Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

BIOLOGY A LEVEL OCR A > A LEVEL BIO REVISION > Flashcards

A LEVEL BIO REVISION Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
AP® Biology flashcards Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

Number

A

Question

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

1

A

What is a light microscope used for?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

2

A

What are the pros and cons of a light microscope?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

3

A

What is a laser scanning confocal microscope used for?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

4

A

Whatis a transmission electron microscope be used for?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

5

A

What is a scanning electron microscope used for?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

6

A

What are the pros and cons of an electron microscope?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

7

A

What is the difference between a transmission and an scanning electron microscope?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

8

A

What is the difference between light and electron microscopes?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

9

A

What is an eye piece graticule?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

10

A

What is a stage micrometer?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

11

A

Why do we stain specimens?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

12

A

What is differential staining?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

13

A

What is the formula to calculate magnification?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

14

A

What is the formula to calculate actual object size?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

15

A

How do we work out image size?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

16

A

What is magnification?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

17

A

What is resolution?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

18

A

What are the maximum resolutions of the different microscopes?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

19

A

What is the maximum magnification of the different microscopes?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

20

A

What are the main structures of all eukaryotic cells?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

21

A

What is the structure and function of the nucleus?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

22

A

What is the structure and function of the nucleolus?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

23

A

What is the structure and function of the nuclear envelope?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

24

A

What is the structure and function of the rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER)?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

25

A

What is the structure and function of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER)?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

26

A

What is the structure and function of the Golgi apparatus?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

27

A

What is the structure and function of the ribosomes?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

28

A

What is the structure and function of the mitochondria?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

29

A

What is the structure and function of the lysosomes?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

30

A

What is the structure and function of the chloroplasts?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

31

A

What is the structure and function of the plasma membrane?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

32

A

What is the structure and function of the centrioles?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

33

A

What is the structure and function of the cell wall?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

34

A

What is the structure and function of the flagella?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

35

A

What is the structure and function of the cillia?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

36

A

Which structures are involved in the production of proteins?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

37

A

What is the structure and function of the cytoskeleton?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

38

A

What do prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells have in common?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

39

A

What is different between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

40

A

How do prokaryotes divide?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

41

A

List out the elements that make up proteins.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

42

A

Explain the polar nature of water.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

43

A

What allows water molecules to have cohesive and adhesive properties?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

44

A

Describe the structure of amylose, including the bonds involved and the shape.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

45

A

Describe the structure of amylopectin, including the bonds involved and the shape.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

46

A

State the two structures that make up starch.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

47

A

State the reaction that breaks down maltose.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

48

A

What is the reaction to join monosaccharides together?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

49

A

What are the 3 types of polysaccharides that α-glucose can form?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

50

A

What are the two monosaccharides that join up to make sucrose?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

51

A

1,6 glycosidic bonds are found on ……..

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

52

A

β-glucose can only be found in ……..

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

53

A

How are the monosaccharides in cellulose arranged?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

54

A

Based on the arrangement of cellulose molecules, explain why cell walls provide strength and support to plant cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

55

A

What does the Benedict’s test test for?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

56

A

Explain how a positive result is formed in Benedict’s test.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

57

A

How can we test for starch?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

58

A

How can we use a colorimeter to do a quantitative Benedict’s test?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

59

A

What are the two parts that make up a carboxylic acid?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

60

A

How many water molecule(s) is/are needed when breaking down a triglyceride?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

61

A

What is another term for the condensation reaction that makes lipids?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

62

A

What is the difference in structure between saturated and unsaturated lipids?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

63

A

Why do oils contain unsaturated triglycerides rather than saturated?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

64

A

What is the difference in structure between triglyceride and phospholipid?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

65

A

Describe the phospholipid bilayer arrangement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

66

A

Describe 2 similarities and 1 difference between phospholipids and sterols.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

67

A

Describe the steps in identifying lipids and state the positive result.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

68

A

State the monomer of a protein.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

69

A

What are the components that make up an amino acid?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

70

A

Name the bond formed between two amino acids.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

