreased blood pressure –> increased renin release by kidneys –> increased angiotensin ll formation –> stimulates thirst centre in hypothalamus –> increases thirst –> increases water intake –> increases body water to normal level and decreases thirst

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94
Q

Mechanism and effect of thirst centre in hypothalamus

A

Stimulates desire to drink leading towater gain if thirst is quenched

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95
Q

Mechanism and effect of angiotensin ll

A

stimulates secretion of aldosterone which reduces loss of water in urine

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96
Q

Mechanism and effect of aldosterone

A

By promoting urine reabsorption of Na+ and Cl- ions, increases water reabsorption via osmosis

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97
Q

Mechanism and effect of ANP

A

promotes natriuresis, elevated urine excretion of Na+, Cl- ions with water

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98
Q

Mechanism and effect of ADH

A

promotes insertion of water channel proteins into plasma membranes of cells in collecting ducts of kidneys, causing water permeability to increased and more water to be absorbed

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99
Q

Order of layers of artery from inside out

A

Endothelium, basement membrane, internal elastic lamina, smooth muscle, outer layer

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100
Q

Order of layers of vein from inside out

A

Endothelium, basement membrane, smooth muscle, outer layer

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101
Q

Layers of capillary

A

Endothelium and basement membrane

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102
Q

Filtration in capillary exchange

A

Fluid moves from high pressure in capillary bed to low pressure in tissues

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103
Q

Reabsorption in capillary exchange

A

Fluid moves from high pressure in tissues to low pressure in capillary bed

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104
Q

Two types of pressure involved in capillary exchange

A

Hydrostatic and osmotic

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105
Q

Blood hydrostatic pressure

A

force exerted by blood confined in blood vessels and heart chambers

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106
Q

Capillary hydrostatic pressure

A

force of blood on capillary walls –> drives fluid out of capillaries into tissue fluid

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107
Q

How does fluid move out of the capillary into ISF?

A

As fluid leaves capillary, hydrostatic pressure in ISF rises. Capillary hydrostatic pressure is higher than IFHP so fluid moves from capillary to ISF.

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108
Q

How is fluid drawn from tissue back into capillary?

A

Plasma proteins in blood can’t move across semi permeable capillary cell membrane so they remain in the plasma, meaning blood has a higher colloidal concentration and lower water concentration than tissue fluid so attracts water. Blood colloidal osmotic pressure is higher than IFCOP.

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109
Q

Capillary exchange

A

Net filtration occurs near the arterial end of the capillary since capillary hydrostatic pressure (CHP) is greater than blood colloidal osmotic pressure (BCOP). There is no net movement of fluid near the midpoint since CHP = BCOP. Net reabsorption occurs near the venous end since BCOP is greater than CHP.

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110
Q

4 functions of electrolytes broken into ions

A
  1. control osmosis of water between fluid compartments
  2. help maintain acid-base balance
  3. carry electrical current
  4. serve as cofactors for optimal activity of enzymes
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111
Q

Sodium ions in fluid

A

most abundant extracellular ions. Involved in action potentials, muscle contraction and fluid and electrolyte balance`

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112
Q

What is Na+ balance controlled by?

A

aldosterone, ADH, ANP

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113
Q

Chloride ions in fluid

A

major extracellular anions. Play role in regulating osmotic pressure, and forming HCl in gastric juice

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114
Q

What is Cl- balance controlled by?

A

processes that increase or decrease kidney reabsorption of Na+

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115
Q

Potassium ions in fluid

A

most abundant cations in intracellular fluid. Play key role in establishing the resting membrane potential in neurons and muscle fibres, contribute to regulation of pH

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116
Q

What is K+ balance controlled by?

A

aldosterone

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117
Q

Calcium ions in fluid

A

principally extracelllular cations. function in blood clotting, neurotransmitter release and muscle contraction.

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118
Q

What is Ca2+ balance controlled by?

A

parathyroid hormone and calcitriol

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119
Q

Oedema - what is it? Causes?

A

accumulation of excess interstitial fluid. Caused by heart failure, kidney disease, inadequate lymphatic systems or weakness/damage in leg veins

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120
Q

Renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system

A

kidneys convert prorenin to renin and secrete it into bloodstream. Plasma renin converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin, which is then converted to angiotensin ll. This causes vasoconstriction, leading to increased BP. Also stimulates aldosterone which causes renal tubules to increase reabsorption of sodium and water into blood while causing excretion of K+. This increases volume of ECF and increases BP.

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121
Q

Pressure of breathing at rest

A

diaphragm relaxed, so alveolar pressure = atmospheric pressure and there is no air flow

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122
Q

Pressure changes during inhalation

A

diaphragm contracts, chest cavity expands and alveolar pressure drops below atmospheric pressure.

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123
Q

Pressure changes during exhalation

A

diaphragm and external intercostals relax. Chest and lungs recoil, chest cavity contracts and alveolar pressure increases above atmospheric.

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124
Q

Negative feedback of breathing

A

stimulus –> controlled condition decreases pH –> central chemoreceptors in medulla / preipheral chemoreceptors in aorticand carotid bodies –> dorsal respiratory group in medulla oblongata –> muscles of inhalation + exhalation contract more forcefully and frequently –> response

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125
Q

Blood pressure formula

A

Cardiac Output x Peripheral Resistance

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126
Q

Cardiovascular disorders that can alter perfusion

A 
Hypertension (In CYP causes may include renal disease, congenital cardiac disease) 
Diseases of the heart
CYP -Congenital Heart Disease (CHD) 
Coronary Heart Disease (CHD)
Heart failure (acute or chronic)
Myocardial infarction (Ischaemic heart disease)
Valve insufficiencies
Cardiogenic shock
Pericarditis
Sinus Node Dysfunction
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127
Q

Cardiovascular disorders that can alter perfusion

A 
Hypertension (In CYP causes may include renal disease, congenital cardiac disease) 
Diseases of the heart
CYP -Congenital Heart Disease (CHD) 
Coronary Heart Disease (CHD)
Heart failure (acute or chronic)
Myocardial infarction (Ischaemic heart disease)
Valve insufficiencies
Cardiogenic shock
Pericarditis
Sinus Node Dysfunction
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128
Q

Cause for abrupt increase in ventilation at start of exercise

A

due to neural changes that send excitatory impulses to inspiratory area of medulla oblongata

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129
Q

Cause for more gradual increase in ventilation during moderate exercise

A

due to chemical and physical changes in bloodstream

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130
Q

Haemoptysis

A

coughing up blood

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131
Q

Lung compliance

A

a measure of the lung’s ability to stretch and expand

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132
Q

Compliance is affected by…

A

the amount of elastic tissue in the lung and the amount of surfactant

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133
Q

What is lymphatic tissue a specialised form of?

