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A+ Mid-term > A+ Mid-Term (Multiple Choice) > Flashcards

A+ Mid-Term (Multiple Choice) Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which type of port transmits both digital audio and digital video with a single connector?

a. S-Video
b. DVI
c. HDMI
d. VGA

A

HDMI

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2
Q
  1. Which of the following is an audio port that connects to an external home theater audio system, providing digital audio output?

a. S/PDIF
b. FireWire
c. Thunderbolt
d. eSATA

A

S/PDIF

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3
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT true of a motherboard?

a. also called a system board
b. has a CPU socket
c. has a heat sink on the PCIe slots
d. has slots for DIMMs

A

has a heat sink on the PCIe slots

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4
Q
  1. Which component probably has a dual-voltage selector switch, and has cables that connect to the motherboard and drives?

a. HDD
b. PSU
c. DIMM
d. PCIe

A

PSU

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5
Q
  1. Which is the most common form factor used today for computer cases, power supplies, and motherboards?

a. AT
b. ATX
c. ATC
d. ATI

A

ATX

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6
Q
  1. If you have a PCI Express Version 2 video card, how many pins will the power connector have if the card requires extra power?

a. 4
b. 2
c. 5
d. 8

A

8

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7
Q
  1. Which standard provides the best performance for hard drives?

a. SATA
b. PATA
c. IDE
d. EIDE

A

SATA

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8
Q
  1. Which disk drive standard uses an 80-conductor cable?

a. SATA
b. IDE
c. EIDE
d. DVD

A

EIDE

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9
Q
  1. Which unit of electricity measures electrical force and 115 is a common value?

a. Amp
b. Ohm
c. Volt
d. Watt

A

Volt

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10
Q
  1. Which of the following is true about AC electricity?

a. in the U.S. it oscillates at 120 Hz
b. it travels from a hot line and returns on a neutral line
c. it always takes the path of highest resistance
d. the hot line is always grounded

A

it travels from a hot line and returns on a neutral line

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11
Q
  1. Which of the following is true about an FRU?

a. they are not necessary for the computer’s operation
b. all types can be easily disposed of in any trash can
c. it’s easily repaired by a support technician
d. a support technician should know how to replace one

A

a support technician should know how to replace one

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12
Q
  1. What is a result of two objects with dissimilar electrical charges touching?

a. LCD
b. ESD
c. EMI
d. CRT

A

ESD

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13
Q
  1. What tool can help discover and report computer errors and conflicts that occur when you first turn on a computer and before the operating system is launched?

a. POSTcard
b. ROM module
c. BIOS memory
d. CMOS firmware

A

POSTcard

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14
Q
  1. Which general-purpose tool can measure characteristics of electricity in a variety of devices?

a. loopback plug
b. POSTcard
c. multimeter
d. cable tester

A

multimeter

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15
Q
  1. Which of the following is the second step in opening the case of a working computer?

a. press and hold down the power button for a moment
b. back up important data
c. power down the system and unplug it
d. open the case cover

A

power down the system and unplug it

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16
Q
  1. To what should you normally clip the ground bracelet before you work inside the computer case?

a. the grounding plug on the power cord
b. an AC outlet
c. the side of the computer case
d. the top of the power supply

A

the side of the computer case

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17
Q
  1. What do you call a connector on a motherboard that consists of pins that stick up from the board?

a. jumper
b. socket
c. pm array
d. header

A

header

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18
Q
  1. Which of the following can be described as round plastic or metal pegs that separate the motherboard from the bottom of the case?

a. header
b. standoff
c. insulator
d. elevator

A

standoff

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19
Q
  1. Which of the following is true about installing the motherboard and connecting power?

a. there are typically three screw sets that hold the motherboard to the case
b. you can use an adapter to convert two 6-pin connectors to a PCIe connector
c. the P1 connector is used for PCIe devices
d. a 4-pin power cord supplies supplemental power to the processor

A

a 4-pin power cord supplies supplemental power to the processor

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20
Q
  1. Which of the following is the Intel maximum degree limit for processors?

