A&P Flashcards

1
Q

what are the 4 types of human tissue

A
  1. muscle tissue
  2. nervous tissue
  3. epithelial tissue
  4. connective tissue
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2
Q

what is the function of muscle tissue

A
  • generates the physical force to make the body structures move
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3
Q

what type of cells provide the ability to move the body in three dimensions

A
  • contractile cells
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4
Q

what is the function of nervous tissue

A
  • detect changes inside/outside the body
  • initiates and transmits nerve impulses that coordinate body activities and help maintain homeostasis
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5
Q

what is the main portion of the integumentary system

A
  • epithelium (skin)
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6
Q

what is the integumentary system comprised of

A
  • skin
  • hair
  • nails
  • accessory structures
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7
Q

what human tissue is responsible for:
- protecting and supporting the body and its organs
- binds organs together
- stores energy reserves as fats
- provides immunity

A
  • connective tissue
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8
Q

what is the function of cell junctions

A
  • provide contact or adhesions between neighboring cells
  • maintain paracellular barriers (barrier in between cells)
  • control transport of materials or signals between cells
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9
Q

what are the 5 different types of cell junctions

A
  • tight junction
  • ahderens junction
  • desmosomes
  • gap junctions
  • hemidesmosome
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10
Q

which cell junction:
- form barriers against water and antigens passing between epithelial cells

A
  • tight junction
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11
Q

which cell junction:
- are cell-cell adhesions continuously assembled & disassembled so cells can respond to changes in their microenvironment

A
  • ahderens junction
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12
Q

which cell junction:
- form stable adhesive junctions between cells

A
  • desmosomes
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13
Q

which cell junction:
- allow various molecules & electrical signals to pass freely between cells

A
  • gap junctions
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14
Q

which cell junction:
- facilitate the stable adhesions of basal epithelial cells to the underlying basement membrane

A
  • hemidesmosomes
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15
Q

how are epithelial tissue broadly categorized

A
  1. covering and lining epithelium
  2. glandular epithelium
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16
Q

what is the function of covering and lining epithelial tissue

A
  • cover the skin and outer covering of some internal organs
  • lines the body cavity, blood vessels, and ducts
  • line interior of respiratory, digestive, urinary and reproductive systems
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17
Q

which of the broad categories of epithelial tissue is an integral part of sense organs for hearing, vision and touch

A
  • covering and lining epithelium
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18
Q

what is glandular epithelium

A
  • secreting portion of the glands, such as sweat
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19
Q

what are the 3 layers of epithelial tissue

A
  • apical layer
  • basal layer
  • basement membrane
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20
Q

what is the most superficial layer of epithelial cells

A
  • apical layer
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21
Q

what is the deepest layer of epithelial cells

A
  • basal layer
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22
Q

what separates the epithelium from the dermis

A

basement membrane

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23
Q

what are the two classifications of epithelial tissue

A
  1. morphology - based on the cell shape
  2. stratification - based on the number of layers
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24
Q