71

A

What is the primary structure of a protein?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

72

A

What is the secondary structure of a protein?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

73

A

What is the tertiary structure of a protein?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

74

A

What is the quaternary structure of a protein?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

75

A

State the bond involved in the primary structure of a protein.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

76

A

Stat the bond involved in the secondary structure of a protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

77

A

State the bond involved in the tertiary structure of a protein.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

78

A

State the bond involved in the quaternary structure of a protein.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

79

A

Name the reaction that breaks down proteins.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

80

A

What is the solution used to test for the presence of proteins?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

81

A

Describe a positive result for proteins.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

82

A

What is thin layer chromatography?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

83

A

Based on what principles are the amino acids separated in TLC?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

84

A

Why should the chromatography plate be only handled by the edges?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

85

A

What are the three types of proteins?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

86

A

Explain why insulin is soluble in blood.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

87

A

What are prosthetic groups?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

88

A

Give an example of a conjugated protein.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

89

A

Compare the haem groups in haemoglobin and catalase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

90

A

How many haem groups do a haemoglobin contain?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

91

A

Explain why keratin is relatively strong, inflexible and insoluble.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

92

A

Briefly describe the structure of collagen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

93

A

What bonds do DNA/RNA polymerase catalyse?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

94

A

Name the monomer of a nucleic acid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

95

A

State the five possible bases of a nucleotide.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

96

A

State the three components to a DNA nucleotide.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

97

A

The two strands of the double helix are …………. to each other.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

98

A

Thymine, cytosine and uracil belong to a group of bases. Name the group.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

99

A

Adenine and guanine belong to a group of bases. Name the group.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

100

A

State the complementary base pairings.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

101

A

State the number of hydrogen bonds formed between adenine and thymine/uracil.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

102

A

State the number of hydrogen bonds formed between cytosine and guanine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

103

A

Why is DNA replication described as semi-conservative?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

104

A

State the enzymes involved in DNA replication.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

105

A

State the function of DNA polymerase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

106

A

State the function of DNA helicase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

107

A

The free nucleotides pair up with the exposed bases on the DNA strands based on …… (which principle?)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

108

A

DNA polymerase can only build phosphodiester bonds on the daughter strand in a particular direction. What is this direction?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

109

A

In which direction of the template strand does the DNA polymerase move in?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

110

A

Define ‘genetic code’.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

111

A

The genetic code is described as ‘degenerate’. What does that mean?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

112

A

Define ‘gene’.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

113

A

What is a codon?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

114

A

What are the two differences between DNA and RNA?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

115

A

Name the enzymes involved in transcription.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

116

A

Why is the antisense strand needed even though it does not code for proteins?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

117

A

What type of bond does mRNA have?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

118

A

Even though DNA codes for proteins directly, why is mRNA needed to be made for making proteins?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

119

A

How is rRNA involved in catalysing translation?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

120

A

Which part of tRNA binds to the mRNA?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

121

A

Name the amino acid that is always at the start of a protein.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

122

A

Describe what happens to the amino acid chain to make it a fully functional protein.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

123

A

State the two stages of protein synthesis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

124

A

Name the product of transcription.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

125

A

Name the product of translation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

126

A

State the location where translation occurs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

127

A

What are the three main types of activities in cells that require energy?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

128

A

What does ‘ATP’ stand for and what is it?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

129

A

Draw the structure of ATP.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

130

A

How does ATP release energy?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

131

A

State 3 properties of ATP.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

132

A

What are metabolic reactions?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

133

A

What are anabolic reactions?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

134

A

What are catabolic reactions?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

135

A

What are enzymes?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

136

A

Name the energy that is required to start a reaction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

137

A

What are enzymes’ effect on the activation energy of a reaction?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

138

A

Name the area on the enzyme that binds to and reacts with the substrate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

139

A

The active site has a _____ shape to the substrate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

140

A

Name the two models used to illustrate enzyme actions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

141

A

Name the structure where the enzyme and substrate are bound together.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

142

A

What is the difference between the lock-and-key model and the induced fit model?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

