A & P 1 - Final Flashcards

1
Q

provides the force to move bones about their joints

A

muscular

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2
Q

responds to environmental changes by transmitting electrical impulses

A

nervous system

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3
Q

provides a rigid framework to support the body and stores minerals

A

skeletal system

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4
Q

prevents water loss, entry of germs into the body and synthesized vitamin D

A

integumentary system

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5
Q

provides antibodies that attach to foreign substances

A

immune system

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6
Q

controls the body with chemical molecules called hormones

A

endocrine

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7
Q

delivers oxygen and nutrients to the tissues

A

cardiovascular

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8
Q

Produces antibodies that attach to foreign substances

A

immune

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9
Q

removes and filters excess fluid from tissues

A

lymphatic

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10
Q

arteries, veins, heart

A

cardiovascular

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11
Q

trachea, bronchi, alveoli

A

respiratory

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12
Q

adrenal glands, pancreas, pituitary

A

endocrine

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13
Q

esophagus, large intestine, rectum

A

digestive

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14
Q

kidneys, bladder, ureters

A

urinary

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15
Q

arm

A

brachial

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16
Q

buttock

A

gluteal

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17
Q

head

A

cephalic

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18
Q

knee

A

patellar

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19
Q

chest

A

thoracic

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20
Q

Body’s structural hierarchy

place the following in correct sequence from simplest to most complex:

A

atoms, molecules, cells, tissue, organs

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21
Q

T/F molecules composed of two or more atoms are called compounds

A

FALSE

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22
Q

T/F the pH of blood plasma is approximately 7.4 which is slightly acidic

A

false

Blood is basic

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23
Q

which of the following equations depicts an exchange reaction

A

AB+CD —— AC + BD

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24
Q

proteins perform all of the following functions except

A

store hereditary information

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25
Q

the most abundant element in the human body, by weight is

A

oxygen

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26
Q

what type of bond attracts one water molecule to another

A

hydrogen bond

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27
Q

legs moving the pedals of a bicycle

A

mechanical energy

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28
Q

when the bonds of ATP are broken, what energy is released to do cellular work

A

chemical energy

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29
Q

energy that travels in waves. part of the electromagnetic spectrum

A

radiant energy

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30
Q

represented by the flow of charged particles along a conductor, or the flow of ions across a membrane

A

electrical energy

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31
Q

ATP—ADP + Pi is an example of a _____ reaction

A

decomposition

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32
Q

a bond in which electrons are shared unequally

A

polar covalent bond

Note: one atom attracts the shared electrons more strongly, leading to a partial positive and negative charges in the molecule.

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33
Q

a bond in which electrons are completely lost or gained by the atoms involved

A

ionic bond

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34
Q

a bond in which electrons are shared equally

A

nonpolar covalent bond

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35
Q

a type of bond important in trying different parts of the same molecule together into a three-dimensional structure

A

hydrogen bond

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36
Q

the plasma membrane is mostly made of molecules that have hydrophilic heads and hydrophobic tails. These molecules are called _________

A

phospholipids

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37
Q

in the glycocalyx, _____ act like identification tags that enable the body to distinguish its own cells from foreign and diseased cells

A

glycoproteins

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38
Q

the fuzzy coat of carbohydrates on the outer surface of the plasma membrane that functions in cell identification is called the ______

A

glycocalyx

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39
Q

______ provide motility to a sperm cell, __________ acts as sensory “antennae” in many cells, and ______ increase a cell’s surface area

A

flagella, cilia, microvilli

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40
Q

the term ________ refers to a membrane that allows some things to pass through it, but not others

A

selectively permeable

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41
Q

cellular membranes are permeable to ______, but impermeable to _____-

A

nutrients, proteins

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42
Q

what do facilitated diffusion and active transport have in common?

A

Both are examples of carrier-mediated transport

Carrier-mediated transport - process by which substances are transported across a cell membrane with the assistance of a specific carrier protein.

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43
Q

which of the following processes require the use of energy

A

active transport

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44
Q

which of the following is not a method by which particles can leave a cell?