A

reticular connective tissue

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134
Q

What do lymph nodes do?

A

filter all fluids that pass through them and filter into the thoracic duct

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135
Q

Where is the thoracic duct located?

A

along the aorta

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136
Q

3 functions of immune system

A
  1. drains excess interstitial fluid
  2. transports dietary lipids
  3. carries out immune responses
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137
Q

role of lymphatic capillaries

A

absorb ISF and pass lymph to affarent vessels

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138
Q

role of affarent lymph vessels

A

carry lymph from lymph capillaries to lymph nodes

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139
Q

role of efferent lymp vessels

A

carry lymph from nodes to ducts

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140
Q

When is interstitial fluid called lymph?

A

After it passes into the lymphatic vessels

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141
Q

What is the spleen and where is it located?

A

the largest single mass of lymphatic tissue in the body. Located between the stomach and the diaphragm.

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142
Q

What types of tissue does the spleen contain?

A

white pulp and red pulp

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143
Q

White pulp

A

lymphatic tissue where B and T cells carry out immune responses

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144
Q

Red pulp

A

blood filled sinuses where worn out blood cells and platelets are removed - red blood cells broken down into biliverdin and bilirubin

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145
Q

Splenectomy

A

removal of spleen

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146
Q

What cells does a lymph node contain?

A

B cells, T cells, plasma cells, dendritic cells, macrophages

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147
Q

Lymphatic nodules

A

egg shaped masses of lymphatic tissue that are not surrounded by a capsule

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148
Q

How does lymph flow around the body?

A

Lymphatic capillaries merge to form large lymphatic vessels which drain into the thoracic duct and the right lymphatic duct. Thoracic duct empties fluid into left internal jugular and left subclavian veins, right lymphatic duct empties into right internal jugular and right subclavian veins, then back to blood.

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149
Q

Flow diagram of lymphatic filtration

A

Extra fluid in body tissues –> lymphatic capillaries absorb fluid and pass on to –> affarent lymphatic vessels which pass to –> lymph nodes which contain lymphocytes that attack and break down pathogens –> lymp fluid carries waste through efferent lymphatic vessels to –> blood stream –> liver or kidneys remove waste from blood –> passed out of body

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150
Q

Biliverdin

A

green bile pigment responsible for greenish colour in bruising. Converted to bilirubin via chemical reduction

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151
Q

BIlirubin

A

orange-yellow substance in bile. Higher levels can indicate a liver problem (can cause jaundice). Oxidised back to biliverdin.

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152
Q

How does photo therapy work?

A

Light waves are absorbed by the skin and blood. Oxides bilirubin so that is can easily dissolve in water.

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153
Q

How does fluid move from the blood system to the lymphatic system?

A

Fluid accumulates in interstitial space is tissues after leaking through the cardiovascular capillaries, then leaks through mini valves at the junction of the endothelium into lymph capillaries.

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154
Q

What are the major lymphoid tissues?

A

Primary - thymus and bone marrow

Secondary - lymph nodes, tonsils, and spleen

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155
Q

What are primary lymphoid organs?

A

where lymphocytes are formed and mature.

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156
Q

What are secondary lymphoid organs?

A

sites where lymphocytes interact with each other and nonlymphoid cells to generate immune responses to antigens.

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157
Q

Where are the major lymph nodes?

A

tonsils, adenoids, armpits, neck, groin and mediastinum.

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158
Q

Parts of the urinary system top to bottom

A

kidney, ureter, ovary, bladder, uterus, urethra

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159
Q

Functions of the kidneys

A
  • regulate ion levels in blood
  • regulate blood volume and BP
  • regulate blood pH
  • produce hormones
  • excrete wastes
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160
Q

Path of blood flow in kidneys

A

renal artery –> segmental arteries –> interlobal arteries –> arcuate arteries–> cortical radiate arteries –> afferent arterioles –> peritubular capillaries –> cortical radiate veins –> arcuate veins –> interlobar veins –> renal vein

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161
Q

Flow of fluid through a cortical nephron

A

Glomerular capsule –> proximal convoluted tubule –> descending limb of nephron loop –> ascending limb of nephron loop –> distal convoluted tubule (drains into collecting duct)

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162
Q

Glomerular filtration

A

In glomerulus, blood plasma and dissolved substances get filtered into glomerular capsule

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163
Q

Tubular reabsorption

A

all along renal tubule and collecting duct, water, ions and other substances get reabsorbed from the renal tubule into peritubular capillaries and into the blood

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164
Q

Tubular secretion

A

all along renal tubule and collecting duct, waste substances get secreted from peritubular capillaries into the renal tubule and go onto form urine

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165
Q

Transportation of urine

A

Urine produced by nephrons drains into minor calyces, which join to become major calyces that unite to form the renal pelvis. From here, urine drains first into the ureters and then into the bladder where it is discharged from the body though the urethra

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166
Q

How many layers do the ureter walls consist of? What are they?

A

3 - transitional mucosa on inside, smooth muscle in middle and an outer layer of areolar connective tissue

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167
Q

Urinary bladder - what is it? What does it do?

A

hollow muscular organ in pelvic cavity posterior to pubic symphysis. Stores urine prior to mictuition

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168
Q

Mictuition

A

urinating

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169
Q

Describe the walls of the bladder

A

Mucosa contains transitional epithelium and rugae. Muscular layer consists of 3 layers of smooth muscle called detrusor muscle. Outer coat is a fibrous covering.

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170
Q

What is responsible for the yellow/amber colour of urine?

A

Urochrome and urobilin

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171
Q

What is urochrome?

A

a pigment produced from the breakdown of bile

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172
Q

What is urobilin?

A

a pigment produced from the breakdown of haemoglobin

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173
Q

What diets affect the pH of urine?

A

High protein increases acidity, vegetarian increases alkalinity

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174
Q

What does albumin in urine indicate?

A

increase in permeability of filtering membranes

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175
Q

What does glucose in urine indicate?

A

diabetes

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176
Q

What do red blood cells in urine indicate?

A

acute inflammation of urinary organs

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177
Q

What do white blood cells in urine indicate?

A

infection in the kidneys or other urinary organs

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178
Q

What do ketone bodies in urine indicate?

A

diabetes or anorexia due to too few carbohydrates

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179
Q

What does bilirubin in urine indicate?

A

liver damage or disorder

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180
Q

What does urobilinogen in urine indicate?

A

anemia, hepatitis, jaundice

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181
Q

What do ureters do?

A

transport urine from kidneys to bladder. As bladder fills, it expands and compresses the ureters to prevent backflow

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182
Q

What do rugae in kidneys do?