143

A

Name an intracellular enzyme.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

144

A

Name an extracellular enzyme.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

145

A

Define the term ‘denaturation’.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

146

A

Explain how an increase of temperature increases enzyme activity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

147

A

Explain how high temperatures can denature enzymes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

148

A

What is the temperature coefficient (Q10)?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

149

A

How are the enzymes in organisms that live in cold environments adapted?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

150

A

How are the enzymes in organisms that live in hot environments adapted?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

151

A

How does a change in pH affect enzyme structure?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

152

A

Explain why an increase in substrate concentration increases rate of reaction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

153

A

What does it mean by a ‘reversible’ inhibitor?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

154

A

Most competitive inhibitors are reversible or irreversible?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

155

A

Explain how Vmax of the enzyme can be unchanged in competitive inhibition.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

156

A

What types of inhibitor does aspirin belong to?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

157

A

Explain the difference between competitive and non-competitive inhibition mechanisms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

158

A

Explain how an increase in substrate concentration affects the rate of reaction in non-competitive inhibition.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

159

A

State two examples of irreversible, non-competitive inhibitors for human use.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

160

A

What is end-product inhibition?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

161

A

How does ATP regulate its own production by end-product inhibition?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

162

A

State the difference between cofactors and coenzymes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

163

A

From which chemical are cofactors derived from?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

164

A

From which chemical are coenzymes derived from?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

165

A

Name the cofactor found in amylase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

166

A

Name the cofactor invovled in photosynthesis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

167

A

Name the cofactor invovled in respiration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

168

A

State the difference between cofactors and prosthetic groups.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

169

A

Name the prosthetic group in haemoglobin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

170

A

Name the prosthetic group in carbonic anhydrase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

171

A

What are the three ways that an enzyme can be activated by changing the tertiary structure?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

172

A

Why is it important that some enzymes are produced in its inactive form?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

173

A

What is an apoenzyme?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

174

A

What is a holoenzyme?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

175

A

What is the fluid mosaic model?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

176

A

What is a glycolipid?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

177

A

What is a glycoprotein?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

178

A

State four functions of membranes at the surface of cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

179

A

State 3 functions of membranes within cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

180

A

The principal design of the plasma membrane consists of two layers; what name is given to these two layers?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

181

A

Explain the orientation of phospholipids within the bilayer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

182

A

Describe the function of glycoproteins and glycolipids in the phospholipid bilayer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

183

A

Give 3 examples of intrinsic proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

184

A

Channel proteins and carrier proteins have what main role within the membrane?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

185

A

Describe the position and role of cholesterol in the membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

186

A

Describe the structure of a phospholipid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

187

A

Describe the effects of temperature on membrane structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

188

A

Describe the effects of ethanol on membrane structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

189

A

Explain why alcohol is used in antiseptic wipes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

190

A

Define the term diffusion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

191

A

Define the term facilitated diffusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

192

A

What is a channel protein?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

193

A

What is a carrier protein?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

194

A

What types of molecules can diffuse directly across the phospholipid bilayer?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
196
Q

195

A

Describe the movement of water across the phospholipid bilayer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
197
Q

196

A

State 5 factors that affect the rate of simple diffusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
198
Q

197

A

Define the term active transport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
199
Q

198

A

Describe how carrier proteins are used in active transport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
200
Q

199

A

Define bulk transport and give two examples

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
201
Q

200

A

Define and describe phagocytosis

202
Q

201

A

Define and describe pinocytosis

203
Q

202

A

Define and describe exocytosis

204
Q

203

A

Describe the role of ATP in bulk transport

205
Q

204

A

What is the main difference between active transport and facilitated diffusion?

206
Q

205

A

Define the term osmosis

207
Q

206

A

What is water potential?

208
Q

207

A

What substance has the highest possible water potential of 0 kPa?

209
Q

208

A

State the equation that links water potential, solute potential and pressure potential

210
Q

209

A

As more solute is added to a solution, what happens to the solute potential and hence the water potential?

