Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Domain 3: Management of Food and Nutrition Programs and Services > A. Functions of Management > Flashcards

A. Functions of Management Flashcards

1
Q

The 4 functions of management

A

step 1. plan
step 2. organize
step 3. direct
step 4. control/evaluate

*planning is the basic function of management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The 4 things involved in planning (OPPT)

A
  1. objectives
  2. policies
  3. procedures
  4. time span
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Part of planning function

Procedures

A
  • details the steps
  • specific guide for daily operations
  • ex: ergonomics
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

associated with procedures

ergonomics uses what kind of chart

A

a flow chart and template assocaitated with planning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

organizational chart shows

A

how the employee fits into the organization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is this describing?

-shows relationship of positions and functions
- depicts lines of authority shown woth straight lines (chain of command)
- chain of command top to lowest

A

organizational chart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

organizational chart

not shown in the chain of command

A

degree of authority at each level or informational relationships

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

2 kinds of span of control

A
  1. narrow span
  2. wide span
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

span of control

A

number of individuals or departments under the direction of the one individual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

narrow span

requires more supervision

A
  • more levels are created
  • need more managers
  • needed with newly hired personnel
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

wide span

doesnt require supervision

A
  • fewer levels and fewer managers are needed
  • used with highly trained and highly motivated workers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

A food service manager who supervisies 35 employees has a problems with discipline and increased abesentism is experiencing

A

an excessive span of control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

FTE:

A

full time equivalent

useful in palnning the budget for wages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

absolute FTE

A
  • minimum number of employees needed to staff the
    facility
  • ONLY counts productive hours (hours actually worked)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

FTE / day

A

labor hours worked per day/ 8 hour normal work load

* Labor hours worked includes full-time and part-time workers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

adjusted FTE

A

takes into account the benefit days and days off

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

FTE / week

A

labor hours worked per week / 40 hour normal work load

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

@ $20/hr how much salary is made a week for 1 FTE

A

step 1. $20x8hr (1 day)=160
step 2. 160 x32hr (4 days) = $51200

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

FTE / year

A

labor hours worked that year/ 2080 hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
  1. A food service has seven 40-hour employees, five 20-hour employees, and three 16 hour employees. How many FTE’s are involved?
A

step 1: 7 employees x 40 hrs= 280
step 2: 5 employees x 20 hrs= 100
step 3: 3 employess x 16hrs = 48
step 4: add totals and divide by 1 FTE (40) = 10.7 FTE’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
  1. How many FTE’s can you hire with a weekly budget of $8640 if the salary is $12/hour?
A

step 1: $8640/$12=720hr
step 2: 720 hrs/40 = 18 FTE’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

relief workers

A

cover time off

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

To determine how many relief workers are needed to cover a full time employee multiply by

A

0.55

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

If you have 20 full-time positions how many relief workers are needed:

A

20 X .55 =11 relief employees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

oral communication provides

A

immediate feedback

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

5 organizational communication channels

(directions on the organizational chart)

A

(1) downward
(2) upward
(3) horizontal
(4) diagonal
(5) informal channel (grapevine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

downward

uses memos for meetings and policy statements

A
  • from Department Head down through the ranks of workers (chain of command)
  • use procedure manuals
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

upward

more challenging if you do not use an open door policy

A
  • from workers up to the Department Head
  • open-door policy
  • suggestion boxes
  • grievance procedures

management needs to recieve vital inforamtion from lower levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

horizontal

A
  • between departments (Nutrition and Nursing)
  • between production and service within the Nutrition Department
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

On your meal rounds yo notice an elderly patient is not being fed prpoperly so you talk to the head of Nursing department

what kind of communication is this?