what are the 4 classifications of epithelial cells based on their shape

A
  1. squamous - shaped like pancakes
  2. cuboidal - shaped like a cube
  3. columnar - shaped like a column
  4. transitional - changes shape
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25
what type of epithelial tissue is: - thin, flat, and allows rapid passage of substances through them - can be keratinized or non-keratinized
- squamous epithelium
26
where is squamous epithelial tissue found
- lining of the esophagus - mouth - cervix
27
what type of epithelial tissue is: - tall as they are wide and shaped like cubes or hexagons - frequently have microvilli at apical surface - functions in either secretions or absorption
- cuboidal epithelium
28
where is cuboidal epithelium found
- salivary glands - thyroid follicles
29
what type of epithelial tissue is: - taller than they are wide - protect underlying tissue - apical surfaces may have cilia or microvilli - often specialized for secretions or absorption
- columnar epithelium
30
what type of epithelial tissue lines most organs of the GI tract, respiratory tract, and fallopian tubes
- columnar epithelium
31
which type of epithelial tissue is: - useful for organs such as the urinary bladder - able to change shape from flat to cuboidal
- transitional epithelium
32
what is a single layer of cells that functions in diffusion, osmosis, filtration, secretion, and absorption
- simple epithelium
33
what is pseudo-stratified epithelium
- a simple epithelium that appears to be stratified because the cell nuclei lie at different levels
34
why is pseudo-stratified epithelium considered as simple epithelium
- because all the cells rest on the basement membrane
35
what type of cells secretes mucus and is an integral part of the mucous membrane
- goblet cells (a specialized type of pseudo-stratified cell)
36
what are the 3 different layers of epithelial tissue
- simple - pseudo-stratified - stratified
37
what type of epithelial tissue consist of 2 or more layers of cells that protect underlying tissues in locations where there is considerable wear and tear
- stratified epithelium
38
what is the function of ciliated epithelial cells
- provide movement of the cell itself - provide movement of particles or substances across or around the cell
39
where can ciliated epithelial cells be found
- nasopharynx - trachea (to remove mucus, bacteria, and other debris from the lungs) - fallopian tubes (to assist in helping move the egg towards the uterus)
40
what is the function of microvilli of epithelial cells
- increase the surface area - enabling absorption and secretion - help anchor sperm to the egg - acts as an anchoring point and aid in the migration of WBCs
41
a highly insoluble fibrous protein with water proofing qualities and high friction resistance
- keratin
42
what are epithelial cells infused with keratin in the stratum basale of the epidermis called
- keratinocytes
43
why does keratinocytes lose their nucleus and organelles
- to make room for keratin
44
what is keratin
- dead cells
45
where is non-keratinized stratified epithelial found
- on wet/interior surfaces exposed to considerable wear and tear - lining of the mouth, tongue, pharynx, esophagus, and vagina
46
where is keratinized stratified epithelial found
- on dry outer surfaces, where resistance to friction and water is needed - outer epidermis
47
what are the 3 connective tissue cells
- fibroblasts - adipocytes - mast cells
48
which layer of the skin contains keratinocytes
- epidermis
49
which connective tissue cell is: - most common - synthesize and secrete collagen and elastin - produce and maintain most of the tissue's extracellular components - major component of the reparative capacity of connective tissue
- fibroblasts
50
which connective tissue cell is: - AKA fat cells - serves to cushion and insulate the skin and other organs - specialized for cytoplasmic storage of lipids as natural fats
- adipocytes
51
which connective tissue cell is: - function in localized release of inflammatory response, innate immunity, and tissue repair
- mast cells
52
where are mast cells located
- near small blood vessels in the skin
53
what are the 3 types of connective tissue fibers
- collagen fibers - elastic fibers - reticular fibers
54
which connective tissue fiber is: - the most abundant - very strong and resistant to shear forces - key element of all connective tissues, as well as epithelial basement membrane
- collagen fibers
55
which connective tissue fiber is: - composed of elastin - provides strength and elasticity - have rubber like properties that allow tissue containing these fibers to be stretched
- elastic fibers
56
where are elastic fibers connective tissues found
- the stroma of the lungs
57
which connective tissue fiber is: - composed of glycogen and glycoprotein - provide strength and support in the walls of small blood vessels
- reticular fibers
58
what are the 3 different types of cell membranes
- mucous membranes - serous membranes - synovial membranes
59
what is the function of mucous membranes