A

allow bladder to expand as it fills

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183
Q

What does the peritonum in kidneys do?

A

helps hold bladder in place

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184
Q

What does the internal urethral sphincter do?

A

it is an involuntary smooth muscle - opens and closes urethra

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185
Q

What does the external urethral sphincter do?

A

It is a voluntary skeletal muscle - opens and closes urethra

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186
Q

What is the external urethral orifice?

A

the opening of the urethra to the outside

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187
Q

What is the urethra?

A

a small tube leading from the bladder to the outside

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188
Q

What does urine consist of?

A

95% water, urea (ammonia and CO2), chloride, sodium, potassium and creatinine

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189
Q

pH of gastric juice

A

1.2-3

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190
Q

pH of vaginal fluid

A

3.5-4.5

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191
Q

pH of urine

A

4.6-8.0

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192
Q

pH of saliva

A

6.4-6.9

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193
Q

pH of semen

A

7.2-7.6

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194
Q

pH of cerebrospinal fluid

A

7.4

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195
Q

pH of bile

A

7.6-8.6

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196
Q

pH of blood

A

7.35-7.45

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197
Q

Why is the pH of blood so tightly controlled?

A

as proteins are sensitive to pH

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198
Q

What do buffer systems do?

A

temporarily bind H+, removing the highly reactive, excess H+ ions from solution but not from the body

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199
Q

3 types of buffer systems in the body

A

protein buffer system
carbonic acid-bicarbonate buffer system
phosphate buffer system

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200
Q

Kidney excretion of H+

A

slowest but only way for most acids.

cells of renal tubules secrete H+ which is then excreted in the urine.

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201
Q

What is H+ usually replaced with when excreted via kidneys?

A

Potassium which organs are very sensitive to

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202
Q

Acidosis and CNS

A

causes depression of CNS

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203
Q

Alkalosis and CNS

A

causes overexcitability of CNS

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204
Q

Protein buffer system

A

Proteins are made up of amino acids, which contain positively charged amino groups and negatively charged carboxyl groups. The charged regions of these molecules can bind hydrogen and hydroxyl ions, and thus function as buffers.

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205
Q

Carbonic acid-bicarbonate buffer system

A

CO2+H20H2CO3H+ + HCO3-

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206
Q

Phosphate buffer system

A

It consists of dihydrogen phosphate ions as the hydrogen ion donor ( acid ) and hydrogen phosphate ion as the ion acceptor ( base ) . If additional hydroxide ions enter the cellular fluid, they are neutralised by the dihydrogen phosphate ion

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207
Q

Effects of ageing on fluid and electrolyte balance

A

impaired thirst perception; decreased glomerular filtration rate; alterations in hormone levels, including ADH, ANP and aldosterone; decreased urinary concentrating ability; and limitations in excretion of water, electrolytes and acid.

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208
Q

What is the role of the somatic nervous system?

A

voluntary control of body movements via skeletal muscles

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209
Q

What is the role of the autonomic nervous system?

A

mostly involuntary and regulates bodily functions e.g. HR, digestion, RR. Sympathetic controls fight or flight response.

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210
Q

What is the role of the enteric nervous system?

A

governs functions of GI tract

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211
Q

What neurons does the somatic nervous system contain?

A

sensory neurons that conduct impulses from somatic and special sense receptors to the CNS and motor neurons from CNS to skeletal muscles

212
Q

What neurons does the autonomic nervous system contain?

A

sensory neurons from visceral organs and motor neurons that carry impulses from CNS to smooth muscle tissue, cardiac muscle tissue and glands.

213
Q

What are the divisions of the motor part of the autonomic nervous system and what do they do?

A

Sympathetic - supports exercise and emergency actions

Parasympathetic- rest and digest activities

214
Q

What neurons does the enteric nervous system contain?

A

neurons in enteric plexuses in GI tract that function somewhat independently of ANS and CNS.

215
Q

3 basic functions of nervous system

A
  • SENSORY detecting stimuli
  • INTEGRATIVE analysing, integrating and storing sensory information
  • MOTOR responding to integrative decisions
216
Q

two types of cells in nervous tissue

A

neurons and neuroglia

217
Q

What is a neuron?

A

a cell specialised for nerve impulse conduction. Enables sensing, thinking, remembering and controlling muscle activity.

218
Q

What do neuroglia do?

A

support, nourish and protect neurons and maintain homeostasis in ISF.

219
Q

3 parts of a neuron

A

Dendrite - main receiving or input region
Cell body - where integration occurs
Axon - output part, conducts nerve impulse towards another neuron, muscle fibre or gland cell.

220
Q

Classifications of neurons

A

Sensory - carry sensory info to CNS
Motor - carry info out of CNS into effectors
Inter - within CNS between sensory and motor

221
Q

Names of neuroglia in CNS

A

astrocytes, oligodendrocytes, microglia and ependymal

222
Q

Names of neuroglia in PNS

A

schwann cells and satellite cells

223
Q

Which neuroglia produce myelin sheaths?

A

oligodendrocytes and schwann cells

224
Q

What does white matter consist of?

A

primarily myelinated axons

225
Q

What does grey matter consist of?

A

neuronal cell bodies, dendrites and axon terminals of neurons, unmyelinated axons and neuroglia.

226
Q

Ganglion definition

A

cluster of neuronal cell bodies located in PNS

227
Q

Nucleus definition (CNS)`

A

cluster of neuronal cell bodies which relays info

228
Q

Nerve definition

A

bundle of axons located in PNS

229
Q

Tract definition

A

bundle of nerves located in CNS. Interconnect neurons in brain and spinal cord

230
Q

What nerves connect brain to periphery?

A

cranial

231
Q

What nerves connect spinal cord to periphery?

A

spinal

232
Q

How does the myelin sheath increase the speed of transmission?

A

due to saltatory conduction where the impulse jumps from one node of Ranvier to another.

233
Q

What is a bouton?

A

button like structures of axon terminals

234
Q

What is the resting membrane potential?

A

-70mV

235
Q

How does a resting membrane potential aris?

A

due to an unequal distribution of ions on either side the plasma membrane and a higher membrane permeability to K+ than to Na+

236
Q

What is the all or none principle?

A

It says that if a stimulus is strong enough to generate an AP, the impulse generated is of a constant size

237
Q

What makes an axon conduct impulses faster?

A

If they have a larger diameter or if they are myelinated

238
Q

What happens during the generation of an action potential?

A

Generation depends on existence of a membrane potential and the presence of voltage gated channels for Na+ and K+. These channels open in sequence - opening of the Na+ channels results in depolarisation whereas opening of K+ channels results in repolarisation, causing membrane potential to return to resting.