211
Q

210

A

Describe what would happen to a red blood cell placed in a solution with a more negative water potential than that of its cytoplasm

212
Q

211

A

Describe what would happen to a liver cell placed in a solution with a more positive WP than its own cytoplasm

213
Q

212

A

Describe what would happen to a root hair cell placed in a solution with lower WP than its own cytoplasm/vacuole

214
Q

213

A

Describe what would happen to a guard cell placed in a solution of less negative WP than its own cytoplasm

215
Q

214

A

State three events that occur in G1 phase of the cell cycle

216
Q

215

A

What happens during the S phase of the cell cycle?

217
Q

216

A

What happens during the G2 phase?

218
Q

217

A

Describe what may happen in G0 phase of the cell cycle

219
Q

218

A

State three cell cycle checkpoints and briefly describe what is being checked for at each

220
Q

219

A

State three purpose of mitosis in life cycles

221
Q

220

A

Describe the main events of phophase

222
Q

221

A

Describe the main events of metaphase

223
Q

222

A

Describe the main events of anaphase

224
Q

223

A

Describe the main events of telophase

225
Q

224

A

Describe how cytokinesis differs between dividing animal cells and plant cells

226
Q

225

A

Why would we use the root tip for investigating mitosis?

227
Q

226

A

Explain why we warm the root tips in hydrochloric acid when preparing a root tip squash

228
Q

227

A

Which stain would we use to stain chromosomes in a root tip squash?

229
Q

228

A

What is meiosis?

230
Q

229

A

Describe how meiosis produces genetic variation in the gametes produced

231
Q

230

A

Describe the difference between anaphase I and anaphase II

232
Q

231

A

In which stage of meiosis is the chromosome number halved

233
Q

232

A

Explain why genetic variation is important for a population of organisms

234
Q

233

A

What is differentiation?

235
Q

234

A

Describe and explain how erythrocytes are adapted for their function

236
Q

235

A

Explain why a neutrophil contains many lysosomes

237
Q

236

A

Describe and explain how sperm cells are adapted for their function

238
Q

237

A

Describe how guard cells open in sunny conditions

239
Q

238

A

Describe the purpose of cytoskeleton threads and motor proteins in palisade cells

240
Q

239

A

Describe how a root hair cell plasma membrane is adapted for transport of mineral ions

241
Q

240

A

Describe how cartilage is adapted for its function

242
Q

241

A

Define the term tissue

243
Q

242

A

State three types of muscle tissue, giving an example of where each is found

244
Q

243

A

Give four features of meristematic cells that means they can differentiate easily

245
Q

244

A

Describe the differences between multipotent, pluripotent and totipotent stem cells

246
Q

245

A

State three characteristics of stem cells

247
Q

246

A

State the three main factors that affect the need for an exchange system

248
Q

247

A

Explain why smaller organisms have a lower demand for oxygen than larger organisms

249
Q

248

A

Describe and explain three features of a good exchange surface

250
Q

249

A

Describe how human alveoli are adapted to reduce diffusion distances

251
Q

250

A

Describe the role of surfactant in alveoli

252
Q

251

A

Describe the mechanism of inspiration

253
Q

252

A

Why do alveolar walls contain elastic fibres?

254
Q

253

A

Which tissue type comprises alveolar walls?

255
Q

254

A

The trachea is lined with ciliated epithelial tissue and goblet cells. Describe the functions of these.

256
Q

255

A

The trachea and bronchi are lined with cartilage. Describe why.

257
Q

256

A

Describe how the nasal cavity is adapted for exchange

258
Q

257

A

Describe the roles of smooth muscle and elastic tissue in the airways

259
Q

258

A

Describe precautions that must be taken when using a spirometer

260
Q

259

A

Describe what is meant by ‘vital capacity’ and state the factors that it depends upon

261
Q

260

A

State the usual range for vital capacity

262
Q

261

A

Describe what is meant by ‘inspiratory reserve volume’.

263
Q

262

A

Describe what is meant by ‘expiratory reserve volume’.

