A&P 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Where are striated muscles located?

A

Heart and skeletal muscles; Both cardiac and skeletal muscles have a striped or striated appearance because of their alternating light and dark bands. The stomach wall, uterus, urinary bladder, and ciliary body of the eye are all composed of smooth muscles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Systemic circulation is under:

A

High pressure; Blood going through the systemic circulation is under higher pressure than blood in the pulmonary circulation. Blood traveling away from the heart is under higher pressure because of the further distance it travels. The pulmonary circulation is a short distance and requires a lower pressure to complete. Equilibrium is anythin balanced or the same. Partial pressure is the pressure of each individual gas. The circulatory system uses different pressures to contract blood throughout the body and cannot be at equilibrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

A pregnant mare has what kind of placentation?

A

Diffuse; In horses and pigs, diffuse attachment sites are spread diffusely over the entire surface of the placenta and the lining of the uterus. Dogs and Cats have a zonary attachment, where the placenta attaches to the uterus in a belt-shaped area the encircles the placenta. Cotyledons are attachements of numerous small, separate areas and are found in ruminants. Discoid attachment is located between the placenta and uterus in a single disk-shaped area and is found in humans, rabbits, and rodents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The pressure in the systemic arteries during ventricular contraction is:

A

Systolic blood pressure; Systolic pressure occurs when the heart muscle contracts, during which time blood is ejected from the atria to the ventricles and then from the ventricles to the systemic arteries, creating high pressure. Diastolic pressure occurs when the ventricles relax and refill with blood to be ejected during the next systolic contraction, thus creating low pressure. Osmotic pressure is the force of fluid moving from a level of higher solute concentration to a level of lower solute concentration, thus creating equal concentration on either side of the membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which hormone contracts the female reproductive tract to help move spermatozoa into the oviducts?

A

Oxytocin; Copulation causes the hormone oxytocin to be released from the pituitary gland of the female. Oxytocin causes the smooth muscle of the estrogen-primed female reproductive tract to contract, aiding the spermatozoa to move further into the oviducts. Estrogen and progesterone, which are produced by the developing ovarian follicles and corpus luteum are responsible for the physical and behavioral changes in the female that are associated with the estrous cycle. Prolactin is produced by the anterior pituitary gland and is responsible for initiating lactation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Cardiac muscle is considered a :

A

Striated involuntary muscle; Cardiac muscle is known as involuntary striated muscle (striped appearance of the cells). Cardiac muscles are considered involuntary because the contractions are not under conscious control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

In what order does the impulse for depolarization travel through the heart?

A

SA node, AV node, Purkinje fibers, bundle of His; During the conduction system of the heart, specialized cardiac muscle cells within the wall rapidly conduct an electrical impulse throughout the myocardium. This signal is initiated by the SA node and spreads to the rest of the atrial myocardium and to the AV node. The AV node then initiates a signal that is conducted through the ventricular myocardium by way of the AV bundle of His, which travels down the interventricular septum to the bottom end of the left and right ventricles, and the Purkinje fibers carry the impulses from the bundle of His up into the ventricular myocardium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

A pregnant queen has what type of placentation?

A

Zonary; Pregnant queens and bitches have zonary attachment, in which the placenta attaches to the uterus in a belt-shaped area that encircles the placenta.

A cotyledon is the attachement of numerous small, separate areas and are found in ruminants.
Diffuse attachments are attachment sites that are spread diffusely over the whole surface of the placenta and the whole lining of the uterus and are found in horses and pigs.
Discoid attachment is located between the placenta and uterus is a single disk-shaped area and is found in rodents and rabbits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The control of color changes in the pigment of cells of reptiles, fish and amphibians is associated with which hormone?