A

pinocytosis

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45
Q

white blood cells engulf bacteria by means of

A

phagocytosis

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46
Q

Which of the following is not a function of the sodium-potassium pump

A

Answer Transports sodium into the cell and potassium out of the cell

note: it pumps sodium out and potassium in

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47
Q

which of these processes brings droplets of extracellular fluid into a cell

A

pinocytosis

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48
Q

which of the following does not affect the rate of diffusion

A

presence of enzymes

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49
Q

two solutions are separated by a selectively permeable membrane. if solution A has a higher concentration of a non-permeating solute than solution B, then

A

water will pass down its concentration gradient from solution b to a

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50
Q

a red blood cell is placed in a hypertonic solution. this means the concentration of solutes in the solution is _____ than the concentration of solutes in the intracellular fluid, and will cause the cell to ____

A

lower, shrink

I thinks it’s higher, shrink

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51
Q

which of the following organelles sorts, cuts, splices, and packages newly formed proteins into membrane-bound vesicles

A

golgi complex

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52
Q

which of the following is a double membraned organelle consisting of a matric and cristae

A

mitochondrion

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53
Q

a ____ contains the necessary information for the production of a molecule of RNA

A

nucleotide

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54
Q

copying genetic information from DNA to RNA is called _____- using the information contained in mRNA to make a polypeptide is called_______

A

transcription, translation

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55
Q

transcription occurs in the ______, but most translation occurs in the ______

A

nucleus, cytoplasm

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56
Q

the G1, S, and G2 phases of the cell cycle are collectively called

A

interphase

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57
Q

cytokinesis overlaps with which phase of mitosis?

A

telophase

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58
Q

a mutation is ____

A

a change in DNA structure that might be beneficial, harmful, or neutral

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59
Q

DNA replication is called semiconservative because ____

A

each daughter DNA consists of one new helix and one old helix

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60
Q

cell division is stimulated by _____ and suppressed by _____

A

mitosis, cytokinesis

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61
Q

the stage at which chromosomes aggregate along the equator of a cell is ____

A

metaphase

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62
Q

which of the processes occur during a cell’s first gap (G1) phase

A

the cell synthesizes proteins and grows

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63
Q

sister chromatids are pulled to opposite poles of a cell during _____ of the cell cycle

A

anaphase

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64
Q

chromatin shortens and thickens, coiling into compact rods during ____ of mitosis

A

prophase

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65
Q

if one allele is not phenotypically expressed in the presence of another, we say that it is ___ a allele

A

recessive

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66
Q

The alleles possessed by all members of a population collectively are called the __________.

A

gene pool

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67
Q

in familial hypercholesterolemia, individuals with two abnormal alleles die of heart attacks in childhood, those with only one abnormal allele typically die as young adults and those with two normal alleles have normal life expectancies. this exemplifies ____

A

incomplete dominance

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68
Q

which of the following is not found in rna

A

thymine

A U & C G in RNA

A C & C G in DNA

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69
Q

cells undergo division when which of the following conditions have been met

A

they have grown large enough and replicated their DNA

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70
Q

the epithelial membrane that lines the closed ventral cavities of the body

A

serous membrane

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71
Q

the epithelial membrane that lines body cavities open to the exterior membrane

A

mucous membrane

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72
Q

consists of keratinized stratified squamous epithelium

A

cutaneous

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73
Q

lines blood vessels and the heart

A

endothelium

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74
Q

what tissue has lucanae, calcium salts, and blood vessels

A

osseous tissue

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75
Q

the blast cell for blood production is the

A

hemocytoblast

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76
Q

which of the following is a single celled layer of epithelium that forms the lining of serous membranes

A

simple squamous

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77
Q

which tissue type arises from all three embryonic germ layers

A

epithelial tissue

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78
Q

the shape of the external ear is maintained by

A

elastic cartilage

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79
Q

a many layered epithelium with cuboidal basal cells and flat cells at its surface would be classified as _______

A

stratified squamous

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80
Q

edema occurs when

A

areolar tissue soaks up excess fluid in an inflamed area

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81
Q

heart muscle cells would tend to separate without __________

A

intercalated discs

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82
Q

Mesenchymal cells are most commonly found in ________ connective tissue.

A

embryonic

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83
Q

A needle would pierce the epidermal layers of the forearm in which order?

A

corneoum, granulosum, spinosum, basale

Note Remember this is from outer to inner layer and that it’s not showing all layers.

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84
Q

the major regions of a hair shaft include all of the following except

A

external root sheath

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85
Q

acne is a disorder associated with

A

sebaceous glands

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86
Q

the single most important risk for skin cancer is

A

over exposure to uv radiation

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87
Q

which of the following is a skin sensory receptor for touch

A

tactile corpuscle

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88
Q

the function of the root hair plexus is to

A

allow the hair to assist in touch sensation

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89
Q

which glands produce ear wax

A

ceruminous glands

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90
Q

which type of skin cancer appears as a scaly reddened papule and tends to grow rapidly and metastasize

A

squamous cell carcinoma

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91
Q

the epidermis consists of five layers of cells, each layer with a distinct role to play in the heath, well being, and functioning of the skin. which of the following layers is responsible for cell division and replacement

A

stratum basale

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92
Q

the dermis is a strong flexible connective tissue layer. which of the following cell types are likely to be found in the dermis

A

fibroblasts, macrophages, and mast cells

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93
Q

The dermis has two major layers. Which layer constitutes 80% of the dermis and is responsible for the tension lines in the skin?

A

reticular layer

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94
Q

sudoriferous glands are categorized as two distinct types which of the following are the two types of sweat glands

A

eccrine and apocrine

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95
Q

burns are devastating and debilitating because of the loss of fluids and electrolytes from the body. how do physicians estimate the extend

A

through blood analysis

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96
Q

what is the first threat to life from a massive third degree brun

A

catastrophic fluid loss

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97
Q

bones are porous and thin but bone composition is normal

A

osteoporosis

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98
Q

bone formed is poorly mineralized and soft. deforms on weight bearing

A

osteomalacia

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99
Q

Abnormal bone formation and reabsorption.

A

pagets disease

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100
Q

An incomplete fracture or cracking of the bone without actual separation of the parts. Common in children.

A

greenstick

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101
Q

bone fragments into many pieces

A

comminuted

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102
Q

common sports fracture resulting from a twisting force

A

spiral

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103
Q

the lining of the marrow cavity

A

endosteum

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104
Q

cells that can dissolve the bony matrix

A

osteoclasts

105
Q

layers of bone matrix

A

lamellae

106
Q

small channels that radiate through the matrix of bone

A

canaliculi

107
Q

cells that can build bony matrix

A

osteoblasts

108
Q

the cells responsible for the early stages of endochondral ossification

A

chondrocytes

109
Q

the growth pattern of bone in which matrix is laid down on the surface

A

appositional growth

110
Q

the area of long bones where cartilage cells are replaced by bone cells

A

diaphysis

111
Q

the appearance of this structure signals the end of bone growth

A

epiphyseal line

112
Q

area where bone longitudinal growth takes place

A

epiphyseal plate

113
Q

a fracture in the shaft of a bone would be a break in the

A

diaphysis

114
Q

what causes osteoporosis

A

Osteoclasts out-pace osteoblasts due to low hormone production of the ovaries.

115
Q

which structure allows the diaphysis of the bone to increase in length until early childhood

A

epiphyseal plate

116
Q

which of the following is not a function of the skeletal system

A

communication

117
Q

what is the structural unit of compact bone

A

the osteon

118
Q

bones are covered and lined by a protective tissue called periosteum. The inner layer consists primarily of ____________.

A

osteoblasts and osteoclasts

119
Q

wolffs law is concerned with

A

the thickness and shape of a bone being dependent on stresses placed upon it

120
Q

osteomyelitis is

A

due to pus forming bacteria

121
Q

a fibrous joint that is a peg in socket is called a _____ joints

A

gomphosis

122
Q

the cruciate ligaments of the knee

A

prevent hyperextension of the knee

123
Q

connective tissue sacs lined with synovial membranes that act as cushions in places where friction develops are called

A

bursae

124
Q

the ligamenst that protect the alignment of the femoral and tibial condyles and limit the movement of the femur anteriorly and posterly are called

A

cruciate ligaments

125
Q

bending your head back until it hurts is an example of

A

hyperextension

126
Q

synarthrotic joints ______

A

permit essentially no movement

127
Q

Synovial fluid is present in joint cavities of freely moveable joints. which of the following statements is true about about this fluid?

A

it contains hyaluronic acid

128
Q

what are menisci?

A

semilunar cartilage pads

129
Q

the terms inversion and eversion pertain only to the

A

feet

130
Q

the hip joint is a good example of a ____ synovial joint

A

multiaxial

131
Q

compared to the shoulder, displacements of the hip joints are ___

A

rare because of the ligament reinforcement

132
Q

which ligament of the knee intiates the knee-jerk relex when tapped

A

the patellar ligament

133
Q

Football players often sustain lateral blows to the extended knee. Which of the ligaments is (are) damaged as a result?

A

medial collateral, medial meniscus, and anterior cruciate

134
Q

Presence of a synovial cavity, articular cartilage, synovial membrane, and ligaments are characteristics of what type of joint?

A

hinge joint

135
Q

saddle joints have concave and convex surfaces, identify the saddle joint of the skeleton

A

carpometacarpal joint of the thumb

136
Q

tendon sheaths ______

A

act as friction reducing structures

137
Q

a sacromere is the distance between two

A

z discs

138
Q

the _____ contains only the actin filaments

A

i band

139
Q

the thicker filaments are the ______ filaments

A

myosin

140
Q

both actin and myosin are found in the ____

A

a band

141
Q

the myosin filaments are located in the ________

A

a band

142
Q

what structure in skeletal muscle cells functions in calcium storage

A

sacroplasmic reticulum

143
Q

creatine phosphate functions in the muscle cell by _______

A

storing energy that will be transfered to ADP to resynthesize ATP

144
Q

rigor mortis occurs because ________

A

no ATP is avaliable to release attached actin and myosin molecules

145
Q

the term aponeurosis refers to

A

a sheetlike indirect attachment to a skeletal element

146
Q

the oxygen binding protein found in muscle cells is

A

myoglobin

147
Q

what is the functional unit of a skeletal muscle called

A

a sacromere

148
Q

what is the role of calcium ions in muscle contractions

A

bind to regulatory sites on troponin to remove contraction inhibition

149
Q

when a muscle is unable to respond to stimuli temporarily, it is in which of the following periods

A

refractory period

150
Q

In an isotonic contraction the muscle…

A

changes in length and moves the “load”

151
Q

Muscle tissue has all of the following properties except ________.

A

secretion

152
Q

the neuron cannot respond to a second stimulus no matter how strong

A

absolute refractory period

153
Q

the interior of the cell becomes less negative due to an influx of sodium ions

A

depolarization

154
Q

the specific period during which potassium ions diffuse out of the neuron due to a change in membrane permeability

A

repolarization

155
Q

Also called a nerve impulse transmitted by axons.

A

action potential

156
Q

an exceptionally strong stimulus can trigger a response

A

relative refractory period

157
Q

numerous nerve impulses arriving at a synapse at closely timed intervals exert a cummulative effect

A

temporal summation

158
Q

stimulation of a postsynaptic neuron by many terminals at the same time

A

spatial summation

159
Q

an insufficient stimulus

A

subthreshold stimulus

160
Q

Any stimulus below this intensity will result in no response in a neuron.

A

threshold stimulus

161
Q

the period after an initial stimulus when a neuron is not sensitive to another stimulus is the

A

absolute refractory period

162
Q

the part of a neuron that conducts impulses away from its cell body is called

A

axon

163
Q

an impulse from one nerve cell is communicated to another nerve cell via the ______

A

synapse

164
Q

what is the role of acetylcholinesterase

A

destroy ACh a brief period after its release by the axon endings

165
Q

collections of nerve cell bodies outside the central nervous system are called

A

ganglia

166
Q

the term central nervous system refers to the ______

A

brain and spinal cord

167
Q

The substance released at axon terminals to propagate a nervous impulse is called a(n) ________.

A

neurotransmitter

168
Q

neuroglia that control the chemical environment around neurons by buffer

A

astrocytes

169
Q

which of the following is true about the movement of ions across excitable living membranes

A

sodium gates in the membrane can open in response to electrical potential changes

170
Q

a second nerve impulse cannot be generated until

A

the membrane potential has been reestablished

171
Q

in what way does the interior surface of a cell membrane of a resting neuron differ from the external environment? the interior is______-

A

negatively charged and contains less sodium

172
Q

if a motor neuron in the body were stimulated by an electrode placed about midpoint along the length of the axon

A

the impulse would spread bidirectioanlly

173
Q

which of the following neurotransmitters inhibits pain and is mimicked by morphine, heroin, and methadone

A

endorphin

174
Q

which of the following describes the exciatory postsynaptic potential

A

short distance depolarization

175
Q

Identify

A

simple cuboidal epithelium

176
Q

Identify

A

cardiac muscle

177
Q

Identify

A

stratified squamous epithelium

178
Q

Identify

A

skeletal muscle

179
Q

epidermis

A

what is a

180
Q

papillary layer of the dermis

A

what is b

181
Q

neuroglia that control the chemical environment around neurons by buffering potassium and recapturing neurotransmitters are

A

astrocytes

182
Q

Identify

A

simple squamous epithelium

183
Q

gateway to the cerebrum

A

thalamus

184
Q

ensures coordination and balance

A

cerebellum

185
Q

produces automatic behaviors necessary for survival

A

brain stem

186
Q

executive site

A

cerebrum

187
Q

visceral command center

A

hypothalamus

188
Q

where nerves serving the upper limbs arise

A

cervical enlargement

189
Q

anchors the spinal cord to the coccyx

A

filum terminale

190
Q

collection of nerve roots at the inferior end of the vertebral canal

A

cauda equina

191
Q

Inferior point of termination of the spinal cord in an adult.

A

conus medullaris

192
Q

passing through the NREM stages the frequency of the EEG waves declines but their amplitude increases

A

TRUE

193
Q

a flat eeg is a good indication of deep sleep

A

TRUE

194
Q

the limbic system acts as our emotional, or affective (feelings), brain

A

TRUE

195
Q

the primary visual cortex contains a map of visual space

A

TRUE

196
Q

Nuclei of cranial nerves V, VI, and VII are found in the ________.

A

pons

197
Q

the brain stem consists of the ______

A

midbrain, medulla, and pons

198
Q

what type of cells line the ventricles of the brain

A

ependymal cells

199
Q

vital centers for the control of heart rate respiration and blood pressure are located in the

A

medulla oblongata

200
Q

which fissure separates the cerebral hemispheres

A

longitudinal fissure

201
Q

the central sulcus separates which lobes

A

frontal from parietal

202
Q

the white matter of the spinal cord contains

A

myelinated and unmyelinated nerve fibers

203
Q

the frontal lobe is separated from the temporal lobe by the

A

lateral sulcus

204
Q

brocas area ________

A

is considered a motor speech area

205
Q

which part of the cerebral cortex is involved in intellect, cognition, recall and personality

A

prefrontal cortex

206
Q

the blood brain barrier is effective against

A

metabolic waste such as urea

207
Q

all of the following are structures of the limbic system except the

A

caudate nucleus

208
Q

REM sleep is associated with

A

temporary skeletal muscle inhibition except for ocular muscles and diaphragm

209
Q

which of the following is not a function of the csf

A

initiation of some nerve impulses

210
Q

tremor at rest shuffling gait stooped posture and expressionless face are characteristics of

A

parkinsons disease

211
Q

Loss of ability to perform skilled motor activities such as piano playing, with no paralysis or weakness in specific muscles, might suggest damage to the ________.

A

premotor cortex

212
Q

which brain waves are uncommon for awake adults but may occur when concentrating

A

theta

213
Q

degeneration of the dopamine releasing neurons of the _____- is the ultimate cause of parkinsons disease

A

substantia nigra

214
Q

the _____ includes the thalamus hypothalamus and epithalamus

A

diencephalon

215
Q

the corpora quadrigemina are found in the

A

midbrain

216
Q

dorsal and ventral rami are similar in that they both contain sensory and motor fibers

A

TRUE

217
Q

if someones spills vey hot coffee on their skin they will likely perceive much pain. which of the following receptor types is causing this sensation

A

nociceptors

218
Q

some large arteries that are proximal to the heart are sensitive to the stretch of the blood vessles. this stretch indicates the bloods pressure. which of the following pairs of classifications below best fit the receptor type that is being described above