264
Q

263

A

Describe what is meant by ‘residual volume’ and state the standard volume

265
Q

264

A

Describe what is meant by ‘tidal volume’ and state a typical figure

266
Q

265

A

What is the difference between ‘ventilation rate’ and ‘breathing rate’?

267
Q

266

A

State the equation for ventilation rate

268
Q

267

A

The normal breathing rate of a healthy 50 year old woman is 18 breaths per minute and her tidal volume is 500 cm3. During strenuous exercise, her ventilation rate increases to 45 000 cm3min-1 and she is breathing 30 times a minute. Calculate her tidal volume during this exercise and state how much higher than normal this figure is.

269
Q

268

A

Most bony fish have 5 pairs of gills which are covered by a bony flap, known as the …? What is the function of this bony flap?

270
Q

269

A

Describe the structure of gills in bony fish

271
Q

270

A

Describe ventilation in bony fish

272
Q

271

A

How is air supplied to respiring tisses in an insect?

273
Q

272

A

How does air enter the tracheal system in an insect?

274
Q

273

A

The ends of tracheoles in insects are filled with tracheal fluid. What is the function of this fluid?

275
Q

274

A

When an insect is active, what changes occur in the insect to increase their oxygen supply?

276
Q

275

A

Describe three features of an effective transport system

277
Q

276

A

Describe three disadvantages of single circulatory systems, as seen in fish

278
Q

277

A

Explain why fish do not need as much energy as mammals

279
Q

278

A

Describe what is meant by the term open circulation

280
Q

279

A

State two disadvantages of open circulatory systems

281
Q

280

A

State four advantages of closed circulation over open circulation

282
Q

281

A

What is the inner tissue lining of a blood vessel called? What is its role?

283
Q

282

A

Describe the three structural layers of an artery

284
Q

283

A

What is the role of arterioles?

285
Q

284

A

Describe how capillaries are adapted for exchange

286
Q

285

A

Describe the function of a venule

287
Q

286

A

Describe how veins are adapted to carry blood back to the heart

288
Q

287

A

Where is hydrostatic pressure created of the blood created?

289
Q

288

A

What is oncotic pressure?

290
Q

289

A

What substances might affect the oncotic pressure of the blood?

291
Q

290

A

State the cell types that are most likely to be found in blood plasma, tissue fluid and lymph

292
Q

291

A

Why can proteins known as plasma proteins not leave the blood plasma?

293
Q

292

A

Why can neutrophils enter the tissue fluid but erythrocytes cannot?

294
Q

293

A

Describe the role of the lymph fluid

295
Q

294

A

How does tissue fluid facilitate exchange of substances to body cells?

296
Q

295

A

Describe the simple structure of haemoglobin

297
Q

296

A

What is the process known as by which oxyhaemoglobin releases its oxygen to respiring cells?

298
Q

297

A

What is the main difference between foetal haemoglobin and adult haemoglobin?

299
Q

298

A

Describe three ways in which carbon dioxide is transported

300
Q

299

A

Describe the formation of hydrogencarbonate ions

301
Q

300

A

Describe how the charge inside a RBC is maintained when hydreogencarbonate ions diffuse into the plasma

302
Q

301

A

Describe how the pH inside a RBC is buffered as hydrogen ions build up inside, making the RBC very acidic

303
Q

302

A

What is the net result of the Bohr effect?

304
Q

303

A

With reference to protein structure, explain how increasing hydrogen ion levels affects haemoglobin.

305
Q

304

A

What is the purpose of semilunar valves?

306
Q

305

A

Why is the left ventricular wall so much thicker than the right ventricular walls?

307
Q

306

A

Why are there so many mitochondria in cardiac muscle?

308
Q

307

A

What is the purpose of intercalated discs between adjacent muscle cells?

309
Q

308

A

Briefly outline the events of atrial systole

310
Q

309

A

Briefly outline the events of ventricular systole

311
Q

310

A

Briefly outline the events of diastole

312
Q

311

A

What is meant by the term myogenic?

313
Q

312

A

What tissue is responsible for initiating the heartbeat?

