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a&p 1 - final Flashcards

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1
Q

The commands for voluntary muscle
contraction start in a region of the brain
called

A

primary motor complex

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2
Q

BLANK from the motor cortex initiates the commands

A

upper motor neurons

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3
Q

nerve fibers decussate where? (upper motor neurons)

A

pyramids of medulla oblangata others at the spinal cord

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4
Q

Originate from the anterior horn of the spinal cord?

A

lower motor neurons

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5
Q

Lower motor neurons form? and reach the?

A

motor (anterior) roots of the spinal nerves; skeletal muscles

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6
Q

Lower motor neurons can innervate?

A

One or many muscle cells (muscle fibers)

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7
Q

What is a neuromuscular junction?

A

point of contact (synapse) where the axon terminal of a neuron meets a skeletal muscle cell

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8
Q

Axon terminals (synaptic knobs) of motor neurons
contain?

A

synaptic vesicles = sacs filled with a
neurotransmitter called acetylcholine (=Ach).

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9
Q

A skeletal muscle
consists of?

A

fasicles = muscle cells = muscle fibres

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10
Q

The cell membrane of muscle
cells?

A

sarcolemma

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11
Q

The sarcolemma has
invaginations called
junctional folds that contain?

A

nicotinic receptors for Acetylcholine

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12
Q

Nicotinic receptors are?

A

ligand gated Na+ channels

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13
Q

Deep invaginations of the sarcolemma?

A

T-tubules

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14
Q

What do T-tubules do?

A

transmit AP deep inside muscle cell

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15
Q

Skeletal muscle cells consist of BLANK surrounded by
BLANK

A

myofibrils; the sarcoplasmic Reticulum (SR)

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16
Q

Myyofibrils consist of a sequence of BLANK made of BLANK of proteins (mostly actin and myosin)

A

sarcomeres; myofilaments

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17
Q

Sarcomeres extends from?
.

A

one Z line to the next

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18
Q

Sarcomeres consist of alternating?

A

I and A bands; responsible for striations

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19
Q

I bands?

A

Light bands made of actin

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20
Q

A bands?

A

dark bands made of myosin

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21
Q

The zones of overlap are regions where Q and form Q under contraction

A

myosin and actin interact; cross bridges

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22
Q

1 actin molecule (thin filament) looks like a…

A

bead necklace formed by two entwines strands of F actin

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23
Q

Each F actin is formed by many

A

G actin

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24
Q

Each G actin has an active site (where the head of
myosin binds during contraction to form a cross

A

active site (where the head of
myosin binds during contraction to form a cross bridge)

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25
Q

Thin filaments also contain 2 regulatory proteins

A

tropomyosin and troponin

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26
Q

What are thick myofilaments mostly made of?

A

myosin

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27
Q

What does myosin look like? What’s it made of?

A

”golf club” formed by 2 entwined
polypeptides.
Each polypeptide has one tail and a globular head

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28
Q

What activates myosin head?

A

ATP hydrolysis

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29
Q

4 major phases of muscle contraction

A

Excitation; excitation-contraction coupling; contraction; relaxation

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30
Q

2 main types of cardiac muscle cells>

A

Autorrhythmic cells and Contractile (muscle cells or Cardiocytes)

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31
Q

Autorrhythmic cells?

A

SA node (built-in pacemaker sets off a
wave of electrical excitation

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32
Q

Contractile (muscle cells or
Cardiocytes)

A

Short, Y-shaped,
uninucleated, striated,
involuntary, connected by
intercalated discs (gap
junctions + desmosomes).

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33
Q

Cardiac muscle contraction?

A

AP travels down the T tubules-> Ca2+ enters from the extracellular fluid and from the Sarcoplasmic
reticulum. Calcium binds to troponin. The rest is like the events of skeletal muscle.

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34
Q

Chronotropic effects?

A

Change heart rate

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35
Q

Inotropic effects?

A

Change force of contraction

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36
Q

Smooth muscle reacts to?

A

autorhythmicity, hormones, CO2, O2, pH, temperature, stretch

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37
Q

Cell membrane of smooth muscle
contains

A

Calcium channels. dense bodies BUT no T-tubules

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38
Q

When stimulated, calcium increases in the sarcoplasm
because?

A
  1. it comes from outside 2. it comes from SR
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39
Q

Where does Ca bind in smooth muscle?

A

calmodulin (instead of
troponin)

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40
Q

What enzyme activates myosin in smooth muscle?