A

horizontal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

diagonal

A
  • minimizes time and effort expended in organizations
  • between functions
  • ex: ordering clerk in foodservice sends requests directly to purchasing department
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

informal channel (grapevine)

A

meets social needs of group

talking casually

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

productivity is the efficiency with which a production or

A

service activity converts inputs into outputs, expressed as ratios

ratio measures inputs and outputs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

product ratio measures

A

how efficient we operate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

inputs (resources)

A

labor, money, materials, facilities, energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

outputs (units of service)

A

meals, patient days, consults (service provided)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

examples of productivity

A
  • labor minutes worked per day
  • trays per minute
  • consults per labor hour
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

to increase productivity

A

increase the output or decrease the input.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

if there is increase input and output, productivity will

A

remain constant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

how do you find meal per labor hour

A

meals produced/# hours worked

Determine how many hours worked (if given in full-time equivalents, multiply by 40 if per week, multiply by 8 if per day)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

20 FTE produced 2700 meals during one 40-hour week. How many meals were produced per labor hour?

A

step 1. 20 FTE X 40 hours (week) = 800 hours
step 2: 2700 meals/800 hours = 3.38 meals per labor hour

if asking per labor minute divide meals per labor hour by 60 instead of 40

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

delegation is the

instructions, motivate, provide training, require complete work, establish

A
  • distribution of work to qualified people
  • individuals are the adequate controls

ex: The general guid line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

delegation

before delgating work a manager must have clear understanding of what they want done, give specific instruction, and -

A
  • motivate
  • provide training
  • establish adequate controls
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

before delgating work to a subordinate first

A

evaluate skills and task difficulty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

allowing an employee to change procedurers to achieve desired outcomes is an example of

A

delegation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what is the general guidline for starting a meeting

A

start on time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

directing and controlling are the 2 management functions that require

A

the greatest allotment of time by a production manager

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what do work simplification procedures do?

A
  • increase productivity and decrease costs
  • find and eliminate unnecessary parts of the job
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q
  • reduce motions and time required
  • use shortest and straightest routes to move materials

simultaneous, symmetrical, natural, rhythmic, habitual

A

motion economy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

exmaples of work simplification (6)

A

(1) motion economy
(2) occurrence sampling
(3) pathway chart or flow diagram
(4)operation charts
(5) process charts
(6) cross charts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

observe random samples (intermittent observations) to determine percentage of time working or idle

A

occurrence sampling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

scale drawing showing path of a worker during a process

A

pathway chart or flow diagram

or flow chart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q
  • movement of hands; reduces transportation and replan work areas
  • use both hands simultaneously and effectively
A

operation charts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

steps involved in process using symbols

A

process charts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

efficiency of equipment placement, studies work motions, shows number of movements between pieces of equipment

A

cross charts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

when trying to cut down on the number of emplpyees on the tray line, evaluate

A

the number of work stations avaibale

look at the smallest part of the job (hand movements, steps taken)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

It takes 14 mins to prepare 1 meal, and 300 meals are needed a week. How many FTEs are needed

A

step 1: 14 mins x 3 meals/day= 42 meals/min
step 2: divive 42 by 60 mins = .7 x 300 meals needed
step 3: divide answer from above 210 meals by 1 FTE
step 4: 210/ 40= 5.27 x 7 days/week

answer: 37 FTEs needed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

what study

  • Idea of being well-treated by supervisors
  • if you involve people in the process, they become more productive
A

Hawthorn studies- Western Electric - by Elton Mayo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Hawthorn studies- Western Electric - by Elton Mayo

  • productivity is due to
  • worker were involved in an interesting experience, and were ___
  • work breaks =
A
  • employees given special attention
  • well-treated by supervisors
  • increased productivity

  • placebo effect (special attention improves behavior)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Theory and author

  • people inherently dislike work and will avoid it if possible
  • authoritarian
  • work-centered
  • workers prefer to be controlled and directed by pressure; motivation through fear
A

MacGregor: Theory X (negative, autocratic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Author associated with:

attitude of the manager toward employees has an impact on job performance (based on manager’s assumptions as to how employees view work)

if managers expectations are high then productivity is high

A

MacGregor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Author and theory

  • work is as natural as play or rest
  • management should arrange conditions so workers can achieve goals by directing own efforts
  • democratic
A

MacGregor: Theory Y (positive, participative)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

leadership styles (1- most controlling and 6 least controlling)