314
Q

313

A

What tissue propagates the electrical signal from the atria to the ventricles, resulting in ventricular systole?

315
Q

314

A

Why is there a delay before the AVN depolarises the ventricular walls?

316
Q

315

A

Describe the role of the Purkyne tissue

317
Q

316

A

What do the letters PQRST indicate in an ECG?

318
Q

317

A

What terms describe a slow and a fast heart rate?

319
Q

318

A

What happens in atrial fibrillation?

320
Q

319

A

What is an ectopic heart beat?

321
Q

320

A

Plant transport systems consist of 2 major specialised vascular tissues. Name these, state their transport material and the direction of transport

322
Q

321

A

What tissue is found in between the xylem and phloem? What is its function?

323
Q

322

A

What is the purpose of parenchyma cells in xylem tissue?

324
Q

323

A

What is the purpose of lignin in xylem vessels?

325
Q

324

A

How do bordered pits form and what is their purpose?

326
Q

325

A

Describe three adaptations of xylem vessels that relate structure to function

327
Q

326

A

What two components of phloem tissue are concerned with transport?

328
Q

327

A

Why do sieve tube elements contain no nucleus and very little cytoplasm?

329
Q

328

A

How are companion cells adapted for active loading?

330
Q

329

A

Describe 2 major pathways taken by water to move between cells

331
Q

330

A

What allows water to move through cells via the symplast pathway, and by which mechanism of movement?

332
Q

331

A

What allows water to move continuously via the apoplast pathway?

333
Q

332

A

Why does the presence of starch in the endodermis suggest that an active process is involved?

334
Q

333

A

What is the Casparian strip?

335
Q

334

A

Explain the significance of the Casparian strip

336
Q

335

A

Describe how water is lost via stomata (refer to gradients)

337
Q

336

A

Describe the effects of light intensity, humidity and wind speed on the rate of transpiration

338
Q

337

A

State two precautions that should be taken to ensure no air bubbles are in the potometer setup

339
Q

338

A

The distance moved by the meniscus in a potometer is 45mm in 5 minutes. The radius of the capillary tube is 0.5 mm. Calculate the rate of transpiration.

340
Q

339

A

Describe how water moves up the stem via the transpiration pull

341
Q

340

A

What property of water causes cohesion?

342
Q

341

A

Define the term translocation

343
Q

342

A

State two sinks (for translocation) in a plant

344
Q

343

A

What is the difference between active loading and active transport?

345
Q

344

A

Describe the role of hydrogen ions in active loading

346
Q

345

A

Why is sucrose transported in phloem and not glucose?

347
Q

346

A

How does sucrose move from the companion cells into the sieve tube elements?

348
Q

347

A

Based on what principle does mass flow work in sieve tubes?

349
Q

348

A

Based on what principles does phloem unloading work?

350
Q

349

A

Describe 3 adaptations of marram grass (xerophyte) and explain their importance

351
Q

350

A

Cacti are succulents. What does this mean?

352
Q

351

A

Why is it advantageous for some xerophytes to have a low water potential inside their leaf cells?

353
Q

352

A

Describe two adaptations of roots that could help a plant survive in arid conditions

354
Q

353

A

What is classification?

355
Q

354

A

Why do scientists classify organisms?

356
Q

355

A

What is taxonomy?

357
Q

356

A

What are the eight taxonomic groups in order of largest to smallest?

358
Q

357

A

What is the binomial naming system?

359
Q

358

A

Why is the binomial naming system important?

360
Q

359

A

What are the 5 kingdoms in classification?

361
Q

360

A

What are the general features of prokaryotae?

362
Q

361

A

What are the general features of protoctista?

363
Q

362

A

What are the general features of fungi?

364
Q

363

A

What are the general features of plantae?

365
Q

364

A

What are the general features of animalia

366
Q

365

A

What are the 3 domains of classification?

367
Q

366

A

Why are 3 domains preferred to 5 kingdoms?

368
Q

367

A

What is the difference between eukarya, bacteria and archaea in terms of ribosomes?