A

myosin light chain kinase (MLCK)

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41
Q

Denervation atrophy

A

shrinkage of paralyzed
muscle when nerve remains
disconnected

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42
Q

Botulism

A

Type of food poisoning caused by a
neuromuscular toxin secreted by
the bacterium
Clostridium botulinum.
It blocks release of ACh causing
flaccid paralysis

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43
Q

Curare

A

blocks the nicotinic receptors
for acetylcholine causing flaccid
paralysis.

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44
Q

Myasthenia gravis

A

Autoimmune disease, antibodies attack the receptors in neuromuscular junction; lack of receptors causes weakness

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45
Q

Rigor Mortis

A

Hardening of the body starts ~4 hours after death, peaks at
about 12 hours and diminishes after 48-60 hours.

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46
Q

Why rigor mortis?

A

After death the SR deteriorates and releases Ca which binds to troponin active sites exposed, Actin and Myosin form cross bridges (peak at 12 h); since the person is dead no ATP is available (=step 13 does not
occur) à muscle remains contracted until actin and myosin deteriorate (48 – 60h)

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47
Q

5 Universal Characteristics of Muscle

A
  1. Excitability 2. Conductivity 3. Contractibility 4. Extensibility 5. Elasticity
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48
Q

Twitch

A

quick cycle of contraction and relaxation when a single stimulus is applied at threshold or higher

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49
Q

Threshold

A

minimum voltage necessary to generate an AP in the muscle fiber and produce a contraction

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50
Q

Myogram

A

chart of a muscle twitch that shows the timing and
strength of a muscle’s contraction

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51
Q

Latent period

A

very brief delay between stimulus and contraction when excitation and excitation-contraction coupling are taking place

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52
Q

Contraction phase

A

Time when muscle generates tension (steps 10-13) . Period of time when cross bridges form

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53
Q

Relaxation phase

A

Time when tension declines to baseline (steps 14-18). Calcium is reabsorbed into the sarcoplasmic reticulum. Muscle tension goes to zero.

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54
Q

How are muscle responses graded?

A

frequency and intensity

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55
Q

Isometric contraction

A

No mvmnt; muscle develops tension but does not shorten

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56
Q

Isotonic concentric

A

Mvmnt; muscle shortens, tension remains constant

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57
Q

Isotonic eccentric

A

Mvmt; muscle lengthens while maintaining tension

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58
Q

Why is ATP necessary in muscle cells?

A
  1. Activation of myosin head 2. Active transport to pump Ca (in and out) of the SR
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59
Q

What does ATP supply depend on?

A

Availability of oxygen and other organic energy sources

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60
Q

Aerobic respiration

A

Uses myoglobin; short, intense exercise, O2 is supplied by myoglobin but rapidly depleted

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61
Q

Phosphagen system

A

10-15s energy; energy comes from creatine phosphate (CP); uses no oxygen instead muscle borrows P from CP and gives it to ADP to make ATP; 1 ATP per CP

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62
Q

Anaerobic fermentation (glycolysis and lactic acid formation)

A

30-40s energy; glucose energy; doesn’t use oxygen; produces 2 ATP per glucose along with lactic acid

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63
Q

Aerobic respiration

A

Hours of energy; energy comes from glucose and amino acids for first 30 minutes then fatty acids after 30 mi; 36 ATP per cycle

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64
Q

What is endurance?

A

Ability to maintain high-intensity exercise for more than 4-5 minutes

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65
Q

What is endurance determined by?

A

maximum oxygen uptake (VO2 max)

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66
Q

What determines VO2 max?

A

Age, sex, body size, training

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67
Q

What colour are slow-twitch muscles?

A

Red due to myoglobin

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68
Q

What are slow-twitch muscles used for?

A

Endurance b/c use oxidative ATP production for energy; has lots of capillaries, myoglobin, and mitochondria

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69
Q

What colour are fast-twitch muscles?

A

White b/c lacks mitochondria

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70
Q

What are fast-twitch muscles used for?

A

Quick responses; uses phosphagen system and anaerobic fermentation for energy; lots of CP, ATPase, and glycogen

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71
Q

Effect of endurance training?

A

slow twitch fibres will gain more mitochondria, acquire more capillaries, more RBCs, more oxygen transport

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72
Q

Benefits of endurance training?

A

enhances function of cardiovascular, respiratory, and nervous systems; improves skeletal strength and fatigue resistant muscles

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73
Q

Components of CNS?

A

Brain, spinal cord

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74
Q

Components of PNS?