A

MSH; Melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH) is associated with control of color changes in the pigment cells of reptile, fish, and amphibians. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) stimulates the growth and development in the ovary that was started by FSH. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) stimulates the growth and development of the thyroid gand and causes it to produce hormones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The wave on an electrocardiogram that is associated with the atrial wall depolarization is the :

A

P wave; The electrocardiogram measures the electrical current using metal electrodes attached to the skin in which the electrical current causes the stylus to move, creating a graph. When the SA node generates an electrical impulse and the impulse spreads across the atria, the stylus is deflected from the resting position, creating a bump on the graph. This bump is associated with the depolarization of the atria and is called the P wave.

The following waves on the graph are created by ventricular depolarization known as the QRS complex followed by repolarization of the ventricles known as the T wave. The PR interval is the time from the onset of the Pwave to the start of the QRS complex.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The SA node is located in the wall of which chamber?

A

Right atrium; The impulse for a heartbeat comes from the sinoatrial node (SA node), which is located within the wall of the right atrium of the heart. The signal is initiated by the SA node and then spreads to the rest of the atrial myocardium and to the AV node.

The left atrium receives oxygenated blood from the lungs and pumps it into the left ventricle by means of the mitral valve. The right ventricle receives deoxygenated blood from the right atrium by means of the tricuspid valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The muscular sphincter located between the stomach and the duodenum is the :

A

Pylorus; In animals the monogastric stomach is divided into five different areas. The pylorus is the muscular sphincter that regulates the movement of digested stomach contents, known as chyme, from the stomach into the duodenum. The cardia immediately surrounds the opening from the esophagus into the stomach. Rugae are multiple long folds located in the stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The type of cell responsible for the transmission of impulses through the nervous system is the :

A

Neuron; Neurons are the nerve cells that are the basic, functional units of the nervous system and are responsible for conducting impulses from one part of the cell to another. Neuroglia cells support and protect the neurons. Schwann cells are glial cells associated with the peripheral nerves whose cellular membrane forms the myelin sheath for axons in the PNS. Oligodendrocytes are glial cells in the brain and spinal cord whose cellular membrane forms the myelin sheath for axons in the CNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Dogs demonstrate what type of estrous cycles?

A

Diestrus; Dogs are considered to have diestrus cycles because they only cycle twice per year in the spring and fall. Polyestrus animals cycle continuously throughout the year. Seasonally, polyestrus animals cycle continuously at certain times of the year and not at all during others. Monoestrus animals only cycle once per year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which system is anatomically composed of the brain and spinal cord?

A

Centeral Nervous System; The nervous system can be anatomically divided into two different components, the central nervous system and peripheral nervous system. The central nervous system is anatomically composed of the brain and the spinal cord. The peripheral nervous system is made up of components of the nervous system that extend away from the central axis outward, toward the periphery of the body. The parasympathe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Functions that an animals does not have to control consciously, such as peristalsis in the intestine, are influenced by the :

A

Autonomic nervous system; The GI tract functions under unconscious control of the parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems, which are a division of the autonomic nervous system. The sympathetic nervous system can control the blood supply to the GI tract, whereas the parasympathetic nervous system controls the digestion and absorption of nutrients in the GI tract. The somatic nervous system provides conscious, voluntary control of the skeletal muscles. The central nervous system is composded of the brain and spinal cord, whereas the peripheral nervous system extends away from the central axis toward the periphery of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The cranial nerves and the spinal nerves are anatomically part of what system

A

Peripheral nervous system; The peripheral nervous system (PNS) is made up of components of the nervous system that extend away from the central axis outward, toward the periphery of the body. Cranial nerves are

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Sensory nerves are considered:

A

Sensory nerves are also known as afferent nerves because they carry sensations from the skin and other locations toward the central nervous system. Efferent nerves conduct impulses away from the CNS. Efferent nerves are also known as motor nerves or efferent motor nerves because they are responsible for sending impulses to the skeletal muscles, causing muscle contraction and movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

When a stimulus is stronged enough to cause completes depolarization, it has reached:

A

Threshold; an initial stimulus must be sufficient to make the neuron respond, and when the stimulus is strong enough to cause complete depolarization, it has reached threshold. Repolarization is the change of a cell’s charge back toward the net negative resting membrane potential. When a neuron is in the refractory period it is insensitive to new stimuli until it recovers from the previous nerve impulse. Action potential is a strong influx of sodium ions during depolarization, which results in a significant change in electrical charge from negative to positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What happens within the neuron that allows local anesthetics to be effective?