a. 185 F
b. 155 c
c. 90 F
d. 32 c

A

185 F

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21
Q
  1. Which material is a cooler that sits atop the CPU most likely made of?

a. brass
b. copper
c. steel
d. lead

A

copper

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22
Q
  1. What is placed between the bottom of the cooler heat sink and the top of the processor that makes an airtight connection between the fan and processor?

a. fan shield
b. metal fins
c. high-density oil
d. thermal compound

A

thermal compound

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23
Q

23 . Along with the processor, what other device is the highest heat producer in the system?

a. BIOS chip
b. video card
c. disk controller
d. riser card

A

video card

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24
Q
  1. Under what circumstance is a liquid cooling system most likely used?

a. overclocking
b. dual-core processing
c. multiple hard disks installed
d. onboard graphics controller

A

overclocking

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25
Q
  1. If your computer is in a dirty, dusty environment, what tool should you use periodically to prevent overheating?

a. all-purpose cleaner
b. chip extractor
c. compressed air
d. wet cloth

A

compressed air

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26
Q
  1. What determines the physical size of a power supply and the placement of screw holes?

a. wattage rating
b. manufacturer
c. form factor
d. number of connectors

A

form factor

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27
Q
  1. Which of the following is true about fans in the computer system?

a. they are not found in the power supply case
b. larger fans tend to run quieter
c. they’re usually not needed if your room is cool enough
d. they always run at a fixed speed

A

larger fans tend to run quieter

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28
Q
  1. Which of the following is a consideration when purchasing a power supply with the correct wattage?

a. DIMMs draw the most power
b. motherboards with CPU tend to draw about the same as a SATA drive
c. fans draw as much power as a video card
d. the power supply should be rated 30% higher than your needs

A

the power supply should be rated 30% higher than your needs

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29
Q
  1. What is the result of using a 3-pin fan connector on a 4-pin header on the motherboard?

a. the fan will not operate at all
b. the fan runs at half speed
c. the fan speed cannot be controlled
d. you will not be able to connect the fan connector

A

the fan speed cannot be controlled

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30
Q
  1. What does a small triangle embedded on a connector signify?

a. use caution when using the connector
b. the wire nearest the triangle is pin 1
c. the pin near the triangle should be matched with a circular pin
d. the connector is optional and need not be attached

A

the wire nearest the triangle is pin 1

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31
Q
  1. Which Windows utility program lists errors and issues that need attention?

a. Action Center
b. Control Panel
c. System Information Windows
d. Network and Sharing Center

A

Action Center

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32
Q
  1. Windows 7 and Vista provides a new 3D user interface called the _____ user interface.

a. Glass
b. Aero
c. Air
d. Shield

A

Aero

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33
Q
  1. Which part of the path to a file indicates how the file is organized or formatted?

a. subdirectory
b. filename
c. root directory
d. file extension

A

file extension

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34
Q
  1. What is another name for the notification area in Windows?

a. system tray
b. taskbar
c. Control Panel
d. Start Menu

A

system tray

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35
Q
  1. A _____ is a convenient way to access several folders in different locations from one central location.

a. directory
b. library
c. root directory
d. setting

A

library

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36
Q
  1. Which edition of Windows 7 only offers the 32-bit version?

a. Starter
b. Home Premium
c. Enterprise
d. Ultimate

A

Starter

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37
Q
  1. The _____ is usually on the right side of the taskbar and displays open services.

a. status tray
b. display area
c. system tray
d. identification area

A

system tray

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38
Q
  1. What is another name for several small utility programs that are found in the Control Panel?

a. downloads
b. system processes
c. categories
d. applets

A

applets

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39
Q
  1. A _____ is one or more characters following the last period in a filename, such as .exe, .txt, or .avi.

a. filename
b. file extension
c. file version
d. file type

A

file extension

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40
Q
  1. The _____ dialog box in Windows appears each time a user attempts to perform an action that can be done only with administrative privileges.

a. User Account Confirmation
b. User Account Control
c. User Access Control
d. User Access Confirmation

A

User Account Control

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41
Q
  1. Which Intel CPU socket is discontinued?