A

Afferent and efferent peripheral nerves

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75
Q

Functions of nervous system?

A

sensory input; integration; motor output

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76
Q

What protects brain?

A

skull, meninges, and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)

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77
Q

The meninges?

A

dura, arachnoid, pia mater

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78
Q

CSF?

A

watery cushion that products spinal cord and brain

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79
Q

What secretes CSF and where?

A

ependymal cells in the choroid plexus of ventricles in the brain and reabsorbed by arachnoid granulations

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80
Q

Where does CSF circulate?

A

subarachnoid space, ventricles and central canal of spinal cord

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81
Q

What are ventricles?

A

brain cavities filled with CSF; lined with ependymal cells; continuous with each other and with central canal

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82
Q

Where is lateral ventricle?

A

cerebral hemispheres

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83
Q

Where is third ventricle?

A

in diencephelon

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84
Q

Where is the fourth ventricle?

A

in hindbrain

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85
Q

What is interventicular foramen?

A

connects the lateral ventricles

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86
Q

What is cerebral aqueduct?

A

connects 3rd and 4th ventricles

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87
Q

Functions of CSF?

A

fills hollow cavities of brain and spinal cord; provides liquid cushion; nourishment; gets rid of waste

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88
Q

4 main regions of brain?

A

cerebrum; diencephalon; brainstem; cerebellum

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89
Q

What is cerebrum?

A

seat of intelligence; made of ridges (gyrus) and grooves (sulcus)

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90
Q

Lobes of cerebrum? (5)

A

frontal, parietal, occipital, temporal, insula (deep)

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91
Q

What is gray matter?

A

At surface cerebral cortex; deep in basal nuclei; composed of neuronal cell bodies

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92
Q

White matter?

A

deep; made of myelinated axons forming fibre tracts; ex. corpus collasum

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93
Q

Brodmann areas?

A

52 specialized cortical areas that make up about 75% of brain tissue

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94
Q

Prefrontal cortex?

A

judgement, planning

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95
Q

Primary motor cortex?

A

anterior to central sulcus; sends motor impulses to skeletal muscles in opposite side of body

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96
Q

Primary somatosensory pathway?

A

posterior to central sulcus; receives sensory impulses from opp. side of body

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97
Q

The afferent pathway general has chain of 3 neurons…

A

1st order: receives impulses 2nd order: decussate and take info to thalamus 3rd order: thalamus to primary somatosensory cortex

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98
Q

Primary visual cortex?

A

occipital

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99
Q

Primary taste?

A

parietal

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100
Q

Primary olfactory?

A

frontal and temporal

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101
Q

Primary auditory?

A

temporal lobe and insula

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102
Q

What makes up diencephelon?

A

epithalamus, thalamus, hypothalamus

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103
Q

What makes up epithalamus and what does it do?

A

pineal gland which synthesizes serotonin and melatonin

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104
Q

What makes up thalamus and what does it do?

A

contains about 23 nuclei that relay sensory impulse; transfers sensory impulses to correct part of cortex

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105
Q

Functions of hypothalamus?

A

Homeostasis (temp, thirst, hunger); major control centre for ANS (regulates adrenal medulla); controls endocrine functions (pituitary gland, ADH, oxytocin); emotional memory; sexuality;

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106
Q

Components of brainstem?

A

midbrain; pons, medulla oblangata

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107
Q

Components of midbrain?

A

two superior colliculi (visual reflexes); two inferior colliculi (auditory reflexes); two pigmented nuclei: substantial nigra and red nucleus

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108
Q

What does the pons contain?

A

ascending and descending fibre tracts that relay signals from cerebrum to cerebellum; nuclei of cranial nerves: V, VI, VII

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109
Q

What does medulla oblongata contain?

A

It’s continuous with spinal cord and has pyramids (site of decussation); nuclei of cranial nerves (VIII - XII); nuclei of basic visceral motor (autonomic centers) –> respiration, heart beat, blood pressure; nuclei cuneatus and gracilis (sensory info); nuclei of reticular formation (pain modulation, habituation, alertness)

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110
Q

What does cerebellum contain?