- general: prevents cavities from drying out - resp: traps particles - GI: lubricates and absorbs food and secretes digestive enzymes - derm: helps bind epithelium to underlying structures
60
what cell membrane is responsible for lining body cavities that does not open directly to the exterior and covers organs that lie within the cavity
- serous membranes
61
what are the 2 parts of serous membranes
- parietal: attached to the cavity wall - visceral: covers and attaches to the organ
62
what type of tissue does visceral and parietal serous membrane consist of
- areolar connective tissue cover by mesothelium
63
what is responsible for secreting serous fluid and providing lubrication for organ movement
- mesothelium
64
what is the serous membrane called that lines the thoracic cavity and covering the lungs
- pleura
65
what is the serous membrane called that lines the heart cavity and covering the heart
- pericardium
66
what is the serous membrane called that lines the abdominal cavity and abdominal organs
- peritoneum
67
which cell membrane: - lines joints - composed of areolar connective tissue and adipose tissue with collagen fibers - no epithelial layer - secretes synovial fluid
- synovial membranes
68
what is the function of synovial fluid
- reduce friction - lubrication - nourishes cartilage - removes microbes/debris from the joint cavity
69
what are the 2 layers of the skin
- epidermis - dermis
70
which layer of the skin is: - surface level/outer most layer - comprised of epithelial tissue - consist of regenerating keratinocytes
- epidermis
71
which layer of the skin: - lies inferior/deep to the epidermis - comprised of connective tissue
- dermis
72
what lies inferior/deep to the dermis and is not considered part of the skin
- hypodermis (subcutaneous)
73
what is the lifecycle of keratinocytes
- approximately 30 days
74
how does the epidermis obtain it's nutrients
- from the dermal layer vasculature (by diffusion because the epidermis lacks vasculature structures)
75
what are the 5 layers of the epidermis
- stratum corneum - stratum lucidum - stratum granulosum - stratum spinosum - stratum basale "Come Lets Get Sun Burned"
76
which epidermis layer: - consist mostly of keratin - cells are shed and replaced from below
- stratum corneum
77
which epidermis layer: - found only in palms and soles of the hand and feet
- stratum lucidum
78
which epidermis layer: - losing cell organelles and nuclei - infusion of waterproofing lipids
- stratum granulosum
79
which epidermis layer: - cells begin to look flattened
- stratum spinosum
80
which epidermis layer: - stem cells layer, new cells arise here
- stratum basale
81
which layer of the skin consist of dense irregular connective tissue and function to cushion the body from stress and strain
- dermis
82
what lies between the stratum basale and the dermis
- basement membrane
83
what is the papillary layer
- layer of the dermis directly underneath the epidermis (consist of loose areolar tissue)
84
which layer of the dermis contains the terminal endings of capillaries, lymph vessels, and sensory neurons
- papillary layer
85
which layer of the dermis is thicker than the papillary dermis and is comprised of collagenous, elastic, and reticular fibers
- reticular layer
86
which layer of the dermis are the roots of hair, sebaceous glands, sweat glands, receptors, nails, and blood vessels found
- reticular layer
87
what is the primary function of melanocytes
- to synthesize and transfer melanin to adjacent keratinocytes
88
what are melanocytes
- specialized cells of the epidermis and hair follicle
89
do individuals of different racial backgrounds have different numbers of melanocytes
- hell to the nah
90
which cells are responsible for touch and pressure
- merkel cells
91
which cells are is responsible for the skins adaptive immunity
- dendritic cells
92
hair is found on most surfaces of the skin EXCEPT where
- palmar surface of hands/fingers - plantar surfaces of feet/toes
93
what is hair comprised of
- fused keratinized cells surrounded by hair follicles
94
what is the function of hair
- provides protection for the scalp, eyes, and nostrils
95
which of the two types of glands play a major role in derm
- exocrine glands
96
which gland release secretions directly into the bloodstream
- endocrine
97
which gland release secretions onto the epithelial surface via a duct
- exocrine
98
what are the two derm specific exocrine ducts
- sebaceous - sudoriferous
99
which exocrine gland opens into a hair follicle
- sebaceous gland
100
which gland secretes an oil/waxy sebum
- sebaceous glands
101
what is the function of sebum
- lubricates the hair in humans and other mammals - helps in delaying dehydration - coats the hair and skin and helps repel water
102
where are sebaceous glands located
- in all areas of the skin EXCEPT the palms of the hands and soles of the feet
103
what are the 2 types of sudoriferous glands
- eccrine - apocrine
104
where are sudoriferous glands located
- nearly the entire body surface - especially the palms of hands - soles of feet - forhead - upper limbs
105
which exocrine gland empty directly onto the skin surface (NOT FROM THE HAIR FOLLICLE)