a. Socket 478
b. LGA1155
c. LGA2011
d. Socket H

A

Socket 478

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42
Q
  1. Which socket type is soldered to the motherboard, along with the CPU?

a. SPGA
b. FCLGA
c. BGA
d. PGA

A

BGA

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43
Q

43 . What type of socket ensures that even force is applied to the processor when it is being installed in the socket?

a. ZIF
b. FM2
c. LM
d. AM3

A

m

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44
Q
  1. What was the 64-bit Front Side Bus replaced with in the X58 (Nehalem) chipset?

a. FSB
b. PCIe
c. QPI
d. ICH

A

QPI

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45
Q
  1. Which of the following is a technology that allows for multiple video cards to work together in one system?

a. Nehalem
b. CrossFire
c. Firewire
d. eSATA

A

CrossFire

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46
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT true about Ivy Bridge chipsets compared to earlier products?

a. use more power
b. higher density transistors
c. better performance
d. released in 2012

A

use more power

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47
Q
  1. What unit is used to measure the frequency of memory, FSB, and the processor?

a. bps
b. mph
c. Hz
d. MIPS

A

Hz

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48
Q
  1. What was the AGP bus designed specifically for?

a. CPU sockets
b. disk controllers
c. memory slots
d. video cards

A

video cards

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49
Q
  1. What type of bus does PCI Express use?

a. serial
b. virtual
c. parallel
d. logical

A

serial

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50
Q
  1. Where do today’s computers store almost all motherboard configuration data?

a. BIOS ROM
b. CMOS RAM
c. DIMM RAM
d. Solid State Disk

A

CMOS RAM

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51
Q
  1. If you need to reset the BIOS password on a motherboard and the instructions say to make sure jumper J1 is open, what should you do?

a. start the computer and enter BIOS setup mode
b. open the case and remove the cover from a set of pins marked J1
c. boot Windows and start the BIOS mode password reset utility; choose option J1
d. unplug the computer and install the loop back connector from the port labeled J1

A

open the case and remove the cover from a set of pins marked J1

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52
Q
  1. Which of the following represents a method for accessing the BIOS setup program?

a. boot Windows and go to Control Panel
b. set a motherboard jumper and start the computer
c. press a key during the BIOS POST
d. boot to the BIOS setup floppy disk

A

press a key during the BIOS POST

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53
Q
  1. Which of the following is a setting you can configure from the BIOS setup program?

a. disable a Windows driver
b. set the desktop background
c. configure the screen saver timeout
d. change the boot sequence

A

change the boot sequence

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54
Q
  1. What should you do if you want to be able locate your laptop in the event of loss or theft and give it a command through the Internet to lock it or delete data?

a. set a BIOS No Access password
b. subscribe to LoJack for Laptops
c. enable the GPS module in the BIOS
d. install a high-power WiFi card

A

subscribe to LoJack for Laptops

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55
Q
  1. What must your motherboard have to use BitLocker Encryption in Windows 7 which will ensure that your hard drive cannot be used in another computer?

a. TPM chip
b. CMOS RAM
c. BIOS password
d. Encrypted USB port

A

TPM chip

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56
Q
  1. What is a possible remedy if your system hangs at odd time or during the boot?

a. install new CMOS RAM
b. remove the TPM chip
c. flash the BIOS
d. format the hard disk

A

flash the BIOS

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57
Q
  1. At what point during the motherboard installation should you install the motherboard drivers?

a. after Windows successfully boots
b. before applying power for the first time
c. after the POST successfully completes
d. only if you get a blue screen of death when Windows boots

A

after Windows successfully boots

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58
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a feature of a processor?

a. clock speed
b. processor architecture
c. amount of CMOS
d. multi-core processing

A

amount of CMOS

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59
Q
  1. What is the general name of the processor feature that AMD calls HyperTransport?

a. multi-core processing
b. multithreading
c. virtualization support
d. integrated graphics

A

multithreading

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60
Q
  1. Which type of processor memory is located on the processor chip (processor die)?