A
  1. autocratic
  2. consultative
  3. bureaucratic
  4. participative
  5. democratic
  6. free rein (laissez-faire)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

asks for input, but makes major decisions alone

A

consultative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

demands obedience, most control, full responsibility, crisis control

A

autocratic

makes decisions on their own

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

by the book, follows procedures to the letter

A

bureaucratic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q
  • emerging trend in management
  • Encourage workers to participate in decision-making.
  • Uses quality circles: small group of employees who meet regularly to identify and solve problems

results are improved productivity, quality, and morale

A

participative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

guides and encourages the group to make decisions

A

democratic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

least control, allows group to make decisions

A

free rein (laissez-faire)

minimal direction and control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

management theories

  • uses behaivoral sciences, workers exist in social groups
  • employee participation is needed for decision making
  • improves morale and productivity
A

human relations (behaivoral) theory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

human relations (behaivoral) theory

  • the value of the company comes from the employees
  • everyone affected by the descion is involved in the decision making
A

Theory Z (Ouchi)

Based on the premise: mutual- worker employer loyalty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Theory and author

  • work-centered
  • wants the least motivation needed by supervisor
  • find the best way of performing tasks (workers trained to work at many efficiency levels

ex: assembly line, manufacturing

A

Scientific management- Taylor

focuses on the physical aspects of the job

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

what type of work environment does Taylor promote

A
  • fastest pace possible and at maximum efficiency

systematic approach to improving worker efficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Managerial Characteristics

what are the 3 types skills in management?

hard skills can be taught, soft skills must be developed and nurtured

A
  1. technical (techniques, procedures)
  2. human
  3. conceptual
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

technical skills are important for a manager when needing understanding of and proficiency in a specific kind of activity or -

A

*at lower levels of management

kitchen supervisor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

human skills are important at all levels but mostly at lower levels of management for a manger, and are -

interpersonal superisor

A
  • needed to work effectively as a group member

ex: a supervisor being able to interact with different level employees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

When are conceptual skills important for a manager

A
  • at higher ranks on management
  • need to be able to see ability to see organization as a whole
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

a supervisor promoted to department head needs fewer ____ and more ____

A
  • technical and human skills
  • conceptual
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Theory and author

  • has authoritative leader, controlled interactions, closely focused goals
  • often sit in horseshoe formation
  • silent generation of ideas by participants
  • vote for final decision

modified brainstorming not chaotic

A

nominal group technique - Delbeca (generate innovative, creative ideas)

yields more ideas than traditional brainstorming

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q
  • designed to probe expert minds in a series of written interviews from which some consensus is sought
  • participants do not meet
A

Delphi technique (consensus of experts)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

managerial roles (3)

A
  • informational
  • interpersonal
  • decisional
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

which managerial role

  • monitor- onstantly searching for information
  • disseminator - transmits information to subordinates
  • spokesman - transmits information to people inside and outside
A

informational managerial role

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

whihc managerial role includes a
* leader: responsible for the work, hiring, training
* liaison - dealing with those inside and outside the organization

ex: when the manager updates the director about the activities occuring on the patient trayline

A

interpersonal role

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

which managerial role
* entrepreneur
* resource allocator
* negotiator

A

decisional

79
Q

decisional managerial role

steps of problem solving (6)

A
  1. Recognize and analyze problem
  2. determine workable solutions
  3. gather data
  4. choose solutions (choose one and see how it works out)
  5. take action
  6. follow-up the action

managers spend of their time solving problems

80
Q

cause and effect (fish) diagram focuses on-
* what influences the outcome
* on different causes of a problem
* asks what are the causes of the effects (results) you are seeking?
* and is represented by a-

useful in analyzing trayline accuracy

A
  • series of connected arrows, each representing an important factor
81
Q

cause and effect (fish) diagram is used to increase

A
  • worker involvement in decision-making

ex: a facility with a labor turnover rate of 50% also experiences numerous eqipment malfunction (solution: employee training)

82
Q

managerial traits (5)- power

ability to exert influence

A
  • reward power
  • coercive power
  • position (legitimate) power
  • expert power
  • referent power (personality, charisma)
83
Q

This is an example of what kind of power trait?

