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A&P Flashcards

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Dermatology Board Prep flashcards
1
Q

what are the 4 types of human tissue

A
  1. muscle tissue
  2. nervous tissue
  3. epithelial tissue
  4. connective tissue
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2
Q

what is the function of muscle tissue

A
  • generates the physical force to make the body structures move
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3
Q

what type of cells provide the ability to move the body in three dimensions

A
  • contractile cells
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4
Q

what is the function of nervous tissue

A
  • detect changes inside/outside the body
  • initiates and transmits nerve impulses that coordinate body activities and help maintain homeostasis
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5
Q

what is the main portion of the integumentary system

A
  • epithelium (skin)
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6
Q

what is the integumentary system comprised of

A
  • skin
  • hair
  • nails
  • accessory structures
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7
Q

what human tissue is responsible for:
- protecting and supporting the body and its organs
- binds organs together
- stores energy reserves as fats
- provides immunity

A
  • connective tissue
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8
Q

what is the function of cell junctions

A
  • provide contact or adhesions between neighboring cells
  • maintain paracellular barriers (barrier in between cells)
  • control transport of materials or signals between cells
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9
Q

what are the 5 different types of cell junctions

A
  • tight junction
  • ahderens junction
  • desmosomes
  • gap junctions
  • hemidesmosome
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10
Q

which cell junction:
- form barriers against water and antigens passing between epithelial cells

A
  • tight junction
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11
Q

which cell junction:
- are cell-cell adhesions continuously assembled & disassembled so cells can respond to changes in their microenvironment

A
  • ahderens junction
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12
Q

which cell junction:
- form stable adhesive junctions between cells

A
  • desmosomes
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13
Q

which cell junction:
- allow various molecules & electrical signals to pass freely between cells

A
  • gap junctions
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14
Q

which cell junction:
- facilitate the stable adhesions of basal epithelial cells to the underlying basement membrane

A
  • hemidesmosomes
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15
Q

how are epithelial tissue broadly categorized

A
  1. covering and lining epithelium
  2. glandular epithelium
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16
Q

what is the function of covering and lining epithelial tissue

A
  • cover the skin and outer covering of some internal organs
  • lines the body cavity, blood vessels, and ducts
  • line interior of respiratory, digestive, urinary and reproductive systems
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17
Q

which of the broad categories of epithelial tissue is an integral part of sense organs for hearing, vision and touch

A
  • covering and lining epithelium
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18
Q

what is glandular epithelium

A
  • secreting portion of the glands, such as sweat
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19
Q

what are the 3 layers of epithelial tissue

A
  • apical layer
  • basal layer
  • basement membrane
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20
Q

what is the most superficial layer of epithelial cells

A
  • apical layer
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21
Q

what is the deepest layer of epithelial cells

A
  • basal layer
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22
Q

what separates the epithelium from the dermis

A

basement membrane

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23
Q

what are the two classifications of epithelial tissue

A
  1. morphology - based on the cell shape
  2. stratification - based on the number of layers
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24
Q

what are the 4 classifications of epithelial cells based on their shape

A
  1. squamous - shaped like pancakes
  2. cuboidal - shaped like a cube
  3. columnar - shaped like a column
  4. transitional - changes shape
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25
Q

what type of epithelial tissue is:
- thin, flat, and allows rapid passage of substances through them
- can be keratinized or non-keratinized

A
  • squamous epithelium
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26
Q

where is squamous epithelial tissue found

A
  • lining of the esophagus
  • mouth
  • cervix
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27
Q

what type of epithelial tissue is:
- tall as they are wide and shaped like cubes or hexagons
- frequently have microvilli at apical surface
- functions in either secretions or absorption

A
  • cuboidal epithelium
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28
Q

where is cuboidal epithelium found

A
  • salivary glands
  • thyroid follicles
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29
Q

what type of epithelial tissue is:
- taller than they are wide
- protect underlying tissue
- apical surfaces may have cilia or microvilli
- often specialized for secretions or absorption

A
  • columnar epithelium
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30
Q

what type of epithelial tissue lines most organs of the GI tract, respiratory tract, and fallopian tubes