A

2 hemispheres connected by vermis; balance and motor coordination, posture and equilibrium, memory of learned motor skills

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111
Q

Cranial nerve I

A

Olfactory (S) –> smell

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112
Q

Cranial nerve II

A

Optic (S) –> vision

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113
Q

Cranial nerve III

A

Oculomotor (M) –> eye mvmnt and pupillary constriction

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114
Q

Cranial nerve IV

A

Trochlear (M) –> eye mvmnt (innervates superior oblique)

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115
Q

Cranial nerve V

A

Trigeminal (B) –> S: sensitivity of face M: mvmnt of muscles of mastication

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116
Q

Cranial nerve VI

A

Abducens (M) –> lateral eye mvmnt

117
Q

Cranial nerve VII

A

Facial (B) –> S: taste M: facial muscles

118
Q

Cranial nerve VIII

A

Vestibolocochlear (S) –> hearing, balance

119
Q

Cranial nerve IX

A

Glosso-pharyngeal (B) –> S: taste, touch, pressure, temp from posterior tongue and outer ear M: salivation, swallowing, gagging

120
Q

Cranial nerve X

A

Vagus (B) –> S: taste, sensations of hunger, fullness, and gastrointestinal discomfort M: swallowing, slows down heart rate, causes bronchoconstriction, increases GI secretions and motility

121
Q

Cranial nerve XI

A

Accessory (M) –> head, neck, and shoulder mvmnt

122
Q

Cranial nerve XII

A

Hypoglossal (M) –> tongue mvmnts

123
Q

Functions of spinal cord?

A
  1. conduct info 2. neural integration 3. locomotion 4. reflexes
124
Q

Anatomy of spinal cord?

A

extends from medulla oblongata to conus medullaris (T12)

125
Q

Regions of spinal cord?

A

Cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral (regions are named for areas that they emerge)

126
Q

Where do nerves of upper and lower limbs emerge?

A

cervical and lumbar enlargements

127
Q

Cauda equina?

A

group of nerves originating in conus medallaris; innervate pelvic organs and lower limbs

128
Q

Filum terminale

A

long filament of connective tissue, attaches the spinal cord to coccyx inferiorly

129
Q

What is epidural space?

A

space between dura mater and vertebral bones

130
Q

Subarachnoid space?

A

space between arachnoid and Pia mater where CSF circulates

131
Q

Lumbar puncture (spinal tap)?

A

needle inserted between L3 and L4 to remove sample of CSF from subarachnoid space

132
Q

What is grey matter?

A

internal, H-shaped, site of integration of signals

133
Q

What are 3 zones of grey matter?

A
  1. dorsal horns 2. lateral horns 3. ventral horns
134
Q

Dorsal horns?

A

somatic sensory and visceral sensory receptors

135
Q

Lateral horns?

A

visceral motor –> sends signals to visceral effectors (involuntary)

136
Q

Ventral horns?

A

somatic motor –> sends signals to voluntary effectors

137
Q

What is in centre of grey matter?

A

central canal which is lined with ependymal cells that synthesize CSF

138
Q

What is white matter?

A

site of transmission of ascending and descending signals between spinal cord and brain; mostly myelinated axons; bundles of axons are arranged in 3 pairs called columns or funiculi (ventral, lateral, dorsal); columns consists of tracts

139
Q

How are tracts of white matter divided?

A

ascending and descending tracts

140
Q

ALS?

A

progressive degeneration of motor neurons in spinal cord and brain; affects voluntary effectors

141
Q

Spinal cord injury?

A

Paraplegia (transection between T1 and L1) and quadriplegia (transection of cervical region)

142
Q

Spina bifida?

A

congenital defect due to low maternal folic acid; lumbar vertebrae fail to develop which affects dev. of spinal cord; causes lack of bladder and bowel control and paralysis of lower limbs

143
Q

What is a nerve?

A

Cordlike structure that contains anywhere from few axons to a million axons

144
Q

Dorsal and posterior roots are?

A

sensory

145
Q

Cell bodies of sensory (unipolar) neurons are in?

A

sensory (dorsal) ganglion

146
Q

Cell bodies of motor neurons are in?

A

Ventral horns of spinal cord

147
Q

Ventral roots are?

A

anterior and motor

148
Q

Immediately after emerging from intervertebral foramen, each spinal nerve divides into:

A

dorsal/posterior ramus or ventral/anterior ramus

149
Q

Posterior rami innervate?

A

skin, muscles, and joints on posterior side of the head and the dorsum

150
Q

Anterior rami innervate?

A

skin of trunk and limbs; muscles of trunk and limbs

151
Q

From T1 to L2, the anterior rami give off a pair of…

A

communicating rami which connect sympathetic chain ganglia alongside the spine

152
Q

What are nerves covered by?

A

epineurium

153
Q

Perineum of nerves?