239
Q

What is continuous conduction?

A

When nerve impulse conduction occurs by a step by step process along an unmyelinated axon

240
Q

What are meninges?

A

highly vascular structures that support the brain

241
Q

Three types of meninges

A

Pia (innermost)
Arachnoid (middle)
Dura (outermost)

242
Q

How does synaptic transmission occur?

A

At a synapse, a neurotransmitter is released from a presynaptic neuron into the synaptic cleft and then binds to receptors on the plasma membrane of the postsynaptic neuron.

243
Q

What does an excitatory neurotransmitter do?

A

depolarises the post synaptic neuron’s membrane, brings membrane potential closer to threshold and increases chance that one or more APs will rise

244
Q

What does an inhibitory neurotransmitter do?

A

hyperpolarises the membrane of the post synaptic neuron, thereby inhibiting AP generation.

245
Q

How is a neurotransmitter removed?

A

3 ways:

diffusion, enzymatic destruction or reuptake by neuron and neuroglia.

246
Q

Examples of neurotransmitters

A

acetyl choline, glutamate, aspartate, gammaaminobutyric acid, glycine, norepinephrine, dopamine, serotonin, neuropeptides and nitric oxide

247
Q

How do vesicles fuse?

A

An action potential must be converted into a chemical signal, a rise in the Ca2+ concentration in the cytosol. The arrival of the action potential causes depolarisation and opens the voltage gated Ca2+ channels, allowing Ca2+ ions to enter the cytosol from the extracellular fluid. This raises the level of Ca2+ near the synaptic vesicles and the ions bind to proteins that connect the synaptic vesicle to the plasma membrane, inducing membrane fusion and then causing exocytosis of the neurotransmitter. The extra Ca2+ ions are rapidly pumped out of the cell by Ca2+ ATPases, lowering the cytosolic Ca2+ level and preparing the terminal to respond again to an action potential.

248
Q

afferent definition

A

information towards

249
Q

efferent definition

A

information away from

250
Q

How many pairs of spinal nerves are there?

A

32

251
Q

Cranial nerve I

A

Olfactory nerve - SENSORY allows smell

252
Q

Cranial nerve II

A

Opic nerve - SENSORY allows vision

253
Q

Cranial nerve III

A

Oculomotor nerve - MOTOR allows movement of upper eyelid and eyeball, alters shape of lens for near vision and constricts pupil

254
Q

Cranial nerve IV

A

Trochlear nerve - MOTOR allows movement of eyeball

255
Q

Cranial nerve V

A

Trigeminal nerve (face) - SENSORY senses touch, pain and temperature sensations, muscle sense MOTOR chewing

256
Q

Cranial nerve VI

A

Abducens nerve - MOTOR movement of eyeball

257
Q

Cranial nerve VII

A

Facial nerve - SENSORY taste, muscle sense, touch, pain and temperature sensations MOTOR facial expressions, secretion of tears and saliva

258
Q

Cranial nerve VIII

A

Vestibulocochlear nerve - VESTIBULAR SENSORY equilibrium COCHLEAR SENSORY hearing

259
Q

Cranial nerve IX

A

Glossopharyngeal nerve - SENSORY taste, somatic sensations, monitor BP, O2 and CO2 in blood MOTOR swallowing, speech, secretion of saliva

260
Q

Cranial nerve X

A

Vagus nerve - SENSORY taste and somatic sensations from pharynx and epiglottis, monitor BP, monitor O2 and CO2 in blood MOTOR swallow, cough, voice production, smooth muscle contraction and relaxation in GI tract, slowing of HR

261
Q

Cranial nerve XI

A

Accessory nerve - MOTOR movement of head and shoulders

262
Q

Cranial nerve XII

A

Hypoglossal nerve - MOTOR movement of tongue during speech and swallowing

263
Q

Remembering cranial nerves

A

Nerves - OOOTTAFVGVAH

Sensory/Motor/Both - SSMMBMBSBBMM

264
Q

What is the myelin sheath?

A

a fatty insulating layer

265
Q

What is a neurotransmitter?

A

a chemical released by a nerve that causes a response

266
Q

Other name for sympathetic division of ANS

A

thoracolumbar region because outflow of sympathetic nerve impulses come from the thoracic and lumbar segments of spinal cord

267
Q

How are sympathetic ganglia classified?

A

sympathetic trunk ganglia (lateral to vertebral column)
OR
prevertebral ganglia (anterior to vertebral column)

268
Q

Once an axon of a preganglionic neuron of sympathetic trunk enters a sympathetic trunk ganglion, what 4 paths may it follow?

A
  1. It may synapse with postganglionic neurons in the sympathetic trunk ganglion it first reaches
  2. It may ascend/descend to a higher/lower sympathetic trunk ganglion before synapsing with postganglionic neurons.
  3. It may continue. without synapsing, through the sympathetic trunk ganglion to end and synapse with postganglionic neurons there
  4. It may terminate in the adrenal medulla
269
Q

Another name for the parasympathetic division of the ANS

A

Craniosacral division because the outflow of parasympathetic nerve impulses come from cranial nerve nuclei and sacral segments of the spinal cord.

270
Q

Alternate name for parasympathetic ganglia

A

terminal ganglia and are locaated near or within autonomic effectors.

271
Q

Which ANS neurons release acetylcholine?

A

all sympathetic and parasympathetic preganglionic neurons, all parasympathetic postganglionic neurons and a few sympathetic postganglionic neurons

272
Q

Where does cerebrospinal fluid circulate?

A

in the subarachnoid space (between arachnoid and pia mater)

273
Q

What are the roots of the spinal cord called?

A

cauda equina

274
Q

Which nerves does the cervical enlargement contain?

A

nerves that supply the upper limbs

275
Q

Which nerves does the lumbar enlargement contain?

A

nerves that supply lower limbs

276
Q

How long is the spinal cord?

A

42-45cm

277
Q

Division of grey matter in spinal cord

A

divided on each side into regions called horns. Posterior grey horns contain cell bodies of incoming sensory neurons and anterior grey horns contain cell bodies of somatic motor neurons

278
Q

How is white matter organised?

A

into white columns

279
Q

How are spinal nerves wrapped?

A

Individual axons are wrapped in endoneurium, which are then arranged in bundles called fascicles, which are each wrapped in perineurium. The superficial covering over the entire nerve is called the epineurium.

280
Q

What are the basic components of a reflex?

A

1) sensory receptor
2) sensory neuron
3) integrating center
4) motor neuron
5) effector

281
Q

4 major parts of the brain

A

brain stem, diencephalon, cerebrum and cerebellum

282
Q

What does the brain stem contain?