A

Sodium channels become blocked; local anesthetics prevent sensory nerves from depolarizing despite the painful stimulation. If these sensory nerves do not depolarize, the brain is unaware of an sensation occuring in that are of the body. Local anesthetics prevent the sensory neuron from depolarizin gby blocking the sodium channels preventing sodium from traveling inside the neuronal cell. If the sodium channels are blocked, this results in no positive charge to flow within the neuron, the charge remains negative, and threshold is not obtained. Potassium gates open when repolarization occurs, which results in a net negative charge inside the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Smooth muscles can be found in the:

A

Smooth muscles are found all over the body in places such as the stomach, intestines, urinary bladder, blod vessels, reproductive tract, and eyes. Cardiac muscles are striated muscles. Pelvic limb consists of skeletal muscles that aid in movement of the bones of the skeleton. Voluntary striated skeletal muscles are in charge of breathing, swallowing, and posture, and may be found in the diaphragm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which muscle cells have single nuclei?

A

Both smooth and cardiac muscles contain single nuclei, whereas skeletal muscles contain multiple nuclei

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Cattle and swine display what type of estrous cycle?

A

Polyestrus; cattle and swine have polyestrus cycles because they cycle continuously throughout the year if they are not pregnant; as soon as one cycle ends, another begins. Seasonally polyestrous is an estrous cycle that occurs at certain times of the year. Diestrous cycles are animals that have two cycles per year. Monoestrous animals cycle only once per year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which species is an induced ovulator?

A

Cats, ferrets and rabbits only ovulate when breeding occurs. These animals are known as induced ovulators because they remain in a prolonged state of estrous if they are not bred. For bovine, equine, and canine animals ovulation occurs near the end of estrus regardless of being bred

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

In which stage of the estrous cycle does the corpus luteum develop?

A

Metestrus; Metestrus is the period after ovulation and is the stage of the estrous cycle when the corpus luteum develops. The corpus luteum is a solid struction that results when the granulosa cells left in the empty follicle multiply. Proestrus is the period of follicular development in the ovary. Estrus is the heat period or the period of sexual receptivity in the female. Diestrus is the active, luteal stage, when the corpus luteum has reached maximum size and exerts its maximum effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which reaction is the result of sympathetic nervous system stimulation?

A

Dilated pupils; pupil dilation results from sympathetic system stimulation. The heart rate decreases as a result of parasympathetic nervous system stimulation. Decreased GI motility results from sympathetic system stimulation. Bronchodilations result from sympathetic system stimulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The hormone produced by a developing ovarian follicle is:

A

Estrogen; the hormones produced in the ovaries fall into two categories: estrogen and prgestins. The cell of developing ovarian follicles produces estrogen. Progestins, or progesterone, are produced by the corpus luteum, which develops from the empty follicle after ovulation. Prolactin is produced by the anterior pituitary gland. Oxytocin is produced by the posterior pituitary gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

To achieve a normal pregnancy, the blastocyst attaches to what structure?

A

Edometrium; Implantation is the means by which the blastocyst makes itself a home by attaching itself to the lining of the uterus (endometrium). The placenta is a complex structure that begins to form as soon as the blastocyst implants into the uterus. Spermatozoa travel to the oviducts to prepare for capacitation before fertilization with the ovum. the cervix is located in the upper level of the vaginal canal and is the opening to the uterus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Giving birth is known as:

A

Parturition; parturition is the birth process. Gestation is the period and duration of pregnancy. Lactation is milk production by the mammary gland. Estrus is the heat period, which is the stage of the estrous cycle when the female is sexually receptive to the male, which will allow breeding to take place

30
Q

From the estrous cycle to parturition, in which order are the following hormones released?