A
  • columnar epithelium
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31
Q

which type of epithelial tissue is:
- useful for organs such as the urinary bladder
- able to change shape from flat to cuboidal

A
  • transitional epithelium
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32
Q

what is a single layer of cells that functions in diffusion, osmosis, filtration, secretion, and absorption

A
  • simple epithelium
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33
Q

what is pseudo-stratified epithelium

A
  • a simple epithelium that appears to be stratified because the cell nuclei lie at different levels
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34
Q

why is pseudo-stratified epithelium considered as simple epithelium

A
  • because all the cells rest on the basement membrane
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35
Q

what type of cells secretes mucus and is an integral part of the mucous membrane

A
  • goblet cells (a specialized type of pseudo-stratified cell)
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36
Q

what are the 3 different layers of epithelial tissue

A
  • simple
  • pseudo-stratified
  • stratified
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37
Q

what type of epithelial tissue consist of 2 or more layers of cells that protect underlying tissues in locations where there is considerable wear and tear

A
  • stratified epithelium
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38
Q

what is the function of ciliated epithelial cells

A
  • provide movement of the cell itself
  • provide movement of particles or substances across or around the cell
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39
Q

where can ciliated epithelial cells be found

A
  • nasopharynx
  • trachea
    (to remove mucus, bacteria, and other debris from the lungs)
  • fallopian tubes
    (to assist in helping move the egg towards the uterus)
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40
Q

what is the function of microvilli of epithelial cells

A
  • increase the surface area
  • enabling absorption and secretion
  • help anchor sperm to the egg
  • acts as an anchoring point and aid in the migration of WBCs
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41
Q

a highly insoluble fibrous protein with water proofing qualities and high friction resistance

A
  • keratin
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42
Q

what are epithelial cells infused with keratin in the stratum basale of the epidermis called

A
  • keratinocytes
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43
Q

why does keratinocytes lose their nucleus and organelles

A
  • to make room for keratin
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44
Q

what is keratin

A
  • dead cells
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45
Q

where is non-keratinized stratified epithelial found

A
  • on wet/interior surfaces exposed to considerable wear and tear
  • lining of the mouth, tongue, pharynx, esophagus, and vagina
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46
Q

where is keratinized stratified epithelial found

A
  • on dry outer surfaces, where resistance to friction and water is needed
  • outer epidermis
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47
Q

what are the 3 connective tissue cells

A
  • fibroblasts
  • adipocytes
  • mast cells
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48
Q

which layer of the skin contains keratinocytes

A
  • epidermis
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49
Q

which connective tissue cell is:
- most common
- synthesize and secrete collagen and elastin
- produce and maintain most of the tissue’s extracellular components
- major component of the reparative capacity of connective tissue

A
  • fibroblasts
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50
Q

which connective tissue cell is:
- AKA fat cells
- serves to cushion and insulate the skin and other organs
- specialized for cytoplasmic storage of lipids as natural fats

A
  • adipocytes
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51
Q

which connective tissue cell is:
- function in localized release of inflammatory response, innate immunity, and tissue repair

A
  • mast cells
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52
Q

where are mast cells located

A
  • near small blood vessels in the skin
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53
Q

what are the 3 types of connective tissue fibers

A
  • collagen fibers
  • elastic fibers
  • reticular fibers
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54
Q

which connective tissue fiber is:
- the most abundant
- very strong and resistant to shear forces
- key element of all connective tissues, as well as epithelial basement membrane

A
  • collagen fibers
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55
Q

which connective tissue fiber is:
- composed of elastin
- provides strength and elasticity
- have rubber like properties that allow tissue containing these fibers to be stretched

A
  • elastic fibers
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56
Q

where are elastic fibers connective tissues found

A
  • the stroma of the lungs
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57
Q

which connective tissue fiber is:
- composed of glycogen and glycoprotein
- provide strength and support in the walls of small blood vessels