A

medulla oblongata, pons and midbrain

283
Q

Where is CSF produced?

A

choroid plexuses

284
Q

Where is the midbrain?

A

connects pons to diencephalon.

285
Q

What does the diencephalon include?

A

thalamus, hypothalamus and pineal gland

286
Q

What is the thalamus responsible for?

A

main relay station for most sensory impulses that reach the cerebral cortex from the spinal cord and brain stem.

287
Q

What does the pineal gland do?

A

secretes melatonin

288
Q

Function of frontal lobe

A

controls important cognitive skills in humans, such as emotional expression, problem solving, memory, language, judgement, and sexual behaviours.

289
Q

Effects of damage to the frontal lobe

A

Damage can affect an individual’s abilities to make good choices and recognise consequences are often impaired. Damage to the frontal lobe can cause increased irritability, which may include a change in mood and an inability to regulate behaviour.

290
Q

Function of parietal lobe

A

processes sensory information regarding the location of parts of the body as well as interpreting visual information and processing language and mathematics.

291
Q

Effect of damage to parietal lobe

A

Damage can result in what is called “Gerstmann’s Syndrome.” It includes right-left confusion, difficulty with writing (agraphia) and difficulty with mathematics (acalculia).

292
Q

Function of temporal lobe

A

involved in vision, memory, sensory input, language, emotion, and comprehension.

293
Q

Effect of damage to temporal lobe

A

Right temporal damage can cause a loss of inhibition of talking. Left temporal lesions result in impaired memory for verbal material.

294
Q

Function of occipital lobe

A

participates in vision processing. It processes and interprets everything we see. It is also responsible for analysing contents and drawing conclusions about the images we see.

295
Q

Effect of damage to occipital lobe

A

Damage can cause loss of vision with exactly the same “field cut” in both eyes. Hallucinations can also occur.

296
Q

Function of cerebellum

A

receives information from the sensory systems, the spinal cord, and other parts of the brain and then regulates motor movements.

297
Q

Effect of damage to cerebellum

A

Damage to the cerebellum can result is a loss of coordination, inability to judge distance, movement tremors or staggering.

298
Q

3 main uses of food molecules

A

provide energy, serve as building blocks and as storage for future use

299
Q

What are essential nutrients?

A

nutrients that the body cannot make so must be obtained from the diet

300
Q

How many calories is 1g of protein or carbs?

A

4

301
Q

How many calories is 1g of fat?

A

9

302
Q

What elements do carbohydrates contain?

A

carbon, hydrogen and oxygen

303
Q

What elements do proteins contain?

A

carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen and sulphur

304
Q

What elements do lipids contain?

A

carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, phosphorus and nitrogen

305
Q

Where are sugars stored?

A

in the muscles in the liver

306
Q

What is glycogenesis?

A

the synthesis of glycogen from glucose

307
Q

What is glycogenelysis?

A

the breakdown of glycogen to glucose

308
Q

Glycolysis pathway

A

Glucose –> G3P –> Pyrovate –> Lactic acid (if not enough oxygen) or Acetyl co enzyme A –> KREBS cycle –> ATP

309
Q

Types of lipids

A

fatty acids
triglycerides (fats)
sterols (cholesterol)
phospholipids

310
Q

What are some potential deficiencies with vegetarianism?

A

iron, energy, calcium + other minerals, Vitamin B12 and D

311
Q

2 sources of blood cholesterol

A

foods or synthesised by the liver

312
Q

How can fatty foods that don’t contain cholesterol increase blood cholesterol?

A

1) Increase in dietary fat stimulates reabsorption of cholesterol containing bile back into the blood so less is lost in faeces
2) When saturated fats are broken down in the body, liver cells use some of the breakdown products to make cholesterol

313
Q

What does a lipid profile do?

A

Measures total cholesterol, HDL cholesterol, and VDLs (triglycerides)

314
Q

What is HDL cholesterol?

A

High density lipoprotein cholesterol (good cholesterol)

315
Q

How can we predict coronary heart disease risk?

A

Total cholesterol to HDL cholesterol ratio

316
Q

What does nephrotoxic mean?

A

toxic to the kidneys

317
Q

What is haematuria?

A

the presence of blood in the urine

318
Q

What is apnoea?

A

temporary stopping of breathing

319
Q

What is dysuria?

A

painful or difficult urination

320
Q

What is polyuria?

A

excessive production of urine

321
Q

What is anuria?

A

failure of the kidneys to produce urine

322
Q

Components of the vascular system of the kidney?

A

renal, segmental, interlobar, arcuate and interlobular arteries, efferent and afferent arterioles, glomerulus, peritubular capillaries plus veins

323
Q

Order of anatomical structures in kidney?

A

Glomerulus, proximal tubule, descending loop of Henle, ascending loop of Henle, distal tubule

324
Q

Where does the ureter leave the kidney?

A

renal hilium

325
Q

Where are the renal pyramids located?

A

renal medulla

326
Q

ADH alters the permeability of…

A

the collecting duct

327
Q

Which substance usually remains in the glomerulus during filtration?

A

albumin

328
Q

Which of the following is secreted by the juxtaglomerular cells?

A

urea

329
Q

What are the first line of defence in any immune response?

A

anatomical and chemical barriers

330
Q

Which immune response is the inflammatory response part of?

A

non-specific

331
Q

What is autoimmunity?

A

An abnormal immune response to an individual’s own body tissues

332
Q

What are the gaps between myelinated segments of an axon called?

A

nodes of Ranvier

333
Q

What is metabolism?

A

all chemical reactions in the body

334
Q

What is anabolism?

A

reactions that combine simple substances into more complex molecules

335
Q

What is catabolism?

A

reactions that break down complex organic compounds into simple ones

336
Q

Explain carbohydrate metabolism

A

During digestion, polysaccharide and disaccharide carbs are converted to glucose.

337
Q

How does glucose move into cells and what is this facilitated by?

A

facilitated diffusion, stimulated by insulin

338
Q

What is cellular respiration?

A

the catabolism of glucose to produce ATP

339
Q

Which reactions does the complete catabolism of glucose to ATP involve?

A

glycolysis, Krebs cycle, and the electron transport chain

340
Q

Where does glycolysis occur?

A

in the cytosol

341
Q

Where does the Krebs cycle occur?

A

in the mitochondria

342
Q

What does glycolysis yield?

A

2ATP + 2NADH + 2H+

343
Q

What happens with the energy in the Krebs cycle?

A

energy contained in glucose, pyruvic acid and acetyl CoA is transferred to coenzymes NADH and FADH2.

344
Q

What is the elctron transport chain?