a. Level 0 cache
b. Level 1 cache
c. Level 2 cache
d. Level 3 cache

A

Level 1 cache

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61
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a component of a processor?

a. device driver
b. control unit
c. registers
d. memory caches

A

device driver

62
Q
  1. What is the most likely result of a correctly installed processor, but an incorrectly installed cooler?

a. powers on, but nothing else happens
b. boot process begins, but system suddenly turns off after a short period
c. system does not power on at all
d. BIOS setup does not recognize the processor correctly

A

boot process begins, but system suddenly turns off after a short period

63
Q

63 . Which type of memory is the main memory installed as DIMMs on a motherboard?

a. SRAM
b. CMOS RAM
c. DRAM
d. Flash RAM

A

DRAM

64
Q
  1. Which type of memory can support quad, triple, and dual channels?

a. DDR3
b. DDR2
c. DDR
d. RIMM

A

DDR3

65
Q
  1. What unit of measurement is used for DIMM read and write times?

a. milliseconds
b. microseconds
c. nanoseconds
d. picoseconds

A

nanoseconds

66
Q
  1. Which of the following is true about DIMM technologies?

a. DDR2 uses 184 pins
b. DDR3 is backward compatible with DDR2
c. SDRAM runs synchronized with the system clock
d. the S in SDRAM stands for static

A

SDRAM runs synchronized with the system clock

67
Q
  1. Which of the following is true about DIMM slots?

a. color coding is used to identify the channel
b. DDR2 and DDR3 support triple channels
c. DDR only supports a single channel
d. a DDR3 DIMM allows access to four memory chips simultaneously on each DIMM

A

color coding is used to identify the channel

68
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is NOT true when setting up dual channeling?

a. a pair in a channel must be equally matched in size, speed and features
b. if two DIMM slots do not have matching pairs, single-channeling will be used
c. each channel runs independently of the other channel
d. if you have two pairs installed in two channels, all four DIMMs must match

A

if you have two pairs installed in two channels, all four DIMMs must match

69
Q
  1. What is the transfer rate of a 64-bit module running at 1600 MHz?

a. 1600MB/second
b. 3200MB/second
c. 6400MB/second
d. 12800 MB/second

A

12800 MB/second

70
Q
  1. DIMMs used in servers can provide additional reliability if they use which of the following technologies?

a. EDO
b. dual ranked
c. ECC
d. PC3

A

ECC

71
Q
  1. A DIMM that holds data and amplifies a signal before the data is written to the module uses which technology?

a. EDO
b. registers
c. parity
d. CAS

A

registers

72
Q
  1. What technology in a DIMM informs the BIOS of the module’s size, speed, voltage, and data path width?

a. SPD
b. ECC
c. Buffers
d. DDR

A

SPD

73
Q
  1. Which of the following memory configurations definitely will not work when populating a motherboard with DIMMs?

a. using two different manufacturer’s memory
b. mixing memory speeds
c. leaving a slot unpopulated
d. mixing unbuffered with registered

A

mixing unbuffered with registered

74
Q
  1. Which process writes sector markings to a hard drive?

a. partitioning
b. low-level formatting
c. high-level formatting
d. sector provisioning

A

low-level formatting

75
Q
  1. Which hard drive technology is used to predict when a drive is likely to fail?

a. S.S.D.
b. S.M.A.R.T.
c. N.A.N.D.
d. E.E.P.R.O.M.

A

S.M.A.R.T.

76
Q
  1. Which of the following is true about disk drive interfaces?

a. PATA allows for two connectors on a motherboard
b. SATA is the older and slower technology
c. four IDE drives can be connected to a single 80-pin data cable
d. the AT API standard was developed for optical SATA drives

A

PATA allows for two connectors on a motherboard

77
Q
  1. Which type of cable is required by ATA/66 and above?

a. 40 pins, 66 wires
b. 80 pins, 40 wires
c. 66 pins, 40 wires
d. 40 pins, 80 wires

A

40 pins, 80 wires

78
Q
  1. Why is DMA a better transfer mode than PIO for PATA drives?

a. DMA has direct access to the CPU
b. The DMA bus is faster than the PIO bus
c. DMA data transfers don’t involve the CPU
d. DMA drives cost less than PIO drives