369
Q

368

A

What is the difference between eukarya, bacteria and archaea in terms of RNA polymerase?

370
Q

369

A

In the new system of classification, what are the 6 kingdoms?

371
Q

370

A

Which group has been divided to form eubacteria and archaebacteria?

372
Q

371

A

What is the difference between the habitats of archaebacteria and eubacteria?

373
Q

372

A

What is phylogeny?

374
Q

373

A

What are phylogenetics?

375
Q

374

A

What is a phylogenetic tree?

376
Q

375

A

What are the advantages of phylogenetic classification over hierarchical / Linnean classification?

377
Q

376

A

What is evolution?

378
Q

377

A

What did Darwin observe to support his thory of evolution through natural selection?

379
Q

378

A

What did Darwin notice about the finches of the Galapagos?

380
Q

379

A

What did Darwin determine about the shape of the Galapagos finchs’ beaks and their environment?

381
Q

380

A

Who was Alfred Wallace?

382
Q

381

A

When Darwin published “On the Origin of Species” describing the theory of evolution through natural selection, why was it originally extremely controversial?

383
Q

382

A

What are the 3 main sources of evidence for evolution?

384
Q

383

A

What is paleontology?

385
Q

384

A

What evidence for evolution is shown in the fossil record?

386
Q

385

A

Why is the fossil record not complete?

387
Q

386

A

What is comparative anatomy?

388
Q

387

A

What is a homologous structure?

389
Q

388

A

What do homologous structures provide evidence for?

390
Q

389

A

What is divergent evolution?

391
Q

390

A

What is comparative biochemistry?

392
Q

391

A

How are molecules used in comparative biochemistry?

393
Q

392

A

Which molecules can be used in comparative molecular biochemistry?

394
Q

393

A

What are the two types of variation between organisms?

395
Q

394

A

What is interspecific variation

396
Q

395

A

What is intraspecific variation?

397
Q

396

A

What are the causes of variation?

398
Q

397

A

What are the causes of genetic variation?

399
Q

398

A

How do alleles cause genetic variation?

400
Q

399

A

How do mutations cause genetic variation?

401
Q

400

A

How does meiosis cause genetic variation?

402
Q

401

A

How does sexual reproduction (2 partners) cause genetic variation?

403
Q

402

A

How does chance cause genetic variation?

404
Q

403

A

Why is there much more variation in sexually reproductive organisms than those which reproduce asexually?

405
Q

404

A

Are animals or plants more likely to be affected by the environment and cause variation? Why

406
Q

405

A

Give an example of a purely environmental variation.

407
Q

406

A

In most cases, what causes variation within a population?

408
Q

407

A

Give an example of a charachteristic that can be affected by both genetic and environmental factors.

409
Q

408

A

It is hard to separate genetic and environmental factors from causing variation. What investigations are done to allow better understanding between nature and nurture?

410
Q

409

A

Into which 2 groups can data on characteristic variation be sorted?

411
Q

410

A

What is another term for discontinuous variation?

412
Q

411

A

What is discontinuous variation?

413
Q

412

A

Give an example of discontinuous variation.

414
Q

413

A

What causes discrete variation?

415
Q

414

A

How is discontinuous variation displayed graphically?

416
Q

415

A

What is continuous variation?

417
Q

416

A

What is an example of continuous variation?

418
Q

417

A

What causes continuous variation?

419
Q

418

A

How is continuous variation displayed graphically?

420
Q

419

A

Continuous variation typically show what distribution?

421
Q

420

A

What is normal distribution?

422
Q

421

A

What are the characteristics of normal distribution?

423
Q

422

A

What is standard deviation?

424
Q

423

A

What does the variation look like if there is a high standard deviation?

425
Q

424

A

What does the variation look like if there is a low standard deviation?

426
Q

425

A

In normal distribution, what are the typical values for the first 3 standard deviations?

427
Q

426

A

What What do the symbols in the standard deviation formula stand for?

428
Q

427

A

What is the Student’s t test used for?