A

Estrogen, progesterone, oxytocin; Estrogen is produced first by the developing ovarian follicles and prepares the animal for breeding and pregnancy. Progesterone comes next and is produced by the corpus luteum and prepares the uterus for implantation and maintains the pregnancy. Last, oxytocin causes contractions for parturition

31
Q

What is the chorian and the different types?

A

the area where the chorion attaches to the lining of the uterus is where the fetal and maternal blood vessels intertwine with each other. The exchange of nutrients and wastes takes place here, between the fetal and maternal bloodstreams. the type of attachement varies among species but can be categorized into one of four general types : diffuse, cotyledonary, zonary or discoid

32
Q

A pregnant bitch has what kind of placentation?

A

Zonary; Dogs and cats have zonary attachment, in which the placenta attaches to the uterus in a belt-shaped area that encircles the placenta. Cotyledonary is an attachment of numerous small, separate areas and found in ruminants. Diffuse attachements are sites that are spread diffusely over the whole surface of the placenta and the whole lining of the uterus and they are located between the placenta and they are found in horses and pigs. Discoid attachment is located between the placenta and uterus is single disk-shaped area and is found in humans, rabbits, and rodents

33
Q

The canine uterus is shaped like the letter:

A

Y; In common domestic animals, including canines, the uterus is Y shaped, with the uterine body forming the base of the Y and the two uterine horns forming the arms.

34
Q

How many mammary glands are typically found on a bitch?

A

8-12; the number of mammary glands varies but there are usually 10: four thoracic glands, four abdominal glands, and two inguinal glands. Pigs typically have 14 mammary glands, Cattle typically have 4 mammary glands.

35
Q

Which reaction is the result of parasympathetic nervous system stimulation?

A

Decreased heart rate; The heart rate decreases as a result of parasympathetic nervous system stimulation. Bronchodilation, Pupil dilation and decreased GI motility results from sympathetic system stimulation.

36
Q

The neurotransmitter that is most responsible for the flight or fight reaction is :

A

Epinephrine; epinephrine is released primarily from the adrenal medulla and plays more of a role as a hormone in the fight or flight reactions of the sympathetic nervous system. Acetylcholine is either an excitatory or an inhibitory neurotransmitter and stimulates muscle fibers to contract. This affects the heart rate. Dopamine is involved with automatic functions and muscle control. Serotonin is a neurotransmitter that is involved in the transmission of nerve impulses

37
Q

In the healthy heart, the heartbeat is initiated by the :

A

SA node; the impulse for a heartbeat comes from the sinoatrial node and is referred to as the pacemaker of the heart. Pukinje fibers are specialized fibers located in the ventricles and receive impulses from the AV nodes. The AV node initiates a signal that is conducted through the ventricular myocardium by way of the AV bundle of HIS and Purkinje fibers. The vagus nerve is a nerve of the parasympathetic nervous system that is involved in regulating GI motility and secretion

38
Q

On the electrocardiogram, the T wave is most closely associated with:

A

ventricular repolarization; The T wave on an electrocardiogram is associated with ventricular repolarization. The P wave is associated with atrial depolarization. The QRS complex is associated with ventricular depolarization

39
Q

On inspiration, the pressure in the thoracic cavity, compared with amibvent air pressure, is:

A

Negative; The pressure within the thorax is negative compared with atmospheric pressure. Without negative intrathoracic pressure, normal breathing cannot take place. On inspiration. air is pulled into the lungs and blown back out with expiration

40
Q

In the healthy awake cat, the primary stimulus within blood for respiration is:

A

Increased CO2; As the CO2 level in the blood rises, the pH of the blood goes down, indicating that the blood is becoming more acidic. If the chemical system detects a rise in the blood level of CO2 and a decrease in the blood pH, the respiratory center is triggered to increase the rate and depth of respiration so that more CO2 can be eliminated