- eccrine glands
106
which exocrine gland serves as a major thermoregulation component of the integumentary system
- eccrine glands
107
what is a dilute electrolyte solution comprised of H20, NaCl, and minimal waste products
- sweat
108
which exocrine gland is responsible for secreting sweat
- sudoriferous
109
which of the 2 sudoriferous glands produce minimal odor from sweat
- eccrine gland
110
where are apocrine glands located
- axillae - perineum - hairy areas
111
which of the 2 sudoriferous glands are attached to the hair follicle
- apocrine (sweat empties onto the skin via the hair follicle opening)
112
which sudoriferous gland does not becomes functional until puberty
- apocrine glands
113
which sudoriferous gland develops a characteristic odor upon being degraded by bacteria
- apocrine glands
114
what portion of the nail is visible
- nail body (plate) (colored pink because of the underlying capillaries)
115
what is the nail body (plate) surrounded by
- lateral and proximal nail folds
116
what is the visible portion of the matrix; whitish crescent at the base of the nail plate called
- lunula "little moon"
117
what is the semi-circular layer of epithelial cells covering the proximal portion of the nail plate
- cuticle
118
what is the distal margin of the nail body (plate)
- free edge
119
what is located beneath the free edge and connects the free edge to the fingertip
- nail bed
120
what is the portion of the nail that is not visible
- nail root
121
what is the proximal portion of the epithelium deep to the nail root where new cells are produced
- nail matrix
122
what is the function of nails
- protects and surrounds soft tissue from injuries - enables "extended precision grip"
123
how long does it take fingernails to regrow
- 3 to 6 months
124
how long does it take toenails to regrow
- 12 to 18 months
125
what color will lack of oxygen in the blood make the skin appear
- bluish or cyanotic
125
what color will lack of oxygen in the blood make the skin appear
- bluish or cyanotic
125
what color will lack of oxygen in the blood make the skin appear
- bluish or cyanotic
125
what color will lack of oxygen in the blood make the skin appear
- bluish or cyanotic
125
what color will lack of oxygen in the blood make the skin appear
- bluish or cyanotic
125
what color will lack of oxygen in the blood make the skin appear
- bluish or cyanotic
125
what color will lack of oxygen in the blood make the skin appear
- bluish or cyanotic
125
what color will lack of oxygen in the blood make the skin appear
- bluish or cyanotic
125
what color will lack of oxygen in the blood make the skin appear
- bluish or cyanotic
126
what color does the skin change to when there is a buildup of bilirubin
- yellow (jaundice)
127
what condition cause pallor or paleness of the skin
- shock - anemia
128
what causes the skin to appear red
- skin injury - exposure to heat - inflammation - allergic reaction
129
what are the 3 main pigments that influence skin pigmentation
- melanin (epidermis) - carotene (dermis) - hemoglobin (RBCs)
130
what skin tones are cause by high melanin rate
- darker brown to black
131
what skin tones are caused by high carotene rate
- yellow to reddish
132
what skin tones are caused by high hemoglobin rate
- red to pinkish
133
what is the primary determinant of skin color, hair color, and eye color
- melanin
134
what numbers are approximately the same in all people, regardless of their skin tone or fitzpatrick scale
- melanocytes
135
what cells produce melanin
- melanocytes
136
yellow colored, lipid soluble compounds found in red, orange, yellow, and green vegetables and fruits
- carotenoids
137
what causes carotenemia
- excessive intake of foods that contains carotenoids
138
how is carotenemia characterized
- by yellow orange discoloration of the skin
139
what causes the skin color to return to normal in a person with carotenemia
- dietary modifications
140
how does a sudden drop in oxygen affect the skin color
- initially causing pallor - prolonged causing cyanosis
141
what stimulated melanin production
- UV light exposure stimulates melanin production
142
what is responsible for increasing the amount and darkness of the melanin pigment into the epidermis
- UV light exposure
143
what protects the skin against UV radiation damage
- melanin
144
what serves as an adaptive protective function for the skin
- increasing melanin amount and darkness
145
what is a predisposing factor for skin cancer
- UV overexposure
146
a genetic condition characterized by little or no melanin pigment in the eyes, skin, or hair
- albinism (melanocytes are present BUT are not producing melanin)
147
what is the main health complication for albinism
- easily burning secondary to UV exposure - increased chance of getting skin cancer (mainly squamous cell carcinoma)
148
an acquired depigmentation of the skin characterized by the loss of melanocytes
- vitiligo (autoimmune disorder where antibodies attack melanocytes)
149
what are the functions of the skin
- temperature regulation - protection - cutaneous sensation - excretion/absorption - synthesis of vitamin D