A
  • reticular fibers
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58
Q

what are the 3 different types of cell membranes

A
  • mucous membranes
  • serous membranes
  • synovial membranes
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59
Q

what is the function of mucous membranes

A
  • general: prevents cavities from drying out
  • resp: traps particles
  • GI: lubricates and absorbs food and secretes digestive enzymes
  • derm: helps bind epithelium to underlying structures
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60
Q

what cell membrane is responsible for lining body cavities that does not open directly to the exterior and covers organs that lie within the cavity

A
  • serous membranes
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61
Q

what are the 2 parts of serous membranes

A
  • parietal: attached to the cavity wall
  • visceral: covers and attaches to the organ
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62
Q

what type of tissue does visceral and parietal serous membrane consist of

A
  • areolar connective tissue cover by mesothelium
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63
Q

what is responsible for secreting serous fluid and providing lubrication for organ movement

A
  • mesothelium
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64
Q

what is the serous membrane called that lines the thoracic cavity and covering the lungs

A
  • pleura
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65
Q

what is the serous membrane called that lines the heart cavity and covering the heart

A
  • pericardium
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66
Q

what is the serous membrane called that lines the abdominal cavity and abdominal organs

A
  • peritoneum
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67
Q

which cell membrane:
- lines joints
- composed of areolar connective tissue and adipose tissue with collagen fibers
- no epithelial layer
- secretes synovial fluid

A
  • synovial membranes
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68
Q

what is the function of synovial fluid

A
  • reduce friction
  • lubrication
  • nourishes cartilage
  • removes microbes/debris from the joint cavity
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69
Q

what are the 2 layers of the skin

A
  • epidermis
  • dermis
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70
Q

which layer of the skin is:
- surface level/outer most layer
- comprised of epithelial tissue
- consist of regenerating keratinocytes

A
  • epidermis
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71
Q

which layer of the skin:
- lies inferior/deep to the epidermis
- comprised of connective tissue

A
  • dermis
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72
Q

what lies inferior/deep to the dermis and is not considered part of the skin

A
  • hypodermis (subcutaneous)
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73
Q

what is the lifecycle of keratinocytes

A
  • approximately 30 days
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74
Q

how does the epidermis obtain it’s nutrients

A
  • from the dermal layer vasculature (by diffusion because the epidermis lacks vasculature structures)
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75
Q

what are the 5 layers of the epidermis

A
  • stratum corneum
  • stratum lucidum
  • stratum granulosum
  • stratum spinosum
  • stratum basale

“Come Lets Get Sun Burned”

76
Q

which epidermis layer:
- consist mostly of keratin
- cells are shed and replaced from below

A
  • stratum corneum
77
Q

which epidermis layer:
- found only in palms and soles of the hand and feet

A
  • stratum lucidum
78
Q

which epidermis layer:
- losing cell organelles and nuclei
- infusion of waterproofing lipids

A
  • stratum granulosum
79
Q

which epidermis layer:
- cells begin to look flattened

A
  • stratum spinosum
80
Q

which epidermis layer:
- stem cells layer, new cells arise here

A
  • stratum basale
81
Q

which layer of the skin consist of dense irregular connective tissue and function to cushion the body from stress and strain

A
  • dermis
82
Q

what lies between the stratum basale and the dermis

A
  • basement membrane
83
Q

what is the papillary layer

A
  • layer of the dermis directly underneath the epidermis (consist of loose areolar tissue)
84
Q

which layer of the dermis contains the terminal endings of capillaries, lymph vessels, and sensory neurons

A
  • papillary layer
85
Q

which layer of the dermis is thicker than the papillary dermis and is comprised of collagenous, elastic, and reticular fibers

A
  • reticular layer
86
Q

which layer of the dermis are the roots of hair, sebaceous glands, sweat glands, receptors, nails, and blood vessels found

A
  • reticular layer
87
Q

what is the primary function of melanocytes

A
  • to synthesize and transfer melanin to adjacent keratinocytes
88
Q

what are melanocytes

A
  • specialized cells of the epidermis and hair follicle
89
Q

do individuals of different racial backgrounds have different numbers of melanocytes