41
Q

An increased packed cell volume (PCV) could be indicitive of :

A

Dehydration; The packed cell volume (PCV) can be used as a screening for dehydration, which causes polycythemia and hemoconcentration. A decrease in PCV is indicative of anemia. Leukocytosis is an increase in the number of white blood cells

42
Q

Apnea will cause

A

Respiratory acidosis; Apnea is the cessation of breathing for a period of time which will result in an increase in blood level of CO2 and a decrease in blood pH, resulting in respiratory acidosis. Respiratory alkalosis is a rise in pH and a decrease in CO2 because of hyperventilation. Metabolic acidosis results from the blood being too acidic. Metabolic alkalosis results from the blood being too alkaline

43
Q

Which of the following nutrients can be used for gluconeogenesis?

A

Amino acids; Gluconeogenesis is the production of glucose from amino acids, which occurs in the liver. Long-chain fatty acids help to build cell membrane structure, produce energy, or form nerve cells. Vitamin C helps the growth and repair of tissues in all parts of the body. Iron aids in many functions, such as helping muscle to store and use oxygen and is part of hemoglobin in the blood

44
Q

Cataracts result from a problem with transparancy of the :

A

Lens; A cataract is an abnormal condition of the eye whereby the lens becomes opaque. The lens of the eye normally has a transparent appearance and when a cataract is present the lens appears milky. The cornea is a transparent window that admits light to the interior of the eye, which cosists of an orderly arrangement of collagen fibers and contains no blood vessels. Vitreous humor is the clear gelatinous fluid within the vitreous compartment located behind the lens and ciliary body. Aqueous humor is a clear watery fluid withing the aqeuous compartement located in front of the lens and ciliary body

45
Q

Within the eye, the choroid is located between which two structures?

A

sclera and retina; The choroid is located between the sclera and retina. It consists mainly of pigment and blood vessels that supply blood to the retina. The iris is located toward the front of the eye, lies in the middle vascular layer, and is the colored part of the eye. The pupil is centered withing the iris of the eye and is controlled by the iris. The cornea is the outer fibrous layer and is the transparent window that admits light to the interior. The optic nerve is located in the back of the eye and carries visual information to the brain. The fovea centralis is located in the center of the retina in humans and is not part of the animal anatomy

46
Q

Which of the following are considered to be a category of lipids

A

Neutral fats, steroids, phospholipids (all of the above); Lipids are organic molecules that are soluble in other lipids and in organic solvents and can be divided into four major categories: neutral fats, phospholipids, steriods, and other lipoid substances

47
Q

What processes are a function of insulin?***

A

Increased blood pressure; The hormone insulin is essential for life and causes glucose, amino acids, and fatty acids in the bloodstream to be absorbed through cell membranes into body cells and it is used for energy. Increased blood pressure is not a function of insulin

48
Q

Which endocrince cells of the pancreatic islets produce the hormone glucagon?

A

Alpha cells; The main endocrine cells of the pancreatic islets are alpha cells, which produce glucagon. Beta cells produce insulin. Delta cells produce soatostatin

49
Q

Long-term use of glucocorticoids will:

A

Suppress the immune system; Glucocorticoid drugs are commonly used for their anti-inflammatory effect and can mimic the natural glucocorticoid hormones but can mimic the following long-term effects: suppression of the immune response because it can lower an animal’s defenses and make it more susceptible to infection; white blood cell count alteration because neutrophil numbers increase and lymphocyte, eosinophil, and monocyte numbers decrease; premature parturition; hyperglycemia; suppression of the adrenal cortex stimulation; catabolic effects; slowing of wound healing; and iatrogenic hyperadrenocorticism

50
Q

Nociceptors are important for detecting:

A

Pain; Nociceptors are also known as pain receptors and are the most common and widely distributed sensory receptor inside the body and on its surface. Their purpose is to protect the body from damage by alerting the CNS to potentially harmful stimuli. Color, warmth, and lactic acid do not fall under the categories of harmful stimuli

51
Q

The sensation of hunger falls under which general sense?