A

series of reactions in the mitochondria where energy in reduced coenzymes is transferred to ATP.

345
Q

Simple flow diagram of cellular respiration

A

Glucose –> Pyruvic acid –> acetyl CoA –> Krebs cycle –> electron transport chain where ATP is released

346
Q

Explain lipid metabolism

A

Muscle, liver and adipose cells routinely catabolise fatty acids from triglycerides to produce ATP.

  1. Triglycerides are split into glycerol and fatty acids via lipolysis.
  2. Liver converts some acetyl CoA into ketone bodies, which leave liver to enter body cells, where they are broken down into acetyl CoA, which then enters the Krebs cycle.
347
Q

Which hormones enhance lipid metabolism?

A

epinephrine, norepinephrine, and cortisol

348
Q

Explain protein metabolism

A

Their amino acids are either oxidised to produce ATP or used to synthesise new proteins for growth and repair of body tissues. Excess amino acids are converted to glucose or triglycerides.

349
Q

What is the active transport of amino acids into body cell stimulated by?

A

insulin like growth factors and insulin

350
Q

Gluconeogenesis

A

glucose formation from pyruvate

351
Q

Glycogenolysis

A

breakdown of glucose to form glucose-1-phosphate and glycogen

352
Q

Osteomalacia

A

softening of bones

353
Q

Atherosclerosis

A

plaque build up in arteries

354
Q

Role of calcium

A

formation of bones and teeth, blood clotting, normal muscle and nerve activity

355
Q

Role of phosphorus

A

Formation of bones and teeth, buffer system in body, muscle contraction and nerve activity

356
Q

Role of potassium

A

generation and conduction of action potentials in neurons and muscle fibres

357
Q

Role of sulphur

A

needed for ATP production in electron transport chain, component of many hormones and vitamins

358
Q

Role of sodium

A

distribution of water in osmosis, bicarbonate buffer system

359
Q

Role of chloride

A

acid base balance, water balance, formation of HCl in stomach

360
Q

Role of magnesium

A

normal functioning of muscle and nervous tissue, participate sin bone formation, component of many coenzymes

361
Q

Role of Iron

A

component of haemoglobin, binds to O2

362
Q

Role of iodide

A

required by thyroid gland to synthesise thyroid hormones

363
Q

Role of manganese

A

activates several enzymes, needed for haemoglobin synthesis, lactation, urea formation

364
Q

Fat soluble vitamins

A

A, B, E, K

365
Q

Water soluble vitamins

A

B1, B2, Niacin, B8, B12, pantothenic acid, folic acid, biotin, C

366
Q

Symptoms of Vitamin A deficiency

A

night blindness, slow development of bones and teeth, dry skin and hair, increased risk of infection

367
Q

Symptoms of Vitamin D deficiency

A

rickets and osteomalacia.

368
Q

Symptoms of Vitamin E deficiency

A

hemolytic anemia. abnormal structure and function of cell components (mitochondria, plasma membrane, lyosomes)

369
Q

Symptoms of Vitamin K deficiency

A

delayed clotting time leading to excessive blood loss

370
Q

Symptoms of Vitamin B1 deficiency

A

build up of pyruvic and lactic acids, and insufficient production of ATP leads to beri beri and polyneuritis

371
Q

What is beri beri?

A

partial paralysis of muscle, can cause heart problems

372
Q

What is polyneuritis?

A

affects peripheral nerves

373
Q

Symptoms of Vitamin B2 deficiency

A

blurred vision, cataracts, dermatitis, cracking of skin, anemia

374
Q

Symptoms of Niacin deficiency

A

Pellagra, characterised by dermatitis and diarrhoea.

375
Q

Symptoms of Vitamin B3 deficiency

A

dermatitis, retarded growth, nausea

376
Q

Symptoms of Vitamin B12 deficiency

A

anemia, impaired activity of osteoblasts, neuropsychiatric abnormalities

377
Q

Symptoms of Pantothenic acid deficiency

A

fatigue, muscle spasms, vomiting, insomnia

378
Q

Symptoms of Folic acid deficiency

A

production of abnormally large red blood cells, higher risk of neural tube defects in newborns

379
Q

Symptoms of Biotin deficiency

A

mental depression, muscular pain, dermatitis, fatigue and nausea

380
Q

Symptoms of Vitamin C deficiency

A

scurvy, anemia

381
Q

What is reticular formation?

A

the net like arrangement of the brain stem consisting of small clusters of grey matter with small bundles of white matter

382
Q

order of stages in sleep cycle

A

1, 2-4, 2, REM

383
Q

Stages of NREM

A

1) falling asleep, sense of falling, eye movements slow down, muscle tone relaxes, hypnic jerks, micro sleeps
2) eye movements reduced, muscle tone further reduced, arousal threshold decreased
3+4) eye movements stop, muscle activity reduces, disorientated if woken

384
Q

What happens during REM sleep?

A

rapid eye movements, RR increases, loss of muscle tone except around extraocular, diaphragm and penile erections, deep sleep.

385
Q

How long does each sleep cycle last and how many times is it repeated?

A

60-120 minutes, repeats 4-6 times a night

386
Q

Thalamo-cortical arousal branch role in waking

A

Wakefulness and REM sleep

387
Q

Hypothalamic-aminergic arousal branch role in waking

A

Chemicals (dopamine, noradrenalin, serotoninc, histamine)

Active during waking, suppressed during NREM and inactive during REM

388
Q

Effect of a deficiency of dopamine on sleep

A

sleep movement disorders

389
Q

Effect of noradrenalin on sleep

A

if aroused causes wakefulness

if deficient causes reduced wakefulness

390
Q

Effect of histamine on sleep

A

if aroused, causes wakefulness

391
Q

Effects of serotonin on sleep

A

reduces REM sleep

392
Q

Effects of cholinesterase inhibitors on sleep

A

increase REM sleep

393
Q

Effects of anticholinergic and antimuscarine drugs on sleep

A

reduce REM sleep

394
Q

Role of suprachiasmic nucleus in sleep

A

internal clock, circadian rhythm, regulates wakefulness and sleep cycle

395
Q

Role of melatonin

A

hormone regulated by circadian clock, peaks at night

396
Q

What is the reticular activating system?

A

short, pencil sized piece of the brain located just above where the spinal cord is attached to the brain. Acts as the gatekeeper of information between most sensory systems and the conscious mind. Filters out unnecessary information so important stuff gets through.