A

middle layer that divides nerves into bundles of axons called fasicles

154
Q

Endoneurium of nerves

A

inner layer surrounding individual axons

155
Q

MS?

A

demyelinating nerve disorder of CNS

156
Q

Guillan Barre syndrome

A

demyelinating nerve disorder of PNS

157
Q

What is a nerve plexus?

A

except in thoracic region; anterior rami branch and anastomose (merge) repeatedly to form five weblike nerve plexuses

158
Q

Cervical plexus?

A

formed by ventral rami C1-C4, innervate back of head, neck, ear, shoulder

159
Q

Main nerve of cervical plexus?

A

phrenic nerve which innervates diaphragm

160
Q

Brachial plexus?

A

C5-T1 which gives rise to nerves of upper limb

161
Q

Main nerves of brachial plexus?

A

ulnar, radial, median, axillary

162
Q

Lumbar plexus?

A

innervates abdominal wall and thigh

163
Q

Main nerves of lumbar plexus?

A

femoral and obturator

164
Q

Sacral plexus?

A

innervates pelvic structures, perineum, and lower limb

165
Q

Main nerve of sacral plexus?

A

sciatic nerve which splits into tibial and common fibular nerve

166
Q

Main nerve of coccygeal plexus?

A

coccygeal nerve

167
Q

What is dermatome?

A

zone of skin which is innervated by sensory branches of spinal nerves (except C1)

168
Q

Where are dermatomes of upper extremity connected?

A

sensory branches C5-T1

169
Q

Where are dermatomes of lower extremity connected?

A

sensory branches L1-S1

170
Q

What is a reflex?

A

quick, involuntary, stereotyped action in response to changes within or outside the body

171
Q

How do spinal reflexes work?

A

they’re initiated without brain input

172
Q

Patellar tendon reflex arch?

A

prevents excessive stretching of quadriceps

173
Q

Flexor and crossed extension reflexes

A

maintains balance by causing flexion of an injured ipsilateral limb and extension of contralateral limb

174
Q

Divisions of ANS?

A

parasympathetic and sympathetic

175
Q

What is the ANS?

A

visceral motor division of PNS = involuntary component

176
Q

What does ANS control?

A

glands, smooth muscle, cardiac muscle

177
Q

What is important centre of ANS control?

A

hypothalamus

178
Q

Origins of preganglionic neurons of sympathetic?

A
  1. thoracic segment 2. lumbar segments
179
Q

Origins of preganglionic neurons of parasympathetic?

A
  1. cranial segments 2. sacral segments
180
Q

Types of sympathetic autonomic ganglia?

A
  1. lateral to vertebral column (paravertebral sympathetic ganglia –> thoracic, lumbar)
  2. anterior to vertebral columns: prevertebral sympathetic ganglia (celiac ganglion, superior mesenteric ganglion, inferior mesenteric ganglion)
181
Q

Preganglionic and postganglionic neurons of sympathetic?

A

preganglionic are called white communicating rami and postganglionic are grey communicating rami which reach target organ

182
Q

Preganglionic sympathetic neurons length?

A

short

183
Q

Postganglionic sympathetic neurons lengths?

A

long

184
Q

Types of parasympathetic autonomic ganglia?

A
  1. near target organ (pterygoid ganglion, ciliary ganglion, submandibular ganglion, otic ganglion)
  2. within target organ (terminal ganglion in trachea, lungs, abdominal organs
185
Q

Preganglionic parasympathetic neurons length?

A

long

186
Q

Postganglionic parasympathetic neurons length?

A

short

187
Q

Effect of sympathetic?

A

widespread effect; fight or flight; prepares body for action, uses energy; “E” division: exercise, excitement, embarrassment, emergency

188
Q

Effects of parasympathetic?

A

local effect, maintains daily body functions and conserves energy; “D” division: digestion, defecation, diuresis

189
Q

What does parasympathetic not effect?

A

liver (glycogen stores) and adipose cells

190
Q

2 main routes of sympathetic innervation to organs?

A
  1. thoracic 2. lumbar
191
Q

How does thoracic route of sympathetic work?

A

preganglionic fibres synapse at paravertebral ganglia; postganglionic go to (via carotid plexus): head, iris of eye (midryasis), nasal + salivary glands (decrease secretions); go to (via cardiac and pulmonary plexuses): effectors in thorax, heart (increase HR), lungs (bronchodilator); via spinal nerves to effectors in skin (blood vessels, piloerector muscles, sweat glands)

192
Q

How does lumbar route of sympathetic work?