  • ability to reward another for carrying out an order
  • praise to reinforce certain behaviors
A

reward power

84
Q

This is an example of what kind of power?
* negative side of reward power
* ineffective in motivating
* may create resistance
* used to maintain minimum standard of performance

A

coercive power

85
Q

This is an example of what kind of power?
subordinate acknowledges that the influencer has the right to exert influence due to position

important for compliance

A

position (legitimate) power

ex: when a manager asks an employee to perfrom a task

86
Q

This is an exmaple of what kind of power?
provides expertise
provides credibility
viewed as competent

important for compliance

relate to subordiantes perfoamce and satisfaction

A

expert power

87
Q

This is an exmample of what kind of power?
the ability of an individual to influence others through loyalty, admiration, trust, and respect.

relate to subordiantes perfoamce and satisfaction

A

referent power (personality, charisma)

88
Q

for an organization to function efficiently, a formal authorative system must be supplemented by

A

informal power and influence

89
Q

what is a consultant RD okay to do vs not:
* plan future goals
* write policies and proceduress
* provide staff in-service
* supervision of dietary employees

A

supervision of dietary employees

90
Q

2 supervisors for 1 employee is an example of

A

unsuccessful management

91
Q
  • may be called Minimum Wage or Wage Hour Law
  • set minimum wage
    b. for overtime work/(over 40 hours in 1 week) pay time and one-half
A

Fair Labor Standards Act 1938

minimum wage - listed at Bureau of Labor Standards

92
Q

Fair Labor Standards Act 1938

amendment - Equal Pay Act 1963

A

prohibits discrimination on basis of sex.

93
Q

Ten-digit identification number for providers and practitioners of heath care services. Used in standard transactions, such as in coordination of benefits between health plans, in healthcare claims, medical records

A

NPI National Provider Identifier

94
Q

Credentialing is the process used to assess and verify the qualifications of a healthcare provider. Many insurance companies require RDNs to become credentialed in order to provide services for their members and in order to pay claims.

Which committee in charge of credentialing.

A

NCQA National Committee for Quality Assurance

95
Q

an online credentialing portal that a provider can elect to share with multiple health plans or payer organizations. It eliminates the need for multiple insurance credentialing submissions.

A

CAQH ProView

96
Q

A state agency issues a license to individuals who meet specified qualifications to practice a particular profession. Licensing statutes for dietetics and nutrition always include a title protection provision, which is designed to prevent unlicensed individuals from holding themselves out to the public as Dietitians, Nutritionists, or using other titles as specified in the statute.

What is this called

A

Licensure

97
Q

court order to prevent someone from doing something

A

injunction

98
Q

if a union memeber repeatedly arrives late, you should

A

report him to management

98
Q

union

management must be present at

A

bargaining sessions

99
Q

before a change in policy can be made it requires

A

50% of the union voting plus one are in favor of the change

100
Q

in general, seniority in a union is used for

A

promotion, schedules, layoffs

100
Q

b. steps in order of bargaining betweeen union and employer

A
  1. bargaining between union steward and management
  2. if fails: mediation
  3. if that fails: arbitration
101
Q

neutral person helps settle differences

decison is NOT binding

A

mediation

102
Q

hearing to dissolve a dispute during an impasse

decision is usually binding

A

arbitration

FINAL step in bargaining

103
Q

Unions can negotaite

A

working conditions, vacations and holidays

not personnel requirements or strategic initiatives

104
Q

what does this represent?

hour by hour
training
tasks and time

A

work schedule

105
Q

list what steps
what to do and how to do it
no time limits

A

job breakdown

105
Q

remove similar tasks to alleviate boredom

associated with routine jobs

A

job enlargement

106
Q
  • increases number of tasks and control the employee has over the job
  • Maslow and Herzberg motivator (advanced training)
A

job enrichment

upgrades job by adding motivating factors

107
Q

types of interviews

what type of interview uses checklist or preplanned strategy and minimizes personal biases

A

structured (directed)

provides the same informational for all

108
Q

types of interviews

  • no definite checklist
  • more participation from applicant
  • ex: “Tell me about your last job”, sales, counseling, management

allows the applicant to direct the conversation

A

unstructured (non-directed):

used with higher levels of personnel

useful in assessing interpersonnel and communication skills

109
Q
  • studies all aspects of job, done by worker and their supervisor
  • conducted FIRST to collect information for job description
A

job analysis

110
Q
  • reflects required skills and responsibilities (list of duties)
  • written AFTER job analysis
  • matches applicants to job, orientation and training, employee appraisal
A

job description

111
Q
  • Personnel depart uses this when looking for employees to hire
  • LAST thing written after job decription
  • includes duties involved, conditions, qualifications (education experience)
A