429
Q

428

A

What is Spearman’s rank correlation coefficient used for?

430
Q

429

A

What are the purpose of statistical tests?

431
Q

430

A

What is a null hypothesis in a Student’s t test?

432
Q

431

A

What is a null hypothesis in a Spearman’s rank?

433
Q

432

A

What are the degree of freedom in a Student’s t test?

434
Q

433

A

How do you determine significance in a Studen’t t test?

435
Q

434

A

What do the probability values in the significance tables mean?

436
Q

435

A

How do you determine significance in a Spearman’s rank?

437
Q

436

A

What are adaptations?

438
Q

437

A

What are the 3 types of adaptation?

439
Q

438

A

What is an anatomical adaptation?

440
Q

439

A

What is a behavioural adaptation?

441
Q

440

A

What is a physiological adaptation?

442
Q

441

A

Give an example of an anatomical adaptation.

443
Q

442

A

How is Marram grass adapted to stop transpiration?

444
Q

443

A

Give an example of a behavioural adaptation.

445
Q

444

A

What are the two main types of behavioural adaptation?

446
Q

445

A

What is an innate behaviour?

447
Q

446

A

What is a learned behaviour

448
Q

447

A

Give an example of physiological adaptations.

449
Q

448

A

What is convergent evolution?

450
Q

449

A

Why does convergent evolution occur?

451
Q

450

A

What is natural selection?

452
Q

451

A

What are the steps involved in natural selection?

453
Q

452

A

What is a selection pressure?

454
Q

453

A

What are examples of selection pressures?

455
Q

454

A

What are modern examples of evolution?

456
Q

455

A

How does anti-biotic resistant bacteria show modern evolution?

457
Q

456

A

How do peppered moths show modern evolution?

458
Q

457

A

How do sheep blowflies show modern evolution?

459
Q

458

A

How do Flavobacterium show modern evolution?

460
Q

459

A

What is biodiversity?

461
Q

460

A

Why is biodiversity important?

462
Q

461

A

Why do humans rely on balanced ecosystems?

463
Q

462

A

How can human activities lead to a reduction in biodiversity?

464
Q

463

A

What are the 3 ways of measuring biodiversity?

465
Q

464

A

Why is it important to measure biodiversity?

466
Q

465

A

What is habitat biodiversity?

467
Q

466

A

What is species biodiversity?

468
Q

467

A

What is species richness?

469
Q

468

A

What is species evenness?

470
Q

469

A

What is a community?

471
Q

470

A

What is genetic biodiversity?

472
Q

471

A

Why is genetic variation important?

473
Q

472

A

What is sampling?

474
Q

473

A

Why is sampling important?

475
Q

474

A

What is sampling used for?

476
Q

475

A

What are the 2 ways sampling can be carried out?

477
Q

476

A

What is random sampling?

478
Q

477

A

How is random sampling carried out?

479
Q

478

A

What is non-random sampling?

480
Q

479

A

What are the 3 main types of non-random sampling?

481
Q

480

A

What is opportunistic sampling?

482
Q

481

A

What is stratified sampling?

483
Q

482

A

What is systematic sampling?

484
Q

483

A

What are two techniques that could be used in systematic sampling?

485
Q

484

A

What is a line transect?

486
Q

485

A

What is a belt transect?

487
Q

486

A

What is an interupted belt transect?

488
Q

487

A

What is reliability?

489
Q

488

A

What can decrease the reliability of the sampling being done?

490
Q

489

A

What is sampling bias?

491
Q

490

A

What is chance?

492
Q

491

A

What are the techniques used in collecting live animal samples?

493
Q

492

A

How is a pooter used?

494
Q

493

A

How are sweep nets used?

495
Q

494

A

How are pitfall traps used?

496
Q

495

A

How is tree beating used?

497
Q

496

A

How is kick sampling used?

498
Q

497

A

How are plants generally sampled?

499
Q

498

A

What is a point quadrat and how is it used?

500
Q

499

A

What is a frame quadrat?

BIOLOGY A LEVEL OCR A (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions