A & P 1 - Final Flashcards
1
Q
provides the force to move bones about their joints
A
muscular
2
Q
responds to environmental changes by transmitting electrical impulses
A
nervous system
3
Q
provides a rigid framework to support the body and stores minerals
A
skeletal system
4
Q
prevents water loss, entry of germs into the body and synthesized vitamin D
A
integumentary system
5
Q
provides antibodies that attach to foreign substances
A
immune system
6
Q
controls the body with chemical molecules called hormones
A
endocrine
7
Q
delivers oxygen and nutrients to the tissues
A
cardiovascular
8
Q
Produces antibodies that attach to foreign substances
A
immune
9
Q
removes and filters excess fluid from tissues
A
lymphatic
10
Q
arteries, veins, heart
A
cardiovascular
11
Q
trachea, bronchi, alveoli
A
respiratory
12
Q
adrenal glands, pancreas, pituitary
A
endocrine
13
Q
esophagus, large intestine, rectum
A
digestive
14
Q
kidneys, bladder, ureters
A
urinary
15
Q
arm
A
brachial
16
Q
buttock
A
gluteal
17
Q
head
A
cephalic
18
Q
knee
A
patellar
19
Q
chest
A
thoracic
20
Q
Body’s structural hierarchy
place the following in correct sequence from simplest to most complex:
A
atoms, molecules, cells, tissue, organs
21
Q
T/F molecules composed of two or more atoms are called compounds
A
FALSE
22
Q
T/F the pH of blood plasma is approximately 7.4 which is slightly acidic
A
false
Blood is basic
23
Q
which of the following equations depicts an exchange reaction
A
AB+CD —— AC + BD
24
Q
proteins perform all of the following functions except
A
store hereditary information
25
the most abundant element in the human body, by weight is
oxygen
26
what type of bond attracts one water molecule to another
hydrogen bond
27
legs moving the pedals of a bicycle
mechanical energy
28
when the bonds of ATP are broken, what energy is released to do cellular work
chemical energy
29
energy that travels in waves. part of the electromagnetic spectrum
radiant energy
30
represented by the flow of charged particles along a conductor, or the flow of ions across a membrane
electrical energy
31
ATP---ADP + Pi is an example of a _____ reaction
decomposition
32
a bond in which electrons are shared **unequally**
polar covalent bond
**Note: one atom attracts the shared electrons more strongly, leading to a partial positive and negative charges in the molecule.**
33
a bond in which electrons are completely lost or gained by the atoms involved
ionic bond
34
a bond in which electrons are shared equally
nonpolar covalent bond
35
a type of bond important in trying different parts of the same molecule together into a three-dimensional structure
hydrogen bond
36
the plasma membrane is mostly made of molecules that have hydrophilic heads and hydrophobic tails. These molecules are called _________
phospholipids
37
in the glycocalyx, _____ act like identification tags that enable the body to distinguish its own cells from foreign and diseased cells
glycoproteins
38
the fuzzy coat of carbohydrates on the outer surface of the plasma membrane that functions in cell identification is called the ______
glycocalyx
39
______ provide motility to a sperm cell, __________ acts as sensory "antennae" in many cells, and ______ increase a cell's surface area
flagella, cilia, microvilli
40
the term ________ refers to a membrane that allows some things to pass through it, but not others
selectively permeable
41
cellular membranes are permeable to ______, but impermeable to _____-
nutrients, proteins
42
what do facilitated diffusion and active transport have in common?
Both are examples of carrier-mediated transport
Carrier-mediated transport - process by which substances are transported across a cell membrane with the assistance of a specific carrier protein.
43
which of the following processes require the use of energy
active transport
44
which of the following is **not** a method by which particles can leave a cell?
pinocytosis
45
white blood cells engulf bacteria by means of
phagocytosis
46
Which of the following is **not** a function of the sodium-potassium pump
**Answer** Transports sodium into the cell and potassium out of the cell
**note: it pumps sodium out and potassium in**
47
which of these processes brings droplets of extracellular fluid into a cell
pinocytosis
48
which of the following does not affect the rate of diffusion
presence of enzymes
49
two solutions are separated by a selectively permeable membrane. if solution A has a higher concentration of a non-permeating solute than solution B, then
water will pass down its concentration gradient from solution b to a
50
a red blood cell is placed in a hypertonic solution. this means the concentration of solutes in the solution is _____ than the concentration of solutes in the intracellular fluid, and will cause the cell to ____
lower, shrink
I thinks it’s higher, shrink
51
which of the following organelles sorts, cuts, splices, and packages newly formed proteins into membrane-bound vesicles
golgi complex
52
which of the following is a double membraned organelle consisting of a matric and cristae
mitochondrion
53
a ____ contains the necessary information for the production of a molecule of RNA
nucleotide
54
copying genetic information from DNA to RNA is called _____- using the information contained in mRNA to make a polypeptide is called_______
transcription, translation
55
transcription occurs in the ______, but most translation occurs in the ______
nucleus, cytoplasm
56
the G1, S, and G2 phases of the cell cycle are collectively called
interphase
57
cytokinesis overlaps with which phase of mitosis?
telophase
58
a mutation is ____
a change in DNA structure that might be beneficial, harmful, or neutral
59
DNA replication is called semiconservative because ____
each daughter DNA consists of one new helix and one old helix
60
cell division is stimulated by _____ and suppressed by _____
mitosis, cytokinesis
61
the stage at which chromosomes aggregate along the equator of a cell is ____
metaphase
62
which of the processes occur during a cell's first gap (G1) phase
the cell synthesizes proteins and grows
63
sister chromatids are pulled to opposite poles of a cell during _____ of the cell cycle
anaphase
64
chromatin shortens and thickens, coiling into compact rods during ____ of mitosis
prophase
65
if one allele is not phenotypically expressed in the presence of another, we say that it is ___ a allele
recessive
66
The alleles possessed by all members of a population collectively are called the __________.
gene pool
67
in familial hypercholesterolemia, individuals with two abnormal alleles die of heart attacks in childhood, those with only one abnormal allele typically die as young adults and those with two normal alleles have normal life expectancies. this exemplifies ____
incomplete dominance
68
which of the following is **not** found in rna
thymine
A U & C G in RNA
A C & C G in DNA
69
cells undergo division when which of the following conditions have been met
they have grown large enough and replicated their DNA
70
the epithelial membrane that lines the closed ventral cavities of the body
serous membrane
71
the epithelial membrane that lines body cavities open to the exterior membrane
mucous membrane
72
consists of keratinized stratified squamous epithelium
cutaneous
73
lines blood vessels and the heart
endothelium
74
what tissue has lucanae, calcium salts, and blood vessels
osseous tissue
75
the blast cell for blood production is the
hemocytoblast
76
which of the following is a single celled layer of epithelium that forms the lining of serous membranes
simple squamous
77
which tissue type arises from all three embryonic germ layers
epithelial tissue
78
the shape of the external ear is maintained by
elastic cartilage
79
a many layered epithelium with cuboidal basal cells and flat cells at its surface would be classified as _______
stratified squamous
80
edema occurs when
areolar tissue soaks up excess fluid in an inflamed area
81
heart muscle cells would tend to separate without __________
intercalated discs
82
Mesenchymal cells are most commonly found in ________ connective tissue.
embryonic
83
A needle would pierce the epidermal layers of the forearm in which order?
corneoum, granulosum, spinosum, basale
**Note** Remember this is from outer to inner layer and that it’s not showing all layers.
84
the major regions of a hair shaft include all of the following except
external root sheath
85
acne is a disorder associated with
sebaceous glands
86
the single most important risk for skin cancer is
over exposure to uv radiation
87
which of the following is a skin sensory receptor for touch
tactile corpuscle
88
the function of the root hair plexus is to
allow the hair to assist in touch sensation
89
which glands produce ear wax
ceruminous glands
90
which type of skin cancer appears as a scaly reddened papule and tends to grow rapidly and metastasize
squamous cell carcinoma
91
the epidermis consists of five layers of cells, each layer with a distinct role to play in the heath, well being, and functioning of the skin. which of the following layers is responsible for cell division and replacement
stratum basale
92
the dermis is a strong flexible connective tissue layer. which of the following cell types are likely to be found in the dermis
fibroblasts, macrophages, and mast cells
93
The dermis has two major layers. Which layer constitutes 80% of the dermis and is responsible for the tension lines in the skin?
reticular layer
94
sudoriferous glands are categorized as two distinct types which of the following are the two types of sweat glands
eccrine and apocrine
95
burns are devastating and debilitating because of the loss of fluids and electrolytes from the body. how do physicians estimate the extend
through blood analysis
96
what is the first threat to life from a massive third degree brun
catastrophic fluid loss
97
bones are porous and thin but bone composition is normal
osteoporosis
98
bone formed is poorly mineralized and soft. deforms on weight bearing
osteomalacia
99
Abnormal bone formation and reabsorption.
pagets disease
100
An incomplete fracture or cracking of the bone without actual separation of the parts. Common in children.
greenstick
101
bone fragments into many pieces
comminuted
102
common sports fracture resulting from a twisting force
spiral
103
the lining of the marrow cavity
endosteum
104
cells that can dissolve the bony matrix
osteoclasts
105
layers of bone matrix
lamellae
106
small channels that radiate through the matrix of bone
canaliculi
107
cells that can build bony matrix
osteoblasts
108
the cells responsible for the early stages of endochondral ossification
chondrocytes
109
the growth pattern of bone in which matrix is laid down on the surface
appositional growth
110
the area of long bones where cartilage cells are replaced by bone cells
diaphysis
111
the appearance of this structure signals the end of bone growth
epiphyseal line
112
area where bone longitudinal growth takes place
epiphyseal plate
113
a fracture in the **shaft** of a bone would be a break in the
diaphysis
114
what causes osteoporosis
Osteoclasts out-pace osteoblasts due to low hormone production of the ovaries.
115
which structure allows the diaphysis of the bone to increase in length until early childhood
epiphyseal plate
116
which of the following is not a function of the skeletal system
communication
117
what is the structural unit of compact bone
the osteon
118
bones are covered and lined by a protective tissue called periosteum. The inner layer consists primarily of ____________.
osteoblasts and osteoclasts
119
wolffs law is concerned with
the thickness and shape of a bone being dependent on stresses placed upon it
120
osteomyelitis is
due to pus forming bacteria
121
a fibrous joint that is a **peg in socket** is called a _____ joints
gomphosis
122
the cruciate ligaments of the knee
prevent hyperextension of the knee
123
**connective tissue sacs** lined with synovial membranes that act as cushions in places where friction develops are called
bursae
124
the ligamenst that protect the alignment of the femoral and tibial condyles and limit the movement of the femur anteriorly and posterly are called
cruciate ligaments
125
bending your head back until it hurts is an example of
hyperextension
126
synarthrotic joints ______
permit essentially no movement
127
Synovial fluid is present in joint cavities of freely moveable joints. which of the following statements is true about about this fluid?
it contains hyaluronic acid
128
what are menisci?
semilunar cartilage pads
129
the terms inversion and eversion pertain only to the
feet
130
the hip joint is a good example of a ____ synovial joint
multiaxial
131
compared to the shoulder, displacements of the hip joints are ___
rare because of the **ligament reinforcement**
132
which ligament of the knee intiates the knee-jerk relex when tapped
the patellar ligament
133
Football players often sustain lateral blows to the extended knee. Which of the ligaments is (are) damaged as a result?
medial collateral, medial meniscus, and anterior cruciate
134
Presence of a synovial cavity, articular cartilage, synovial membrane, and ligaments are characteristics of what type of joint?
hinge joint
135
saddle joints have concave and convex surfaces, identify the saddle joint of the skeleton
carpometacarpal joint of the thumb
136
tendon sheaths ______
act as friction reducing structures
137
a sacromere is the distance between two
z discs
138
the _____ contains only the actin filaments
i band
139
the thicker filaments are the ______ filaments
myosin
140
both actin and myosin are found in the ____
a band
141
the myosin filaments are located in the ________
a band
142
what structure in skeletal muscle cells functions in calcium storage
sacroplasmic reticulum
143
creatine phosphate functions in the muscle cell by _______
storing energy that will be transfered to ADP to resynthesize ATP
144
rigor mortis occurs because ________
no ATP is avaliable to release attached actin and myosin molecules
145
the term aponeurosis refers to
a sheetlike indirect attachment to a skeletal element
146
the oxygen binding protein found in muscle cells is
myoglobin
147
what is the functional unit of a skeletal muscle called
a sacromere
148
what is the role of calcium ions in muscle contractions
bind to regulatory sites on troponin to remove contraction inhibition
149
when a muscle is unable to respond to stimuli temporarily, it is in which of the following periods
refractory period
150
In an isotonic contraction the muscle...
changes in length and moves the "load"
151
Muscle tissue has all of the following properties except ________.
secretion
152
the neuron cannot respond to a second stimulus **no matter how strong**
absolute refractory period
153
the interior of the cell becomes less negative due to an influx of sodium ions
depolarization
154
the specific period during which potassium ions diffuse out of the neuron due to a change in membrane permeability
repolarization
155
Also called a nerve impulse transmitted by axons.
action potential
156
an **exceptionally strong stimulus** can trigger a response
relative refractory period
157
numerous nerve impulses arriving at a synapse at closely timed intervals exert a cummulative effect
temporal summation
158
stimulation of a postsynaptic neuron by **many terminals** at the same time
spatial summation
159
an insufficient stimulus
subthreshold stimulus
160
Any stimulus below this intensity will result in no response in a neuron.
threshold stimulus
161
the period after an initial stimulus when a neuron is **not sensitive** to another stimulus is the
absolute refractory period
162
the part of a neuron that conducts impulses away from its cell body is called
axon
163
an impulse from one nerve cell is communicated to another nerve cell via the ______
synapse
164
what is the role of acetylcholinesterase
destroy ACh a brief period after its release by the axon endings
165
collections of nerve cell bodies outside the central nervous system are called
ganglia
166
the term central nervous system refers to the ______
brain and spinal cord
167
The substance released at axon terminals to propagate a nervous impulse is called a(n) ________.
neurotransmitter
168
neuroglia that **control the chemical environment** around neurons by buffer
astrocytes
169
which of the following is true about the movement of ions across excitable living membranes
sodium gates in the membrane can open in response to electrical potential changes
170
a second nerve impulse cannot be generated until
the membrane potential has been reestablished
171
in what way does the interior surface of a cell membrane of a resting neuron differ from the external environment? the interior is______-
negatively charged and contains less sodium
172
if a motor neuron in the body were stimulated by an **electrode placed about midpoint** along the length of the axon
the impulse would spread **bidirectioanlly**
173
which of the following neurotransmitters inhibits pain and is mimicked by morphine, heroin, and methadone
endorphin
174
which of the following describes the exciatory postsynaptic potential
short distance depolarization
175
Identify
simple cuboidal epithelium
176
Identify
cardiac muscle
177
Identify
stratified squamous epithelium
178
Identify
skeletal muscle
179
epidermis
what is a
180
papillary layer of the dermis
what is b
181
neuroglia that control the chemical environment around neurons by buffering potassium and recapturing neurotransmitters are
astrocytes
182
Identify
simple squamous epithelium
183
gateway to the cerebrum
thalamus
184
ensures coordination and balance
cerebellum
185
produces automatic behaviors necessary for survival
brain stem
186
executive site
cerebrum
187
visceral command center
hypothalamus
188
where nerves serving the upper limbs arise
cervical enlargement
189
**anchors** the spinal cord to the **coccyx**
filum terminale
190
**collection of nerve roots** at the inferior end of the vertebral canal
cauda equina
191
Inferior point of termination of the spinal cord in an adult.
conus medullaris
192
passing through the NREM stages the frequency of the EEG waves declines but their amplitude increases
TRUE
193
a flat eeg is a good indication of deep sleep
TRUE
194
the limbic system acts as our emotional, or affective (feelings), brain
TRUE
195
the primary visual cortex contains a map of visual space
TRUE
196
Nuclei of cranial nerves V, VI, and VII are found in the ________.
pons
197
the brain stem consists of the ______
midbrain, medulla, and pons
198
what type of cells line the ventricles of the brain
ependymal cells
199
vital centers for the control of heart rate respiration and blood pressure are located in the
medulla oblongata
200
which fissure separates the cerebral hemispheres
longitudinal fissure
201
the central sulcus separates which lobes
frontal from parietal
202
the white matter of the spinal cord contains
myelinated and unmyelinated nerve fibers
203
the frontal lobe is separated from the temporal lobe by the
lateral sulcus
204
brocas area ________
is considered a motor speech area
205
which part of the cerebral cortex is involved in intellect, cognition, recall and personality
prefrontal cortex
206
the blood brain barrier is effective against
metabolic waste such as urea
207
all of the following are structures of the limbic system except the
caudate nucleus
208
REM sleep is associated with
temporary skeletal muscle inhibition except for ocular muscles and diaphragm
209
which of the following is **not** a function of the csf
initiation of some nerve impulses
210
tremor at rest shuffling gait stooped posture and expressionless face are characteristics of
parkinsons disease
211
Loss of ability to perform skilled motor activities such as piano playing, with no paralysis or weakness in specific muscles, might suggest damage to the ________.
premotor cortex
212
which brain waves are uncommon for awake adults but may occur when concentrating
theta
213
degeneration of the dopamine releasing neurons of the _____- is the ultimate cause of parkinsons disease
substantia nigra
214
the _____ includes the thalamus hypothalamus and epithalamus
diencephalon
215
the corpora quadrigemina are found in the
midbrain
216
dorsal and ventral rami are similar in that they both contain sensory and motor fibers
TRUE
217
if someones spills vey hot coffee on their skin they will likely perceive much pain. which of the following receptor types is causing this sensation
nociceptors
218
some large arteries that are proximal to the heart are sensitive to the stretch of the blood vessles. this stretch indicates the bloods pressure. which of the following pairs of classifications below best fit the receptor type that is being described above
mechanoreceptors that are also interoceptors
219
we can touch our finger to our nose while our eyes are closed in part because we can sense the position and movement of our joints as well as the length of stretch in our muscles. these sensations create awareness of our bodys positioning. this following receptor is most likely responsible for this ability
proprioreceptors
220
tactile sensation is a combination of touch pressure stretch and vibration. which of the following is most likely the receptor that senses tactile stimulation
mechanoreceptors
221
a patient is suffering from the inability to distinguish various types of odor this patient may have damage to which of the following
olfactory nerve
222
inborn or intrinsic reflexes are
involuntary
223
striking the funny bone is actually stimulation of the
ulnar nerve
224
a reflex that causes muscle relaxation and lengthening in response to muscle tension is called a
tendon reflex
225
nerves that carry regeneration in peripheral nerves is guided by____
shwann cells
226
regeneration within the cns
is prevented due to growth-inhibiting proteins of oligodendrocytes
227
bells palsy is
paralysis of the facial nerve, causing muscular weakness in one side of the face.
228
which of the following is the correct simple spinal nerve arc
receptor, afferent neuron, integration center, efferent neuron, effector
229
a patient who received a blow to the side of the skull exhibits the following signs and symptoms on that side of the face, he is unable to close his eye and the corner of his mouth droops, which cranial nerve has been damaged
facial
230
Preparing the body for the "fight-or-flight" response is the role of the ________.
sympathetic division
231
the resting and digesting division of the autonomic nervous system is the
parasympathetic division
232
erection of the penis or clitoris
is the result of coordinated activation by both sympathetic and parasympathetic input
233
raynauds disease
is characterized by exaggerated vasoconstriction in the extremities
234
autonomic dysreflexia
involves uncontrolled activation of somatic, and autonomic motor neurons
235
which of the following drug classes would be useful for smoking cessation products
nicotinic agents
236
bending your head back until it hurts is an example of
hyperextension
237
the study of large body structures visible to the naked eye such as the heart is called __________ anatomy
gross
238
reticular layer of the dermis
what is c
239
hypodermis
what is d
240
Detection of heat and cold stimuli:
Performed by thermoreceptors
241
Neurotransmitter transmitting pain sensations to second-order spinal neurons:
Substance P
242
Neuromodulator blocking pain signal conduction by second-order spinal neurons:
Endorphins
243
Location of most taste cells:
Fungiform Papillae:
highest concentration on the tip.
244
Higher frequency of sound corresponds to:
Shorter wavelength and higher pitch
245
Structure where cochlear cells rest:
Basilar membrane
or
organ of corti
246
Sensing an elevator when it begins to rise:
Involves vestibular receptors in the inner ear
Maybe propioceptors
247
Determinant of the color of light:
Color is determined by the **wavelength** of light
248
Retina's oxygen supply source:
Choroid
or
Central Retinal Artery
249
Photopic vision:
**daytime vision**
primarily using cones
Opposite of photopic is SCOTOPIC
250
Most finely detailed vision occurs where?
Fovea centralis
251
Cells of the retina generating an action potential:
Ganglion cells
252
Visual pigment of the cone:
Photopsin
or
S, M or L Opsin
253
Sensation defined as:
A conscious perception or awareness of stimuli.
254
Incus articulates with which bones:
Malleus and stapes.
255
Order of cells in the retina from back to front:
Photoreceptors cells (rods and cones), Bipolar cells, Ganglion cells.
256
Spiral organ housed:
Cochlea in the inner ear
257
Structure allowing upper respiratory infections to spread to the tympanic cavity:
Auditory (Eustachian) tube.
258
Structures making up the inner ear:
Cochlea, vestibule, and semicircular canals.
259
Primary olfactory cortex location in the brain:
Temporal lobe