Job specification

does not have detailed information as to what to do or time involved

112
Q

best use of an employee evaluation is to improve their

A

** performance** by providing feedback

113
Q

disciplinary actions steps (4)

steps taken to correct undesirable behavior

A
  1. oral warning
  2. written warning
  3. suspension
  4. dismissal
114
Q

what kind of warning discusses nature, cause, corrective actions

temporary in record

A

oral warning

always appraoch discipline by speaking one on one first

ex: an employee consistently calls sick before and after holidays —> approach this by speaking to him for the reasons for absensce

115
Q

what kind of warnging adresses a repeat violation or as first action if warranted

A

written warning

permanent in employee record

116
Q

which disciplinary action forces leave of absence without pay

A

suspension

permanent record

117
Q

labor turnover rate formula

A

number of employees terminated (seperated)/total positions in the department x 100

118
Q

High labor turnover rate results in

A

higher labor cost (replacement, hiring, training)

Goal: low turnover rate

119
Q

the purpose of budgeting in management

A

gives manager a basis for CONTROL

120
Q

3 requirements for budgeting

A
  1. flexible
  2. adjustable according to changes
  3. usually reviewed monthly
120
Q

Financial management begins with

A

the budget

121
Q

what are the three types of budgets

A
  1. operating budget
  2. cash budget
  3. capital budget
122
Q

what involves the forecast of revenues, expenses, and profit for a specific period of time

A

operating budget

122
Q

what is the first component projected in a budget

A

operating budget

forecast sales or revenue (income) portion

AFTER this, budget expenditures- (labor, food, operating expenses) related to the in a budget projected level of revenue

123
Q

what is a budget expenditure based on

A

cash-flow budget

estimates income and expenditure over time

124
Q

what budget includes plant facilities, equipment, cost of improvements and repairs (service, maintenance contracts), expansions, replacements, long term, future renovations

A

capital budget

includes expenditures whose returns are expected to last beyond one year

125
Q

A pro forma statement (hypothetical) projects

A

expected income, expenditures and profit

125
Q

Resource allocation includes efficient allocation of people, materials, and equipment to meet the needs of the

A

operating system (can lead to cost savings).

126
Q

The CPM, Critical Path Method, helps plan and control an operation. It identifies the most____, to best allocate limited resources.

A

critical activities

127
Q

Food cost is the most readily ____ item and subject to greatest ____

A
  • controlled
  • change
128
Q

These are all part of:
* menu planning - most important
* type of service - selective menu reduces waste and cost
* purchasing methods - group buying reduces costs
* receiving control - weigh in and check items against invoice (recieving, storage)
* storage and production control

A

Food costs

129
Q

Formula for Edible Portion (EP) using as purchased (AP)

A

AP/Cooked edible weight = EP

130
Q

What is one way to control costs and maintain customer satisfaction?

A

Use standarized portions

keep records of employee meals

131
Q

Labor costs is less controllable than

A

food costs

132
Q

operating cost is what % of the budget and incldues:

A
  • 12-18%
  • utlites (electicty)
  • laundry
  • cleaning

a small portion of the ovreall budget goes here

132
Q

what factors effect cost control

A

food cost
labor cost
operating cost

133
Q

What is able to show you a financial condition as of a particular date (static)

A

A balance sheet

analyzes operational effectiveness

a quick way to assess the financial condition of the business

134
Q

a balance sheet includes

A

assests and liabilities

135
Q

These are examples of:
* cash
* inventory
* accounts receivable (amounts owed to you)

A

assets (goods and products owned)

assets = liabilities + capital (equity, owner’s interest)

136
Q

an income statment (revenue) and balance sheet both analyze

A

operational effectiveness

136
Q

liabilities

A

amounts owed to others

137
Q

assesses ability to meet short term debt- within 12 months (pay bills when due)

A

liquidity ratios

current assets and current liabilities (current: within 12 months)

138
Q
  • compares organization with similar ones
  • compares ratios with those projected or with preceding ratios
    = vano
A

financial ratios

use of formulas to analyze an organization’s financial position

139
Q

assess ability to meet long term debt, solvency

A

net worth ratios

total assets and total liabilities; debt to asset ratio

140
Q

shows current effectiveness of inventory control; are you efficiently using the assets to produce more income?