A
  • hell to the nah
90
Q

which cells are responsible for touch and pressure

A
  • merkel cells
91
Q

which cells are is responsible for the skins adaptive immunity

A
  • dendritic cells
92
Q

hair is found on most surfaces of the skin EXCEPT where

A
  • palmar surface of hands/fingers
  • plantar surfaces of feet/toes
93
Q

what is hair comprised of

A
  • fused keratinized cells surrounded by hair follicles
94
Q

what is the function of hair

A
  • provides protection for the scalp, eyes, and nostrils
95
Q

which of the two types of glands play a major role in derm

A
  • exocrine glands
96
Q

which gland release secretions directly into the bloodstream

A
  • endocrine
97
Q

which gland release secretions onto the epithelial surface via a duct

A
  • exocrine
98
Q

what are the two derm specific exocrine ducts

A
  • sebaceous
  • sudoriferous
99
Q

which exocrine gland opens into a hair follicle

A
  • sebaceous gland
100
Q

which gland secretes an oil/waxy sebum

A
  • sebaceous glands
101
Q

what is the function of sebum

A
  • lubricates the hair in humans and other mammals
  • helps in delaying dehydration
  • coats the hair and skin and helps repel water
102
Q

where are sebaceous glands located

A
  • in all areas of the skin EXCEPT the palms of the hands and soles of the feet
103
Q

what are the 2 types of sudoriferous glands

A
  • eccrine
  • apocrine
104
Q

where are sudoriferous glands located

A
  • nearly the entire body surface
  • especially the palms of hands
  • soles of feet
  • forhead
  • upper limbs
105
Q

which exocrine gland empty directly onto the skin surface (NOT FROM THE HAIR FOLLICLE)

A
  • eccrine glands
106
Q

which exocrine gland serves as a major thermoregulation component of the integumentary system

A
  • eccrine glands
107
Q

what is a dilute electrolyte solution comprised of H20, NaCl, and minimal waste products

A
  • sweat
108
Q

which exocrine gland is responsible for secreting sweat

A
  • sudoriferous
109
Q

which of the 2 sudoriferous glands produce minimal odor from sweat

A
  • eccrine gland
110
Q

where are apocrine glands located

A
  • axillae
  • perineum
  • hairy areas
111
Q

which of the 2 sudoriferous glands are attached to the hair follicle

A
  • apocrine (sweat empties onto the skin via the hair follicle opening)
112
Q

which sudoriferous gland does not becomes functional until puberty

A
  • apocrine glands
113
Q

which sudoriferous gland develops a characteristic odor upon being degraded by bacteria

A
  • apocrine glands
114
Q

what portion of the nail is visible

A
  • nail body (plate)
    (colored pink because of the underlying capillaries)
115
Q

what is the nail body (plate) surrounded by

A
  • lateral and proximal nail folds
116
Q

what is the visible portion of the matrix; whitish crescent at the base of the nail plate called

A
  • lunula “little moon”
117
Q

what is the semi-circular layer of epithelial cells covering the proximal portion of the nail plate

A
  • cuticle
118
Q

what is the distal margin of the nail body (plate)

A
  • free edge
119
Q

what is located beneath the free edge and connects the free edge to the fingertip

A
  • nail bed
120
Q

what is the portion of the nail that is not visible

A
  • nail root
121
Q

what is the proximal portion of the epithelium deep to the nail root where new cells are produced

A
  • nail matrix
122
Q

what is the function of nails

A
  • protects and surrounds soft tissue from injuries
  • enables “extended precision grip”
123
Q