397
Q

Early stage of dying

A

sleeping more, eating and drinking less, social withdrawal, talking less, loss of mobility, pain, confusion

398
Q

Middle stage of dying

A

change in mental state - only briefly awake
noisy, rattily breathing
oral secretions, loss of swallow reflex

399
Q

Late stage of dying

A

coma, changes in vital signs, mottled/cyanosis, changing body temperature, breathing problems

400
Q

Biological effects of dying

A

organs gradually slow and stop working - lose control of bowel and bladder
Sleep increases to conserve energy
Col arms and legs - body is conserving blood volume to vital organs to maintain stroke volume

401
Q

DNA

A

contains genetic information

402
Q

Chromosomes

A

dense structures of tightly coiled DNA that becomes visible during division

403
Q

Gene

A

sequence of DNA that functions as a unit of genetic information. Provides instructions for making proteins out of individual aminoacids in the order specified by the sequence of base pairs

404
Q

Phenotype

A

Outward characteristics

405
Q

Genotype

A

what we are made of

406
Q

Karyotype

A

homologous pairs of chromosomes

407
Q

Which chromosomes do females contain?

A

XX

408
Q

Which chromosomes do males contain?

A

XY

409
Q

3 components of nucleotides

A

nitrogenous base (AGTC)
five carbon sugar
phosphate group

410
Q

Pairings of nucleotide bases in DNA

A

Adenine + Thymine

Guanine + Cytosine

411
Q

Pairings of nucleotide bases in RNA

A

Adenine + Uracil

Guanine + Cytosine

412
Q

Phenylketonuria

A

cannot produce phenylalanine hydroxylase. Heel prick test at 5 days.

413
Q

Codon

A

AKA triplet. Set of 3 bases which make up genetic code - each codon codes for a single amino acid.

414
Q

Synthesis of proteins - transcription + translation

A

Info in specific region of DNA is transcribed to produce molecule of RNA.
RNA attaches to ribosome and is translated into a corresponding specific sequence of amino acids to form a new protein molecule.

415
Q

Co-dominance

A

share phenotype between alleles (e.g. AB blood type)

416
Q

Genetic imprinting

A

sex specific process of chemical modification to the genes so that the alleles are unequally expressed depending on the sex of the parent

417
Q

Polygenic

A

several genes responsible for a trait e.g. skin colour

418
Q

Multifactorial

A

involve a complex interaction of the genes with environment e.g. sunlight - skin cancer

419
Q

Epigenetics definition

A

study of changes in organisms caused by modification of gene expression rather than alteration of the genetic code itself. e.g. adding molecules

420
Q

Mutation definition

A

change in genetic material

421
Q

Mutations in somatic cells

A

usually repaired or cells destroyed. Cannot be passed to next generation, may result in uncontrolled growth.

422
Q

Mutations in germ cells (gametes)

A

can be passed down

423
Q

Point mutation

A

exchange of single nucleotide for another e.g. A for G

424
Q

Insertions

A

add extra nucleotides into DNA

425
Q

Deletions

A

delete nucleotides from DNA

426
Q

Example of autosomal recessive disorder

A

Phenylketonuria

427
Q

Example of autosomal dominant disorder

A

Marfan’s syndrome

428
Q

Marfan’s syndrome

A

genetically inherited disease of skeletal and muscle tissue that causes heart and eye problems. Arm span is longer than height

429
Q

Example of sex linked condition

A

colour blindness, hemophilia, duchenne muscular dystrophy

430
Q

Numerical aberrations

A

failure in chromosome division results in gamtes with an extra chromosome or a deficiency

431
Q

Structural aberrations

A

rearrangement in location or loss of genetic material

432
Q

Diploid

A

paired chromosomes

433
Q

Haploid

A

single unpaired chromosome

434
Q

Allele definition

A

pair of genes that determine hereditary characteristics

435
Q

Locus definition

A

fixed position on chromosome where a particular gene is located

436
Q

Autosomes

A

22 number chromosomes

437
Q

What type of chromosomes are X and Y?

A

sex chromosomes

438
Q

Trisomy definition

A

The presence of an extra chromosome in a diploid cell

439
Q

Where does meiosis occur?

A

In the reproductive organs

440
Q

Ducts in male reproductive system

A

epididymis,ductus deferens, ejaculatory ducts and urethra

441
Q

Accessory sex glands in male reproductive system

A

seminal vesicles, prostate, bulboerethral glands

442
Q

What do the testes contain?

A

seminiferous tubules, sustentacular/sertoli cells, leydig/interstitial cells

443
Q

role of seminiferous tubules

A

where sperm cells develop

444
Q

role of sustentacular/sertoli cells

A

nourish sperm cells and release hormone inhibin

445
Q

role of leydig/interstitial cells

A

produce testosterone

446
Q

Process of spermatogenesis

A

primordial germ cell –> spermatogonial stem cell (diploid) –> spermatogonium (diploid) –> primary spermatocyte (diploid) –> secondary spermatocyte (haploid) –> spermatids (haploid) –> sperm cells

447
Q

Role of leutanizing hormone in male reproductive system

A

stimulates leydig cells to produce testosterone

448
Q

Role of FSH and testosterone in male resproductive system

A

stimulate spermatogenesis

449
Q

Role of inhibin in male reproductive system

A

inhibits FSH, helping to regulate the rate of spermatogenesis

450
Q

How is sperm transported?

A

out of testes into epididymis, where their motility increases. The ductus deferens stores sperm and propels them into the urethra during ejaculation.

451
Q

How are the ejaculatory ducts formed?

A

by the union of the ducts from the seminal vesicles and vas deferens

452
Q

Role of ejaculatory ducts

A

eject sperm into urethra

453
Q

Components of sperm cells

A

acrosome, nucleus, mitochondria

454
Q

What do bulboerethral glands do?

A

secrete mucus for lubrication and an alkaline substance that neutralises acid

455
Q

3 parts of the penis

A

root, body and glans penis

456
Q

What is caused by the expansion of penis’ blood sinuses?

A

erection

457
Q

What are the male gonads?

A

testes

458
Q

Components of the female reproductive system

A

ovaries, uterine/fallopian tubes, uterus, vagina, vulva + mammary glands

459
Q

What are the female gonads?

A

ovaries

460
Q

What is oogenesis?

A

production of haploid secondary oocytes

461
Q

Where is the usual site of fertilization?

A

uterine tubes

462
Q

Functions of uterus (womb)

A

part of pathway for sperm to reach uterine tubes, functions in menstruation, implantation of a fertilized ovum, development of foetus during pregnancy and labour

463
Q

What is the endometrium?

A

inner layer of uterine wall

464
Q

Process of oogenesis

A

oogonium –> primary oocyte –> secondary oocyte and first polar body –> sperm cells fertilizes secondary oocyte –> ovum and second polar body –> zygote

465
Q

`What is the role of the vagina?