A

d. turnover ratios (asset management)

141
Q

cost of sales (COGS or food cost) / average inventory cost =

A

inventory turnover rate

142
Q

What shows:
* the managers ability to control the investment in the inventory
* how often inventory is being consumed and replenished

A

An inventory turnover rate

increases during the accounting period

143
Q

A turnover rate of ____ is often desirable.

A

2-4 times per month

144
Q

Inventory turnover rate

High ratios indicates -

Find the turnover rate:
Food cost for June $37380
Average inventory cost $17500

A

limited inventory is being kept
* Food cost: 37380/Average food cost 17500 = 2.136
* The inventory turned over 2.1 times that month.

145
Q

Inventory turnover rate

Low ratios indicates

A

large amounts of money are tied up in stock/storage

a concern for stock not moving is spoilage

146
Q

what is the amount of time needed to pay back the money invested in an item

A

payback period

147
Q

how do you calculate pay back period

A
  1. add up the costs of the service.2
  2. Add up costs saved by using the new service.
  3. Divide costs of service/ dollars saved.
148
Q

the hospital budget for the first 6 months is set at 80% occupancy rate. Budget figures for this level are listed below. The second 6 months will have an occupancy rate of 60%

what would the food cost be for the second 6 months

food cost: $30,000
labor cost: $25,000
operating cost: $24,000

A
  1. multiply 60% by the original food cost (30,000)
  2. get the new food cost and divide by 80%
  3. answer: $22,500
148
Q
  1. add up actual costs for this year (labor cost, food cost, operating cost)
  2. Multiply times expected increase for future date
  3. Add the increase in cost to the current cost.
  4. Total all costs.

This will give you?

A

the projected balance for a future date

149
Q

the organized gathering of data and information for the purpose of analyzing a service for the client

A

market research

150
Q

The product or service is anything you

A

offer in exchange for money or something
client

150
Q

A market segmentation divides the market into

A

groups of people with similar product needs

151
Q

The process of identifying a need, assisting potential clients in recognizing that need, and filling that need

A

marketing

152
Q

what represents an exchange of ownership: producer, processor, distributor, supplier, and customer

all of the steps involved in marketing

A

Marketing channel

153
Q

demographic variables:

A

age, gender, race, education, income

153
Q

what are the 4 market segmentations

A
  1. demographic variables
  2. geographic variables
  3. psychographic
  4. behavioristic
154
Q

geographic variables

A

urban, suburban, climate, resources, cultural values

155
Q

psychographic

A
  • social class
  • lifestyle
  • motive

Innovators: high income, high self-esteem
Makers: lower income, focus on self-sufficiency, family-oriented Achievers: successful individuals, higher incomes Experiencers: young, impulsive, variety-seekers

156
Q

behavioristic

A

occasions, loyalty, purchase volume

157
Q

fixed cost/selling price - variable cost=

A

Breakeven point (BE)

157
Q

point at which sales revenue (income) will exaclty cover fixed and variable costs

A

Breakeven Point

you don’t make or lose money

158
Q

on a graph the BE point is where the

A

total cost line crosses (or meets) the revenue (sales) line

158
Q

when cost increase the BE

A

increases

159
Q

If revenue comes in less than BE that means you

A

lose money

160
Q

Using the following information, determine the selling price of the meal used to determine the break-even point. Fixed costs $100, Variable costs per meal $5, Break-even point 20 meals

a. $10
b. $15
c. $5
d. $2.50

A

step 1. find total price using VC x BE (units)
step 2. Add FC to total price
Step 3. divide new total by units sold

answer 10

161
Q

how do you calculate selling price using factor pricing method

does not include labor cost

A

mark up factor x raw food cost

162
Q

how do you calculate mark-up factor

A

100/food cost %

163
Q

Using the factor method, determine the selling price using the data below.
raw food cost 3.14; prepared food cost 5.21; labor cost 3.39, over head 1.12; factor 3.37

with factor method you are only taking into accound raw food and mark up factor

A
  • use factor pricing method formula
  • multiply 3.37 x 3.14 (raw food cost)
  • answer: $10.58
164
Q

how do you calculate selling price using prime cost method (raw food cost + labor cost involved in making the item)

A

step 1: determine prime cost: raw food cost + direct labor cost
step 2: determine price factor (markup)
step 3. add desired food cost percentage to percentage of direct labor cost
step 4: divide 100 by new total (from step 3)

165
Q

selling price (price cost method) =

A

prime cost (raw food + labor cost) x price factor

166
Q

How do you find labor cost per meal:

What is the labor cost per meal?