A

preganglionic fibers synapse at prevertebral ganglia. Postganglionic
fibers go via splachnic nerves to effectors in abdominal cavity:
celiac ganglion (liver, pancreas, stomach)
superior mesenteric (small/large intestine)
inferior mesenteric (intestine, rectum, genitals)
aorticorenal (kidneys, bladder, rectum)

193
Q

2 main routes of parasympathetic innervation to organs?

A
  1. cranial 2. vagus nerve (X)
194
Q

How does cranial route of parasympathetic work?

A

preganglionic fibres are 3 cranial nerves: occulumotor III, facial VII, and glossopharyngeal IX that supply all parasympathetic innervation to the head –> synapse at ciliary ganglion, pterygopalatine + submandibual and otic ganglion respectively
postganglionic fibres go to target organ: ciliary –> iris (myosis)
pterygopalatine –> lacrimal (tears)
submandibular–> salivary (secrete)
otic –> parotid salivary (secrete)

195
Q

What has no parasympathetic innervation?

A

blood vessels, piloerector muscles, sweat glands, adrenal medulla

196
Q

How does vagus nerve route of parasympathetic work?

A

cardiac plexus, pulmonary plexus, and esophageal plexus, which synapse at terminal ganglia in thoracic, abdominal viscera, and the kidneys; celiac ganglion and abdominal aortic plexus which synapse at terminal ganglia in liver, stomach, pancreas, and intestine

197
Q

How does sacral route of parasympathetic work?

A

preganglionic pelvic splanchnic nerves from inferior hypogastric plexus that synapse at terminal ganglia of pelvic organs (urinary bladder, reproductive organs, rectum)

198
Q

Myosis/mydriasis

A

constriction/dilation of iris in response to light

199
Q

Peristalsis

A

mvmnt of gastrointestinal tract, also reflex for defection

200
Q

Baroreflex (sympathetic response)

A

adjust blood pressure and cardiac centre adjusts by controlling HR and vasomotor tone –> vasoconstriction in response to high rate of sympathetic nerve firing and vasodilation in response to low rate of sympathetic nerve firing

201
Q

Components of visceral (autonomic) reflexes?

A
  1. receptor 2. afferent neuron 3. interneuron 4. efferent preganglionic neutron 5. efferent postganglionic neuron 6. effector
202
Q

What kind of neurotransmitter do symp pregangionlic neurons contain?

A

Acetylcholine (cholinergic)

203
Q

What kind of neurotransmitter do symp postgangionlic neurons contain?

A

norepinephrine (NE) adrenergic

204
Q

What breaks down catecholamines?

A

MAO

205
Q

Neurotransmitters of pre and postganglionic neurons of parasympathetic?(one word)

A

acetylcholine (Ach)

206
Q

Adrenergic receptors?

A

a1(vasoconstriction), a2(decrease smooth muscle contraction), b1(excitatory response in heart), b2 (bronchodilator)

207
Q

Cholinergic receptors?

A

nicotinic (depolarization) found in all autonomic ganglia; muscarinic (slow heart, and cause smooth muscle contraction) found in smooth muscle, cardiac muscle and glands

208
Q

2 main cell types of CNS?

A

glial cells and neurons

209
Q

Glial cells?

A

more of them than neurons; bind to neurons to protect, support, and nourish them; can multiple unlike neurons

210
Q

Function of astrocyte (CNS)?

A

blood brain barrier

211
Q

Function of ependymal cells (CNS)?

A

makes CSF

212
Q

Function of oligodendrocyte? (CNS)

A

makes myelin

213
Q

Function of microglial cell? (CNS)

A

gets rid of bacteria

214
Q

Function of satellite cell? (PNS)

A

regulates nutrition and waste

215
Q

Function of neurolemmocyte? (PNS)

A

myelin

216
Q

Multipolar neuron?

A

most neurons; motor neurons and interneurons

217
Q

Unipolar neurons?

A

include all sensory neurons; form dorsal roots of spinal nerve

218
Q

Bipolar neurons?

A

sensory neurons in special sense organs

219
Q

Anaxonic neurons?

A

regulate local electrical activity of adjacent neurons

220
Q

Regions of neurons?

A

dendrite, cell body (soma), axon hillock, axon, nodes of ranvier, axon terminals

221
Q

Dendrite?

A

conduct impulses towards the body

222
Q

Cell body/soma?

A

nucleus, integrates info

223
Q

Axon hillock?

A

region in soma where axon originates

224
Q

Nodes of ranvier?