how long does it take fingernails to regrow

A
  • 3 to 6 months
124
Q

how long does it take toenails to regrow

A
  • 12 to 18 months
125
Q

what color will lack of oxygen in the blood make the skin appear

A
  • bluish or cyanotic
125
Q

what color will lack of oxygen in the blood make the skin appear

A
  • bluish or cyanotic
125
Q

what color will lack of oxygen in the blood make the skin appear

A
  • bluish or cyanotic
125
Q

what color will lack of oxygen in the blood make the skin appear

A
  • bluish or cyanotic
125
Q

what color will lack of oxygen in the blood make the skin appear

A
  • bluish or cyanotic
125
Q

what color will lack of oxygen in the blood make the skin appear

A
  • bluish or cyanotic
125
Q

what color will lack of oxygen in the blood make the skin appear

A
  • bluish or cyanotic
125
Q

what color will lack of oxygen in the blood make the skin appear

A
  • bluish or cyanotic
125
Q

what color will lack of oxygen in the blood make the skin appear

A
  • bluish or cyanotic
126
Q

what color does the skin change to when there is a buildup of bilirubin

A
  • yellow (jaundice)
127
Q

what condition cause pallor or paleness of the skin

A
  • shock
  • anemia
128
Q

what causes the skin to appear red

A
  • skin injury
  • exposure to heat
  • inflammation
  • allergic reaction
129
Q

what are the 3 main pigments that influence skin pigmentation

A
  • melanin (epidermis)
  • carotene (dermis)
  • hemoglobin (RBCs)
130
Q

what skin tones are cause by high melanin rate

A
  • darker brown to black
131
Q

what skin tones are caused by high carotene rate

A
  • yellow to reddish
132
Q

what skin tones are caused by high hemoglobin rate

A
  • red to pinkish
133
Q

what is the primary determinant of skin color, hair color, and eye color

A
  • melanin
134
Q

what numbers are approximately the same in all people, regardless of their skin tone or fitzpatrick scale

A
  • melanocytes
135
Q

what cells produce melanin

A
  • melanocytes
136
Q

yellow colored, lipid soluble compounds found in red, orange, yellow, and green vegetables and fruits

A
  • carotenoids
137
Q

what causes carotenemia

A
  • excessive intake of foods that contains carotenoids
138
Q

how is carotenemia characterized

A
  • by yellow orange discoloration of the skin
139
Q

what causes the skin color to return to normal in a person with carotenemia

A
  • dietary modifications
140
Q

how does a sudden drop in oxygen affect the skin color

A
  • initially causing pallor
  • prolonged causing cyanosis
141
Q

what stimulated melanin production

A
  • UV light exposure stimulates melanin production
142
Q

what is responsible for increasing the amount and darkness of the melanin pigment into the epidermis

A
  • UV light exposure
143
Q

what protects the skin against UV radiation damage

A
  • melanin
144
Q

what serves as an adaptive protective function for the skin

A
  • increasing melanin amount and darkness
145
Q

what is a predisposing factor for skin cancer

A
  • UV overexposure
146
Q

a genetic condition characterized by little or no melanin pigment in the eyes, skin, or hair

A
  • albinism
    (melanocytes are present BUT are not producing melanin)
147
Q

what is the main health complication for albinism

A
  • easily burning secondary to UV exposure
  • increased chance of getting skin cancer (mainly squamous cell carcinoma)
148
Q

an acquired depigmentation of the skin characterized by the loss of melanocytes

A
  • vitiligo
    (autoimmune disorder where antibodies attack melanocytes)
149
Q

what are the functions of the skin

A
  • temperature regulation
  • protection
  • cutaneous sensation
  • excretion/absorption
  • synthesis of vitamin D
150
Q

what are the 2 methods temperature regulation occurs

A
  • transfer of heat via sweating (evaporation)
  • maximizing or minimizing heat loss (radiation) via dermal blood vessels
151
Q

what happens to sweat production and dermal blood vessels during high environmental temperatures

A
  • sweat production increases = lowering body temperature (increase evaporation)
  • dermal blood vessels dilate = increase heat loss from the body (increase radiation)
152
Q

what happens to sweat production and dermal blood vessels during low environmental temperatures

A
  • sweat production decreases = (decrease evaporation)
  • dermal blood vessels constrict = (decrease radiation)
153
Q

how does the skin provide production:
- keratin
- lipids
- melanin
- sebum

A
  • keratin: protects the skin from microbes, abrasions, heat, water loss, and chemicals
  • lipids: prevents dehydration
  • melanin: protection again UV radiation
  • sebum: prevents hair from drying out
154
Q

what activates vitamin D

A
  • UV radiation
155
Q

the interaction between invading microbes and the reaction of the body’s immune response