A

passage for menstrual flow, receptacle for penis during sexual intercourse, lower portion of birth canal

466
Q

What is the vulva and what are its components?

A

the external genitals of the female. Consists of mons pubis, labia majora, labia minora, clitoris, vestibule, vaginal and urethral orifices, paraurethral glands and greater vestibular glands

467
Q

Where do the breasts lie?

A

over pectoralis major and serratus anterior muscles and are attached to them by a layer of connective tissue

468
Q

What is milk ejection stimulated by?

A

oxytocin

469
Q

What is the function of the ovarian cycle?

A

development of secondary oocyte

470
Q

What is the function of the uterine cycle?

A

preparation of endometrium each month to receive a fertilized egg

471
Q

What are the ovarian and uterine cycles controlled by?

A

GnRH from hypothalamus which stimulates release of FSH and LH by the anterior pituitary

472
Q

Role of oestrogens in females

A

stimulate growth, development and maintenance of female reproductive structures, development of secondary sex characteristics and protein synthesis

473
Q

Role of progestrone in females

A

works with estrogens to prepare the endometrium for implantation and mammary glands for milk synthesis

474
Q

Role of relaxin in females

A

increases flexibility of pubic symphysis and helps dilate the uterine cervix to ease delivery of baby

475
Q

What happens during menstrual phase?

A

part of endometrium is shed, discharging blood and tissue cells

476
Q

What happens during preovulatory phase?

A

a group of follicles in the ovaries begins to undergo maturation. One follicle outgrows others and becomes dominant while others die. At same time, endometrial repair occurs inuterus.

477
Q

Which are the dominant hormones during the preovulatory phase?

A

estrogens

478
Q

What happens during ovulation?

A

the rupture of the dominant mature (Graafian) follicl and the release of a secondary oocyte in the pelvic cavity.

479
Q

How is ovulation brought on?

A

by a surge of LH

480
Q

What happens during the postovulatory phase?

A

both presterones and estrogens are secreted in large quantity by corpus luteum of ovary and the endometrium thickens in readiness for implantation. The fertilization and implantation do not occur, corpus luteum degenerates and the resulting low levels of hormones allow the discharge of the endometrium.

481
Q

What does RU 486 do?

A

can induce abortion by blocking action of progesterone

482
Q

Where are immunoglobulins produced?

A

by plasma cells

483
Q

Where are leukocytes produced?

A

in the bone marrow

484
Q

What is anuresis?

A

retention of urine in the bladder

485
Q

What is nephritis?

A

inflammation of the kidneys

486
Q

What is cystitis?

A

inflammation of the bladder or other parts of the urinary system

487
Q

What is haemodialysis?

A

purifying the blood of someone whose kidneys are not working

488
Q

What do chylomicrons do?

A

transport dietary lipids through lymph and blood

489
Q

What is myoglobin?

A

oxygen and iron binding protein

490
Q

What is the role of the human chorionic gonadotrophin hormone and where is it produced?

A

Produced in placenta and maintains corpus luteum during pregnancy

491
Q

Role of prostaglandin

A

promotes uterine contractions during childbirth

492
Q

Role of phrenic nerve

A

controls diaphragm so controls breathing

493
Q

Two types of macrophages

A

fixed and wandering

494
Q

shape of antibodies

A

Y

495
Q

Where are podocytes?

A

line the glomerulus, providing structure

496
Q

Role of juxtaglomerular cells?

A

renin release

497
Q

Where are the affarent arterioles located?

A

renal artery

498
Q

What does the loop of henle reabsorb?

A

magnesium

499
Q

How does information enter the spinal cord?

A

via the dorsal roots

500
Q

What is penetration of the zona pellucida facilitated by?

A

enzymes in the sperm’s acrosome

501
Q

Path of sperm cell in fertilization

A

corona radiata –> zona pellucida –> plasma membrane of secondary oocyte –> cytoplasm of secondary oocyte

502
Q

morula definition

A

sphere of cells produced by cleavage

503
Q

cleavage definition

A

early, rapid cell division of zygote

504
Q

blastula definition

A

animal embryo at early stage of development when it is a hollow ball of cells

505
Q

Fraternal twins

A

two eggs fertilized

506
Q

Identical twins

A

one cell divides

507
Q

What happens during first week of gestation?

A

1) fertilization
2) cleavage - first completed 30 hrs after fertilization
3) morula - 3-4 days after
4) blastocyst - 5 days after
5) Implantation - 6 days after

508
Q

Chorionic villi

A

connect to the embryonic heart so that maternal and fetal blood vessels are brought into close proximity, to allow exchange of nutrients and wastes

509
Q

What happens during 4th week of development?

A

formation of body organs and systems

510
Q

What happens by end of 4th week of development?

A

upper and lower limb buds

511
Q

What happens by end of 8th week of development?

A

embryo has clear human features

512
Q

Teratogens

A

any agent that is able to cause developmental defects in embryo. Most common is alcohol

513
Q

Amniocentesis

A

removing some amniotic fluid surrounding the developing fetus and analysing it for abnormalities. Done at 14-18 weeks. Guided by ultrasound to prevent harm.

514
Q

Chorionic villi sampling

A

from 8 weeks of gestation. Guided by ultrasound; catheter inserted through vagina and cervix to collect a tissue sample from chorionic villi.

515
Q

True labour

A

when uterine contractions occur at regular intervals

516
Q

False labour

A

irregular contractions and no show (discharge of blood with mucus)

517
Q

3 stages of true labour

A

1) dilation
2) expulsion
3) placental

518
Q

adjustments of infant at birth

A
  • lungs able to exchange gases due to surfactant that began to develop by end of 6th month
  • RR at birth is 45 bpm, reduces to 12 within 2 weeks
519
Q

When does the fetal period begin?

A

9th week after gestation

520
Q

What is parturition?

A

childbirth

521
Q

Explain initial development after fertilization until implantation

A

Morula enters uterine cavity and is nourished by uterine milk. Rearranged into a large, fluid filled blastocyst. As blastocyst forms, 2 cell populations develop: inner embryoblast which will develop into embry and outer trophoblast which will develop into the outer chorionic sac. Blastocyst remains in uterine cavity for 2 days until it implants in the fundus or uterus.

522
Q

2 layers of embryoblast and what do their cells form?

A

hypoblast and epiblast - form flat disc called the bilaminar embryonic disc.

523
Q

What is fetal ultrasonography used for?

A

to confirm pregnancy, identify position, fetal age and multiple pregnancies.

524
Q

What does surge in LH trigger?

A

ovulation

525
Q

Which duct contributes most semen?

A

seminal vesicles

Biosciences 2 (1 decks)

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