A

gaps with no myelin

225
Q

Axon terminal?

A

synaptic knobs which contain neurotransmitters; contact another neuron or an effector

226
Q

Synapse?

A

structure that allows neuron to pass an electrical or chemical signal to another neuron (or to an effector)

227
Q

Presynaptic neuron?

A

synoptic knob containing synaptic vesicles with neurotransmitters

228
Q

Synaptic cleft?

A

space in between presynaptic and postsynaptic neuron

229
Q

Postsynpatic neuron?

A

membrane that contains receptors and ligand-gated ion channels that respond to neurotransmitter

230
Q

2 main functions of neurons?

A

excitability and conductivity

231
Q

What is excitability?

A

Ability of neuron to be stimulated

232
Q

When a neuron is stimulated, the impulses result in

A

local potentials or graded potentials

233
Q

2 types of local potentials?

A

IPSPs (inhibitory postsynaptic potentials) and EPSPs

234
Q

What determines if depolarization of axon hillock leads to axon hillock reaching potential?

A

summative effect of ISPS and ESPS; if ISPS dominates nothing happens but if ESPS occurs it goes through cycle

235
Q

Absolute refractory period

A

impossible to stimulate neuron to fire again during AP and shortly after

236
Q

Relative refractory period

A

very difficult to stimulate neuron to fire again during AP and shortly after

237
Q

Conductivity?

A

Ability of neurons to carry an AP along the axon; once AP is generated, there is unidirectional wave of propagation of AP mediated by voltage gated Na+ and K+ channels

238
Q

Events at a synapse?

A
  1. AP arrives at axon terminal
  2. Ca enters
  3. neurotransmitter released and binds to receptor on postsynaptic cell
  4. Graded or local potential generated
239
Q

4 main types of neurotransmitters?

A

acetylcholine, amino acids, monoamines, neuropeptides

240
Q

Effect of epinephrine/norepinephrine?

A

sympathetic; fight or flight; adrenergic synapses

241
Q

Effect of glutamate?

A

Main excitatory neurotransmitter in the brain

242
Q

Effect of aspartate

A

Main excitatory neurotransmitter in the spinal cord

243
Q

Effect of GABA?

A

Main inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain

244
Q

Effect of glycine?

A

Main inhibitory neurotransmitter in the spinal cord

245
Q

Norepinephrine dual effects?

A

excitatory (raises blood pressure), inhibitory (causes bronchodilation)

246
Q

Serotonin dual effects?

A

excitatory (mood), inhibitory (sleep, nociception)

247
Q

Dopamine dual effects?

A

excitatory (reward, motivation), inhibitory (controls motor function)

248
Q

Acetylcholine dual effects?

A

excitatory (promotes digestion), inhibitory (lowers heart rate)

249
Q

Parkinson’s disease?

A

less dopamine = less inhibitory signals = more stimulation
treatment: dopamine precursor to increase levels

250
Q

Mechanisms that stop signals?

A

a)presynaptic cell stops releasing neurotransmitter b) reuptake: synaptic knob reabsorbs neurotransmitter by endocytosis
c) neurotransmitter is broken down by an enzyme, ActE or MAO

251
Q

What does learning increase?

A

Number of dendritic spines

252
Q

Purpose of nerve sensory receptor?

A

Transduction, conversion of one form of energy into nerve signals

253
Q

What 3 nerves are involved in gustation?

A

facial nerve (VII), Glossopharyngeal (IX), vagus nerve (X)

254
Q

All pathways go to thalamus first except?

A

olfactory and equilibrium

255
Q

3 regions of ear?

A
  1. external ear 2. middle ear 3. inner ear
256
Q

What does external ear contain and function?

A

auricle (pinna) is entrance to auditory/external ear canal which has ceruminous and sebaceous glands –> direct soundwaves to tympanic membrane (eardrum)

257
Q

What does middle ear contain and function?

A

a. tympanic membrane (eardrum) which seps. external and inner ear; sound waves cause vibration
3 auditory ossicles: malleus, incus, stapes
2 muscles: tensor tympani, stapedius
internal auditory tube: connects middle ear to nasopharynx; equalize air pressure; normally closed but swallowing or yawning opens it

258
Q

What is tympanic reflex?

A

protective mechanism initiated by loud sounds; causes contraction of these muscles to reduce the amount of motion of ear ossicles; also helps coordinating speech and hearing

259
Q

What does inner ear contain and function?

A

consists of hollow bony structures filled with endolymph

260
Q

Inner ear contains organs that detect?