A
  • infection
156
Q

the immunovascular response to any potentially harmful stimuli

A
  • inflammation (a genetic response)
157
Q

what are the signs of inflammation

A
  • localized hyperthermia
  • erythema
  • localized edema
  • pain
  • loss of function
158
Q

inevitable physiologic changes of the skin

A
  • intrinsic aging
159
Q

preventable structural and functional changes of the skin

A
  • extrinsic aging
160
Q

what factors cause extrinsic aging

A
  • environmental factors
  • lifestyle (tobacco, ETOH, drugs and shit)
  • social determinants
  • elective cosmetic surgeries
161
Q

what is the most important source of preventable extrinsic aging

A
  • UV radiation exposure
162
Q

what happens during epidermal aging

A
  • deterioration of wound repair capacity (decrease epidermal turnover rate)
  • easier injury to underlying tissue (overall thinning of unexposed epidermis)
  • elevated risk of skin cancer (decrease in melanocytes)
  • weakened cutaneous immunity
163
Q

what happens during dermal aging

A
  • reduction of collagen fiber production “photo damage”
  • reduction of elastin fibers
  • decreased hydration (dry skin)
164
Q

what are the 2 processes for tissue repair

A
  • regeneration
  • replacement
165
Q

what type of tissue repair is it when:
- damaged tissue is completely restored to it’s pre-injury/normal state via new growth

A
  • regeneration
166
Q

what type of tissue repair is it when:
- severely damaged or non-regenerable tissues is repaired by laying down connective tissue, resulting in scarring

A
  • replacement
167
Q

which tissue repair rates:
- most rapidly regenerating and repairing tissues
- capacity for continuous renewal

A
  • epithelial tissue
168
Q

which tissue repair rates:
- adequate capacity
- slower than epithelial cells
- prone to hyper-proliferation (scaring)

A
  • connective tissue
169
Q

which tissue repair rates:
- relatively poor capacity for renewal
- tissue does not divide rapidly enough to replace the extensive damage

A
  • muscle tissue
170
Q

which tissue repair rates:
- poorest capacity for renewal because it does not undergo mitosis

A
  • nervous tissue
171
Q

what are the 4 phases of healing

A
  1. inflammation phase (1 to 3 days post injury)
  2. proliferation phase (2 to 10 days post injury)
  3. early remodeling phase (2 to 3 weeks post injury)
  4. late remodeling phase (months to 1 year post injury)
172
Q

which phase of healing:
- 1 to 3 days post injury
- serves mainly to clear bacteria and debris from the wound and prepare wound environment for repair

A
  • inflammation phase
173
Q

which phase of healing:
- 2 to 10 days post injury
- purpose is to construct granulation tissue to fill the defect caused by the wound
- fibroblast are the major cellular agent in this phase and produce type III collagen

A
  • proliferation phase
174
Q

which phase of healing:
- 2 to 3 weeks post injury
- tissue defects have been replace with granulation tissue
- wound tissue consist of disorganized collagen and extracellular matrix

A
  • early remodeling phase
175
Q

which phase of healing:
- months to 1 year post injury
- type III collagen is replace with type I collagen
- collagen fibrils become more organized
- scar becomes less thick and firm

A
  • late remodeling phase
176
Q

what type of healing relies on dermal edges that are close together and easily approximated

A
  • primary intention
177
Q

what type of healing relies on formation of granulation tissue to fill the space between the wound opening or edges

A
  • secondary intention
178
Q

primary intentions
- pros
- cons

A

pros:
- complete return to function with minimal scarring and loss of appendages
(sutures, staples, dermal adhesive)

cons:
- requires clean wound without major avulsions, asymmetry, or jagged edges
- easily mismanaged by providers who lack experience and technique
- potential for scarring and poor cosmetic outcome

179
Q

secondary intentions
- pros
- cons

A

pros:
- decreases chances of wound infection by allowing exudate drainage from the wound
- closure of choice when dealing with large wounds made by infection

cons:
- take much longer to heal
- greater likelihood of scarring
- wounds must be regularly examined and re-evaluated to ensure proper care

DERM (1 decks)

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