A

DMA data transfers don’t involve the CPU

79
Q
  1. Which of the following is true about SCSI drives?

a. SCSI ID 7 has a higher priority than SCSI ID 10
b. each logical device requires a unique SCSI ID
c. one end of the SCSI chain needs a terminator
d. SCSI devices are typically found in SOHO servers and desktops

A

SCSI ID 7 has a higher priority than SCSI ID 10

80
Q
  1. What should you keep in mind when installing hard drives?

a. PATA and SATA won’t be found on the same motherboard
b. jumpers on SATA drives determine the primary and secondary drive
c. a PATA drive has master and slave settings
d. you need to connect power to both connectors on SATA drives

A

a PATA drive has master and slave settings

81
Q
  1. If you are adding a hard drive to a system that already has a drive with Windows installed on it, which of the following is true?

a. you should boot from the Windows setup DVD to prepare the new drive
b. boot Windows and use Disk Management to prepare the new drive
c. use the BIOS setup screen to partition and format the new drive
d. the new hard drive must use the same standard as the Windows drive

A

boot Windows and use Disk Management to prepare the new drive

82
Q
  1. Which is true about installing a PATA drive?

a. each IDE channel supports a single drive
b. a motherboard can support up to four EIDE devices
c. each IDE cable has four connectors for drives
d. you need to set the jumpers to Master when you have only one drive

A

a motherboard can support up to four EIDE devices

83
Q
  1. Why might you want to use a RAID 0 disk configuration?

a. to improve overall disk performance
b. RAID 0 drives are less expensive than other RAID drives
c. to prevent data loss in case of a drive failure
d. because RAID 0 provides an automatic disk backup

A

to improve overall disk performance

84
Q
  1. Which of the following best describes RAID 5?

a. data from one drive is mirrored to another
b. it improves performance but not fault tolerance
c. it requires 3 or more drives and uses parity checking
d. it takes at least four disks and data is striped and mirrored

A

it requires 3 or more drives and uses parity checking

85
Q
  1. Which of the following is true about hardware RAID?

a. Microsoft recommends only using software RAID for the Windows volume
b. it’s best to install Windows first and then create the RAID array
c. you can only create a RAID 0 or a RAID 5 with hardware RAID
d. RAID controllers have their own BIOS

A

RAID controllers have their own BIOS

86
Q
  1. How much data does a 3.5” floppy disk drive hold?

a. 144 KB
b. 1.44MB
c. 14.4GB
d. 1440MB

A

1.44MB

87
Q
  1. What does a twist in a 34-pin data cable mean?

a. it indicates drive A:
b. the cable has been damaged
c. it should be connected to the primary IDE drive
d. it is used for USB floppy

A

it indicates drive A:

88
Q
  1. Which type of OS should you install for best performance when you have enough RAM?

a. 8 bit
b. 16 bit
c. 32 bit
d. 64 bit

A

64 bit

89
Q
  1. What is it called when software is used to simulate the hardware of a physical computer?

a. dual boot
b. Windows XP mode
c. virtual machine
d. compatibility mode

A

virtual machine

90
Q
  1. A _____ boot allows you to install the new OS without disturbing the old one so you can boot to either OS.

a. dual
b. cross
c. controlled
d. selective

A

dual

91
Q
  1. What type of installation should you perform if you want to install a 64-bit version of Windows on a computer that already has a 32-bit OS installed?

a. clean install
b. dual boot
c. in-place upgrade
d. standard

A

clean install

92
Q
  1. What is the name of the directory database that controls access to a Windows Server domain?

a. Network ID Directory
b. Windows Server Controller
c. Active Directory
d. User Account Database

A

Active Directory

93
Q
  1. Where should a user disable virus protection settings that might prevent the boot area of the hard drive from being altered?

a. Control Panel
b. BIOS setup
c. Device Manager
d. Computer

A

BIOS setup

94
Q
  1. Which network location option means that Network Discovery is turned off and you cannot join a HomeGroup or domain?