A

equilibrium (semicircular canals and vestibules), hearing (cochlea)

261
Q

Components of semicircular canals?

A

3 canals filled with endolymph; which contain crust ampullaris with hair cells; gelatinous cap (capula)
fnc: detect rotary mvmnts in 3 planes

262
Q

Components of the vestibule?

A

has two chambers: saccule (anterior) and utricle (posterior); the macula sacculi and utriculi contain hair cells with stereocilia covered by gelatinous cap with otoliths

263
Q

What does vestibule detect?

A

orientation of the head(when it’s stationary); linear acceleration

264
Q

What is cochlea?

A

spiral shaped structure containing 3 fluid-filled chambers: Scala vestibuli (superior, contains oval window), Scala media (contains organ of corti), Scala tympani (inferior, contains round window)

265
Q

What is organ of corti?

A

spiral organ that contains hair cells that lie on a basilar membrane and are covered by a tectorial membrane

266
Q

What’s the hearing pathway?

A
  1. sound waves enter auditory canal and cause vibration of tympanic membrane
  2. vibration of auditory ossicles: hammer, anvil, stapes
  3. increased pressure in perilymph causes vibration of oval window
  4. mvmnt of endolymph causes mvmnt of the basilar membrane and the hair cells of the organ of corti
  5. stereocilia on the hair cells bend –> action potential for hearing starts
267
Q

The nerve signals produced in the Organ of Corti are carried by what nerve?

A

by cochlear nerve which joins vestibular nerve to form vestibulocochlear nerve

268
Q

What is loudness?

A

perception of sound intensity

269
Q

What is conductive deafness?

A

blockage of auditory canal; damaged tympanic membrane; otitis media; otosclerosis (fusion of auditory ossicles that prevents their free vibration)

270
Q

What is sensorineural deafness?

A

damage of hair cells or other hearing NS elements

271
Q

They eye is divided into…

A
  1. anterior segment (filled with aqueous humour) subdivided by anterior and posterior chamber
  2. posterior segment (filled by vitreous humour)
272
Q

Optical components?

A

transparent elements that admit light, refract light rays, and focus images on retina: cornea, aqueous humour, lens, vitreous humour

273
Q

3 layers of the eye?

A
  1. fibrous tunic (sclera, cornea)
  2. vascular tunic: iris, dilator pupillae, sphincter pupillae; ciliary body (secretes aqueous humour)
  3. neural tunic: part of diencephelon
274
Q

What cells does retina contain?

A

rods, cones, ganglion cells, bipolar cells

275
Q

Important elements of fundoscopy (eye exam)?

A

blood vessels; macula lutea (fovea centralis –> site of sharpest vision); optic disc (blindspot)

276
Q

Accessory structures of the orbit?

A
  1. eyelids (palpebrae): block foreign objects, help with sleep, blink to moisten –> consists of obicularis oculi muscle and tarsal plate
  2. tarsal glands secrete oil that reduces tear evaporation
  3. lacrimal glands: produce tears to wash and lubricate eye, deliver O2 and nutrients, prevent infections
277
Q

How do tears flow?

A

through lacrimal punctum to canaliculi to lacrimal sac then into nasolacrimal duct emptying into nasal cavity

278
Q

Six extrinsic muscles?

A

lateral rectus, medial rectus, superior rectus, inferior rectus, inferior oblique, superior oblique

279
Q

Strabismus?

A

Misalignment of the eyes often due to an imbalance of the extraocular muscles

280
Q

What three reflexes are required for
near-point vision?

A

a) convergence of eyes
b) constriction of pupil
c) accommodation of lens

281
Q

Focal point?

A

the closest an object can be to the eyes and still come into focus

282
Q

Stereoscopic vision

A

depth perception

283
Q

Glaucoma?

A

increase of intraocular pressure due to obstruction in the outflow of aqueous humour –> blindness

284
Q

Cataracts?

A

clouding of the lens; induced by diabetes, smoking, drugs, UV light, and certain viruses

285
Q

Myopia?

A

myopic eye is longer than normal; as result light ray focuses in front of retina instead of on it

286
Q

Hyperopia?

A

hyperopic eye is shorter than usual so light focuses behind retina

287
Q

Astigmatism?

A

blurred vision due to unequal curvatures of the lens or cornea; distorts vision for both near and far objects

288
Q

Two optic nerves combine to form what?

A

optic chiasm which splits to form optic tracts

289
Q
A

Biology (2 decks)

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