A

Visceral sensation; Visceral sensations include interior body sensations such as hunger, thirst, and full urinary bladder. Tactile sensations include touch and pressure sensation to the outside of the body. Proprioception is the sense of the body position and movement

52
Q

The vagus nerve is cranial nerve ___?

A

X; The vagus nerve is classified as nerve X out of XII cranial nerves

53
Q

The cranial nerves originate from the :

A

Brainstem; The brainstem’s role is to maintain the basic support functions of the body and many of the cranial nerves originate from here. The cerebellum is located caudal to the cerebrum and allows the body to have coordinated movement, balance, posture, and complex reflexes. The spinal cord is the caudal continuation of the brainstem outside the skull and conducts sensory information and motor instructions between the brain and periphery of the body. The cerebrum is made up of gray matter of the cerebral cortex and white matter fibers beneath the cortex, including the corpus callosum, and constitutes functions of highter order behaviors

54
Q

Glaucoma is:

A

Increased pressure in the anterior chamber of the eye; Glaucoma is characterized as a group of diseases that cause increased intraocular pressure within the anterior chamber of the eye. Glaucoma results when there is insufficient drainage of aqueous humor, rather than overproduction, within the anterior chamber, which leads to the increased internal pressure

55
Q

Aqueous humor is formed in which chamber of the eye?

A

Posterior chamber; Aqueous humor is formed in the posterior chamber of the eye by cells of the ciliary body. It slowly circulates through the pupil into the anterior chamber and is drained by the canal of Schelmm. The cornea is the front surface of the eye that provides a transparent window to the inside of the eye

56
Q

Clients should be cautioned against sticking Q-tips in the ears of their pets because they could rupture the :

A

Tympanic membrane; The tympanic membrane is commonly referred to as the eardrum and is a paper-thin tissue membrane that is stretched across the opening between the external auditory canal and the middle ear cavitt. The oval window and round window are parts of the inner ear structure and are located behind the tympanic membrane at the base of the cochlea. The cochlea is part of the inner ear located behind the tympanic membrane and is contained in a spiral cavity shaped like a snail shell in the temporal bone and is the hearing portion of the inner ear

57
Q

Which condition would be typical of hypothyroism?

A

Weight gain; Hypothyroidism results from a deficiency of thyroid hormone. Common clinical signs of hypothryoidism are weight gain, reluctance to exercise, lethargy, dry skin, alopecia, and increased appetite. Excessive water consumption is not associated with hypothyroidism

58
Q

In dairy cattle, the teats and udder are gently washed before milking to stimulate milk letdown by releasing what hormone?

A

Oxytocin; Milk letdown is the immediate effect of nursing or milking. When nursing or milking occurs, sensory nerve impulses are sent to the brain in which the hypothalamus stimulates the anterior pituitary gland to produce the hormones necessary to maintain lactation. The hypothalamus releases oxytocin from the posterior pituitary gland, which travels to the mammary gland and causes muscle-like myoepithelial cells around the alveoli and small ducts to contract and squeeze milk down into the large ducts and sinuses. Adrenalin, norepinephrine, and dopamine are not associated with milk letdown

59
Q

Which hormone helps to trigger and maintain lactation?

A

Prolactin; prolactin helps to trigger and maintain lactation. After lactation has begun, prolactin production and release by the anterior pituitary gland continue as long as the teat or nipple continues to be stimulated by nursing or milking. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) stimulates the growth and development of follicles in the ovaries. Luteinizing hormone (LH) completes the process of follicle development in the ovary that was started by FSH. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) stimulates the growth and development of the thyroid gland and causes it to produce its hormones

60
Q

Lymph nodes that are found medial to the caudal part of the jaw are the :

A

Mandibular nodes; Mandibular lymph nodes are located behind each side of the jaw in the neck region and drain the nasal cavity, mouth, and pharynx. Popliteal nodes are located posterior to the knee. Ingunial nodes are located in the groin area. Prescapular nodes are located in front of the scapular region

61
Q

A pregnant rodent has what kind of placentation?

A

Discoid; Discoid attachment is located between the placenta and uterus is a single diske-shaped area and is found in rodents and rabbits. Dogs and cats have zonary attachments that the placenta attaches to the uterus in a belt-shaped area that encircles the placenta. Cotyledonary is an attachment of numerous small, separate areas and found in ruminants. Diffuese attachment sites that are spread diffusely over the whole suface of the placenta and the whole lining of the uterus are found in horses and pigs

62
Q

The neurohypophysis is an anatomic section of which of ?

A

Hypothalamus; The pituitary gland contains two sections, the anterior pituitary and the posterior pituitary. The caudal portion of the pituitary gland is called the posterior pituitary or the neurophypophysis. The hypothalamus is part of the diencephalon of the brain. The adrenal gland is located near the cranial ends of the kidneys and contains the adrenal cortex and adrenal medulla. the pancreas is a long, flat, abdominal organ near the duodenum

63
Q

What is the function of the portal vein?

A

delivers blood to the liver; blood flows directly to the liver via the hepatic portal vein. The spleen acts as storage for excess blood. Kidneys receive their blood via the renal arteries attached to the aorta. Blood travels from the heart to the lungs to become oxygenated before being circulated through the rest of the body.

64
Q

To proceed from a point between the eyes to the tip of a dog’s nose, you would move

A

Rostrally; Using anatomical directional terms. movement from a point between the eyes to the tip of the dog’s nose would be known as moving rostrally. Movement cranially is any movement toward the animal’s head. Movement caudally is any movement toward the animal’s tail. Movement laterally is any movement away from the median plane

65
Q

Typically, what percentage of an animal’s body weight consists of blood?

A

8%; On average blood makes up between 6-8% of an animal’s total lean body weight

66
Q

A dog that weighs 10 kg would have approximately how much blood?

A

880 ml; A dog that weighs 10kg (22lb) would have approximately 88-ml of total blood volume. 22 lb x 8% = 1.76 lbs. 1pt H2O = 1 lb. 1.76 lb = 1.76 pt. 2 pt = 1 qt. then 1.76 pt x 2 = 0.88 pt or 0.88 L. By converting L to ml, this animal has a blood volume of 880 ml

67
Q

Which of the following dissections could be made without cutting through a bone-to-bone joint?

A

forelimb from the body; In common domestic animals, the thoracic limb has no direct, bony connection with the axial skeleton. The forelegs support the weight of the body by a sling-like arrangement of muscles and tendons; therefore, and incision can be made in this location without cutting through a bone-to-bone joint. the hind/pelvic limb is directly connected to the axial skeleton through the sacroliliac joint. The vertrbral column is made up of a series of individual irregular bone called vertebrae that extend from the skull to the tip of the tail. The tail is a continuance of the spinal column

68
Q

If you were to grasp your hands behind your head at the base of your skull, your hands would be over which bone of the skull?

A

Occipital; The occipital bone is a single bone that forms the caudoventral portion or base of the skull. The frontal bone forms the forehead region of the skull. the temporal bones are located below or ventral to the parietal bones. The parietal bones form the dorsolateral walls of the cranium

69
Q

The glucose absorbed from the GI tract may be stored in the liver as glycogen through a process known as?

A

glycogenesis; Glycogenesis is the process of glucose absorbed from the GI tract stored in the liver as glycogen. Gluconeogenesis is the process of glucose being made in the liver from amino acids. Glycogenolysis is the breakdown of glycogen by the liver back into glucose and moved to the blood. Fatty acid synthesis is the initial process of converting glucose into fat

70
Q

The process of voice productin usually begins in which location?

A

Larynx; Voice production is called phonation and it typically begins in the larynx, also known as the voice box. Other structures such as the thorax, nose, mouth, pharynx, and sinuses may contribute resonance and other characteristics to the vocal cords