a. workgroup
b. home network
c. work network
d. public network

A

public network

95
Q
  1. For some brand-name computers, the hard drive contains a _____ partition that can be used to reinstall Windows.

a. hidden resolution
b. hidden recovery
c. visible recovery
d. visible rebuild

A

hidden recovery

96
Q
  1. The _____ is used to change motherboard settings, finds a boot device, and contains instructions for running essential hardware before an OS is started.

a. kernel
b. device driver
c. BIOS
d. system drive

A

BIOS

97
Q
  1. In a Windows domain, where is the centralized database kept?

a. domain controller
b. DNS server
c. DHCP server
d. client/server network

A

domain controller

98
Q
  1. In a Windows _____, each computer maintains a list of users and their rights on that particular computer.

a. domain
b. workgroup
c. task group
d. work unit

A

workgroup

99
Q
  1. A Windows domain is a type of _____ network, which is a network where resources are managed by a centralized computer.

a. time-sharing
b. virtual
c. server/server
d. client/server

A

client/server

100
Q
  1. What important information is needed if you are installing an OEM version of Windows 7?

a. installation code
b. Receipt of purchase
c. OEM license
d. product key

A

product key

101
Q
  1. Which of the following is a basic principle that applies to both internal and external devices?

a. when connecting a faster device to a slower port, the port adapts to the speed of the device
b. if you have multiple devices to install, it’s best to install them at the same time
c. for most installations, install the device first, then the device driver
d. some devices don’t require a software component for them to work properly

A

for most installations, install the device first, then the device driver

102
Q
  1. Which of the following is true about the USB standard and devices?

a. up to 64 USB devices can be daisy chained together
b. USB uses parallel data transmissions
c. a USB cable has four wires, two for power and two for communication
d. USB devices must supply their own power

A

a USB cable has four wires, two for power and two for communication

103
Q
  1. Which of the following is true about installing a new device?

a. a mouse may not require an additional device driver installation
b. Vista drivers never work with Windows 7
c. 32-bit drivers can be installed in a 64-bit OS
d. 64-bit drivers can be installed in a 32-bit OS

A

a mouse may not require an additional device driver installation

104
Q
  1. What happens when a flash memory card is installed in a slot and it is recognized by Windows?

a. a window appears prompting you to initialize the device
b. a drive letter is assigned to the device and you can see it in Explorer
c. Windows automatically partitions and formats the device
d. the files are copied from the device to your Documents folder

A

a drive letter is assigned to the device and you can see it in Explorer

105
Q
  1. Which type of expansion slot uses a retention mechanism to help stabilize a heavy card?

a. ISA
b. PCI
c. AGP
d. MGA

A

AGP

106
Q
  1. Which type of monitor withstands a lot of handling, use mercury, and take up the most desk space?

a. cathode-ray tube
b. liquid crystal display
c. plasma monitor
d. light-emitting diode

A

cathode-ray tube

107
Q
  1. Which type of video port provides a digital-only signal?

a. DVI-I
b. DVI-D
c. DVI-A
d. VGA

A

DVI-D

108
Q
  1. Which of the following is a requirement for supporting the Aero user interface?

a. at least 128 KB video memory
b. DirectX 9 or higher
c. an HDMI video port
d. Windows XP with SP3

A

DirectX 9 or higher

109
Q
  1. Which type of removable storage media can provide up to 2 TB of storage?

a. SD
b. SDHC
c. SDXC
d. CFII

A

SDXC

110
Q
  1. Which job role works in a lab environment and might not interact with users of the PCs being repaired?

a. Help-desk technician
b. Bench technician
c. PC service technician
d. PC support technician

A

Bench technician

111
Q
  1. Which job role works on site, closely interacting with users, and is responsible for ongoing PC maintenance?

a. PC support technician
b. PC service technician
c. Bench technician
d. Help-desk technician

A

PC support technician

112
Q
  1. Which of the following is true about the A+ 2012 certification and exams?

a. after you pass the 220-801 exam, you’re A+ certified
b. the A+ certification is not vendor specific
c. the exam is sponsored by Microsoft
d. you need to know about PC hardware, but PC software is covered in a different certification