A

mechanoreceptors that are also interoceptors

219
Q

we can touch our finger to our nose while our eyes are closed in part because we can sense the position and movement of our joints as well as the length of stretch in our muscles. these sensations create awareness of our bodys positioning. this following receptor is most likely responsible for this ability

A

proprioreceptors

220
Q

tactile sensation is a combination of touch pressure stretch and vibration. which of the following is most likely the receptor that senses tactile stimulation

A

mechanoreceptors

221
Q

a patient is suffering from the inability to distinguish various types of odor this patient may have damage to which of the following

A

olfactory nerve

222
Q

inborn or intrinsic reflexes are

A

involuntary

223
Q

striking the funny bone is actually stimulation of the

A

ulnar nerve

224
Q

a reflex that causes muscle relaxation and lengthening in response to muscle tension is called a

A

tendon reflex

225
Q

nerves that carry regeneration in peripheral nerves is guided by____

A

shwann cells

226
Q

regeneration within the cns

A

is prevented due to growth-inhibiting proteins of oligodendrocytes

227
Q

bells palsy is

A

paralysis of the facial nerve, causing muscular weakness in one side of the face.

228
Q

which of the following is the correct simple spinal nerve arc

A

receptor, afferent neuron, integration center, efferent neuron, effector

229
Q

a patient who received a blow to the side of the skull exhibits the following signs and symptoms on that side of the face, he is unable to close his eye and the corner of his mouth droops, which cranial nerve has been damaged

A

facial

230
Q

Preparing the body for the “fight-or-flight” response is the role of the ________.

A

sympathetic division

231
Q

the resting and digesting division of the autonomic nervous system is the

A

parasympathetic division

232
Q

erection of the penis or clitoris

A

is the result of coordinated activation by both sympathetic and parasympathetic input

233
Q

raynauds disease

A

is characterized by exaggerated vasoconstriction in the extremities

234
Q

autonomic dysreflexia

A

involves uncontrolled activation of somatic, and autonomic motor neurons

235
Q

which of the following drug classes would be useful for smoking cessation products

A

nicotinic agents

236
Q

bending your head back until it hurts is an example of

A

hyperextension

237
Q

the study of large body structures visible to the naked eye such as the heart is called __________ anatomy

A

gross

238
Q

reticular layer of the dermis

A

what is c

239
Q

hypodermis

A

what is d

240
Q

Detection of heat and cold stimuli:

A

Performed by thermoreceptors

241
Q

Neurotransmitter transmitting pain sensations to second-order spinal neurons:

A

Substance P

242
Q

Neuromodulator blocking pain signal conduction by second-order spinal neurons:

A

Endorphins

243
Q

Location of most taste cells:

A

Fungiform Papillae:
highest concentration on the tip.

244
Q

Higher frequency of sound corresponds to:

A

Shorter wavelength and higher pitch

245
Q

Structure where cochlear cells rest:

A

Basilar membrane
or
organ of corti

246
Q

Sensing an elevator when it begins to rise:

A

Involves vestibular receptors in the inner ear

Maybe propioceptors

247
Q

Determinant of the color of light:

A

Color is determined by the wavelength of light

248
Q

Retina’s oxygen supply source:

A

Choroid

or

Central Retinal Artery

249
Q

Photopic vision:

A

daytime vision
primarily using cones

Opposite of photopic is SCOTOPIC

250
Q

Most finely detailed vision occurs where?

A

Fovea centralis

251
Q

Cells of the retina generating an action potential:

A

Ganglion cells

252
Q

Visual pigment of the cone:

A

Photopsin

or

S, M or L Opsin

253
Q

Sensation defined as:

A

A conscious perception or awareness of stimuli.

254
Q

Incus articulates with which bones:

A

Malleus and stapes.

255
Q

Order of cells in the retina from back to front:

A

Photoreceptors cells (rods and cones), Bipolar cells, Ganglion cells.

256
Q

Spiral organ housed:

A

Cochlea in the inner ear

257
Q

Structure allowing upper respiratory infections to spread to the tympanic cavity:

A

Auditory (Eustachian) tube.

258
Q

Structures making up the inner ear:

A

Cochlea, vestibule, and semicircular canals.

259
Q

Primary olfactory cortex location in the brain:

A

Temporal lobe