150
what are the 2 methods temperature regulation occurs
- transfer of heat via sweating (evaporation) - maximizing or minimizing heat loss (radiation) via dermal blood vessels
151
what happens to sweat production and dermal blood vessels during high environmental temperatures
- sweat production increases = lowering body temperature (increase evaporation) - dermal blood vessels dilate = increase heat loss from the body (increase radiation)
152
what happens to sweat production and dermal blood vessels during low environmental temperatures
- sweat production decreases = (decrease evaporation) - dermal blood vessels constrict = (decrease radiation)
153
how does the skin provide production: - keratin - lipids - melanin - sebum
- keratin: protects the skin from microbes, abrasions, heat, water loss, and chemicals - lipids: prevents dehydration - melanin: protection again UV radiation - sebum: prevents hair from drying out
154
what activates vitamin D
- UV radiation
155
the interaction between invading microbes and the reaction of the body's immune response
- infection
156
the immunovascular response to any potentially harmful stimuli
- inflammation (a genetic response)
157
what are the signs of inflammation
- localized hyperthermia - erythema - localized edema - pain - loss of function
158
inevitable physiologic changes of the skin
- intrinsic aging
159
preventable structural and functional changes of the skin
- extrinsic aging
160
what factors cause extrinsic aging
- environmental factors - lifestyle (tobacco, ETOH, drugs and shit) - social determinants - elective cosmetic surgeries
161
what is the most important source of preventable extrinsic aging
- UV radiation exposure
162
what happens during epidermal aging
- deterioration of wound repair capacity (decrease epidermal turnover rate) - easier injury to underlying tissue (overall thinning of unexposed epidermis) - elevated risk of skin cancer (decrease in melanocytes) - weakened cutaneous immunity
163
what happens during dermal aging
- reduction of collagen fiber production "photo damage" - reduction of elastin fibers - decreased hydration (dry skin)
164
what are the 2 processes for tissue repair
- regeneration - replacement
165
what type of tissue repair is it when: - damaged tissue is completely restored to it's pre-injury/normal state via new growth
- regeneration
166
what type of tissue repair is it when: - severely damaged or non-regenerable tissues is repaired by laying down connective tissue, resulting in scarring
- replacement
167
which tissue repair rates: - most rapidly regenerating and repairing tissues - capacity for continuous renewal
- epithelial tissue
168
which tissue repair rates: - adequate capacity - slower than epithelial cells - prone to hyper-proliferation (scaring)
- connective tissue
169
which tissue repair rates: - relatively poor capacity for renewal - tissue does not divide rapidly enough to replace the extensive damage
- muscle tissue
170
which tissue repair rates: - poorest capacity for renewal because it does not undergo mitosis
- nervous tissue
171
what are the 4 phases of healing
1. inflammation phase (1 to 3 days post injury) 2. proliferation phase (2 to 10 days post injury) 3. early remodeling phase (2 to 3 weeks post injury) 4. late remodeling phase (months to 1 year post injury)
172
which phase of healing: - 1 to 3 days post injury - serves mainly to clear bacteria and debris from the wound and prepare wound environment for repair
- inflammation phase
173
which phase of healing: - 2 to 10 days post injury - purpose is to construct granulation tissue to fill the defect caused by the wound - fibroblast are the major cellular agent in this phase and produce type III collagen
- proliferation phase
174
which phase of healing: - 2 to 3 weeks post injury - tissue defects have been replace with granulation tissue - wound tissue consist of disorganized collagen and extracellular matrix
- early remodeling phase
175
which phase of healing: - months to 1 year post injury - type III collagen is replace with type I collagen - collagen fibrils become more organized - scar becomes less thick and firm
- late remodeling phase
176
what type of healing relies on dermal edges that are close together and easily approximated
- primary intention
177
what type of healing relies on formation of granulation tissue to fill the space between the wound opening or edges
- secondary intention
178
primary intentions - pros - cons
pros: - complete return to function with minimal scarring and loss of appendages (sutures, staples, dermal adhesive) cons: - requires clean wound without major avulsions, asymmetry, or jagged edges - easily mismanaged by providers who lack experience and technique - potential for scarring and poor cosmetic outcome
179
secondary intentions - pros - cons
pros: - decreases chances of wound infection by allowing exudate drainage from the wound - closure of choice when dealing with large wounds made by infection cons: - take much longer to heal - greater likelihood of scarring - wounds must be regularly examined and re-evaluated to ensure proper care