A

the A+ certification is not vendor specific

113
Q
  1. Which of the following is defined as a record of a call for help with a computer problem?

a. token tracker
b. online help database
c. expert system
d. ticket

A

ticket

114
Q
  1. Which of the following is a good practice when working with a customer on site?

a. if a customer has a document on the screen, it’s okay to read it
b. limit use of your cell phone to work-related calls
c. since you are there to help, it’s okay to use the customer’s phone for important calls
d. inform the user that if you have to leave while they make a phone call, they will have to pay more

A

limit use of your cell phone to work-related calls

115
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a good practice when working with a computer illiterate user over the phone?

a. frequently ask the customer to tell you what is displayed on the screen
b. don’t ask the customer to perform a task that might destroy data
c. before proceeding with the call, tell the customer to put someone else on the line
d. provide step-by-step mouse and keyboard instructions

A

before proceeding with the call, tell the customer to put someone else on the line

116
Q
  1. Which of the following is a good practice when working with an overly confident user over the phone?

a. compliment the user’s knowledge, insight, and experience
b. keep the conversation moving to place the user at a disadvantage
c. point out the customer’s mistakes to shake their confidence
d. use technical jargon that matches or exceeds the customer’s use of jargon

A

compliment the user’s knowledge, insight, and experience

117
Q
  1. What should you do when you have a customer that is frequently complaining about your company, products, or services?

a. explain how the customer is being inappropriate and end the conversation
b. inform the customer that you agree and will make suggestions to management
c. allow the customer to vent for a while and apologize as necessary
d. if the complaint is not in your area of expertise, explain how it is not your problem and ask to move on

A

allow the customer to vent for a while and apologize as necessary

118
Q
  1. Which of the following involves assigning a problem to those higher in the support chain?

a. ticket logging
b. problem escalation
c. responsibility passing
d. issue resolution

A

problem escalation

119
Q
  1. When working with co-workers and supervisors, which of the following is a good practice?

a. if you have a problem with a co-worker, first discuss it with other co-workers
b. if you need to give bad news or criticism, use email to lessen the blow
c. be professional by putting business matters over personal matters
d. never tell your boss you can’t take on a new project, even if it’s beyond your skills

A

be professional by putting business matters over personal matters

120
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT an important principle to consider when customizing a system?

a. ensure your company can supply all parts
b. meet application requirements
c. balance functionality and budget
d. consider hardware compatibility

A

ensure your company can supply all parts

121
Q
  1. What is it called when one physical machine hosts multiple activities that are normally done on multiple machines?

a. multiprocessing
b. virtualization
c. multicore
d. redundancy

A

virtualization

122
Q
  1. What processor feature might you need to enable in the BIOS if you will be running VMs?

a. HAV
b. hypervisor
c. multi-core
d. VirtualBox

A

HAV

123
Q
  1. What is it called when a virtualization server provides a virtual desktop for users on multiple client machines?

a. HAV
b. thin client
c. VDI
d. fat client

A

VDI

124
Q
  1. What is a hypervisor?

a. a program that manages VMs
b. another name for a thin client
c. technology that enhances processor support for VMs
d. a fat client running an HAV

A

a program that manages VMs

125
Q
  1. For optimal performance, how much free space does Windows need on a hard drive?

a. 5 percent
b. 50 percent
c. 15 percent
d. 35 percent

A

15 percent

126
Q
  1. Which hard drive type contains spinning platters?

a. optical hard drive
b. solid-state drives
c. floppy hard drives
d. magnetic hard disk drives

A

magnetic hard disk drives

127
Q
  1. What is another name for a file allocation unit?

a. sector
b. cluster
c. segment
d. fragment

A

cluster

128
Q
  1. How often does Windows 7/Vista automatically defragment a hard drive?

a. once a week
b. once a day
c. once a month
d. once an hour

A

once a week

129
Q
  1. Use the _____ command to rearrange parts of files on the drive so they are contiguous.

a. Optimize
b. Analyze
c. Defrag
d. Chkdsk

A

Defrag

130
Q
  1. To make sure the drive is healthy, you need to search for and repair file system errors using the Windows _____ utility.

a. Defrag
b. Chkdsk
c. Analyze
d. Optimize

A

Chkdsk

131
Q
  1. A snapshot of the system settings and configuration is called a _____.

a. rollback point
b. restore unit
c. rollback unit
d. restore point

A

restore point

132
Q
  1. What is the fourth partition on a hard drive called?

a. extended partition
b. master boot record
c. volume
d. primary partition

A

extended partition

133
Q
  1. Which partition is the bootable partition that startup BIOS turns to when searching for an operating system to start up?

a. extended partition
b. startup partition
c. active partition
d. volume

A

active partition

134
Q
  1. If you enter a command and want to terminate its execution before it is finished, you can press _____ to do so.

a. Ctrl+Break
b. Ctrl+V
c. Ctrl+B
d. Ctrl+X

A

Ctrl+Break

135
Q
  1. The _____ command creates a subdirectory under a directory.

a. RD
b. MD
c. CD
d. AD

A

MD

136
Q
  1. A dynamic disk requires _____ MB of storage for the disk management database.

a. 1
b. 10
c. 5
d. 50

A

1

137
Q
  1. You can use _____ to convert two or more basic disks to dynamic disks.

a. Disk Management
b. Windows Management
c. System Management
d. Disk Config

A

Disk Management

138
Q
  1. Which Task Manager tab lists system services and other processes associated with applications, together with how much CPU time and memory the process uses?

a. Applications
b. Services
c. Processes
d. Performance

A

Processes

139
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a task you can perform with Task Manager?

a. end a process
b. end process tree
c. restart a process
d. create a process

A

restart a process

140
Q
  1. Which Task Manager tab allows you to show processes from all users to verify no applications are running under that user account?

a. Processes tab
b. Users tab
c. Networking tab
d. Performance tab

A

Processes tab

141
Q
  1. Which Task Manager tab provides details about how a program uses system resources?

a. Application
b. Services
c. Processes
d. Performance

A

Performance

142
Q
  1. Which Windows utility can be used to find out what processes are launched at startup?

a. Task Manager
b. Microsoft Management Console
c. System Configuration
d. Computer Management

A

System Configuration

143
Q
  1. Where can a user find out more information about a hardware or network failure that occurred on that particular PC?

a. Event Viewer
b. Performance Information and Tools
c. Task Scheduler
d. Resource Monitor

A

Event Viewer

144
Q
  1. Which Windows utility can be used to monitor the performance of the processor, memory, and hard drive and save the monitored data in logs for future use?

a. Event Viewer
b. Reliability Monitor
c. Performance Monitor
d. Resource Monitor

A

Performance Monitor

145
Q
  1. Which Windows utility can be used to build your own customized console windows?

a. Microsoft Management Console
b. Microsoft Manager Console
c. Microsoft Management Components
d. Microsoft Manager Controls

A

Microsoft Management Console

146
Q
  1. Which tool should you consult to find information about a device or service that failed to start?

a. Microsoft Management Console
b. Event Viewer
c. Performance Monitor
d. Resource Monitor

A

Event Viewer

147
Q
  1. What is the term given to the individual tools in a console?

a. consoles
b. add-ins
c. snap-ms
d. views

A

snap-ms

148
Q
  1. Which Windows utility gives information about problems and errors that happen over time?

a. Performance Monitor
b. Resource Monitor
c. Reliability Monitor
d. Services Console

A

Reliability Monitor

149
Q
  1. Which Windows utility is used to control the Windows and third-party services installed on a system?

a. Microsoft Management Console
b. Event Viewer
c. System Configuration Utility
d. Services console

A

Services console

150
Q
  1. To find out if programs and services are slowing down Windows startup, boot the system in _____ and watch to see if performance improves.

a. Restoration Mode
b. Recovery Mode
c. Safe Mode
d. Stability Mode

A

Safe Mode

A+ Mid-term (4 decks)

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