Total food purchased $32, 123
Total cafeteria sales $23,231
Total labor expenses $25,790
Meal equivalent factor $2.15
Total patient meals served 1923

A

step 1: find how many meals were served at the cafeteria (cafeteria sales/ mEq)
step 2. add number of meals served in the cafeteria to patient meals served
step 3. divide labor expenses by total meals served

answer: 2.03

mEq= food sales/ # meals

167
Q

Accreditation organizations - certify, manage and promote quality improvement

ex: Medicaid: federal law administered by ___, payment for medical care for all eligible needy: __ ages, blind, ___, dependent children
Under Medicaid: ACA Patient Protection and ________ Act: opportunities to provide
___ under benefit category “Preventive and Wellness Services”

A

b. Medicaid: federal law administered by states, payment for medical care for all eligible needy: all ages, blind, disabled, dependent children
(1) ACA Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act: opportunities to provide
MNT under benefit category “Preventive and Wellness Services”

168
Q

which organization validates Medicare compliance

A

DNV GL Healthcare accreditation

169
Q

which organization accredits and certifies healthcare organizations

A

TJC The Joint Commission

170
Q

which health insurance program is for people over 65; of any age with end-stage renal disease, employers and employees pay into it

A

medicare

171
Q

CMS Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services

what is provided by ACA Affordable Care Act to Medicare beneficiaries

A

A Wellness Visit (AW)

(2) Part B: optional insurance for supplementary benefits

RDNs are listed as an eligible medical professional who may screen and counsel Medicare beneficiaries.

172
Q

In PART A medicare, a hospital inpatient stays under

A

PPS (Prospective Payment System) using predetermined rates for hospital discharges

173
Q

what is the benefit for obese under Medicare Part B called

A

IBT Intensive Behavioral therapy:

Can only be provided by a physician

173
Q

what are IBT requirements

A
  • Coverage is granted only in primary care setting
  • BMI must be >30
  • continued treatment of weight loss assessed at the seventh month of treatment.
174
Q

coding and billing insurance requirements

Which code is used for Clinical Modification and describes an individual’s disease or medical condition
a. codes for malnutrition

A
  1. ICD -10-CM (International Classification of Diseases 10th Revision)

a. E43 - E46

175
Q

coding and billing insurance requirements

what code is five digits and describe the services rendered.

A

CPT Codes (Current Procedural Terminology)

MNT codes 97802, 97803, 97804 are used to report RDN provided services

176
Q

which code is used to submit non-institutional claims to Medicare/Medicaid for Healthcare services

A

CMS 1500 form

177
Q

what determines whether the goal of the intervention is worthwhile in terms of cost

compares program benefits to net savings

A

cost benefit studies (OR cost benefit analysis)

178
Q

In a cost benefit analysis the value of the benefits derived from the intervention must

A

outweigh the costs of providing the intervention.

179
Q

which analysis assumes that the goal of the project is worthwhile.

A

Cost effectiveness analysis

180
Q

A cost effectiveness analysis tells you

A

which method of intervention is the most effective (in terms of value) in achieving the goal

181
Q

A cost effectiveness analysis compares ___ using the results of ____

A
  • costs of alternative strategies
  • outcomes research

what works best for whom and at what cost

182
Q

Evaluating quality patient by periodically assessung the outcome of nutrition therapy is an ex of what

A

CQI- continuous quality improvement

183
Q

A problem-solving technique for coordinating process improvement

A

TQM Total Quality Management -PDCA cycle (plan, do, check, act) or PDSA (plan, do, study, act)

184
Q

Continuous Quality Improvement (CQI) - integral part of TQM-
believes that systems and performance can always ____

A

improve

no an end point in quality efforts, uses outcome assessment

185
Q

which philosophy suggests making continuous and small incremental improvements in process on a daily basis, rather than large revolutionary changes.

A

Kaizen philosophy “good change”

focuses on teamwork, discipline, improved morale, quality circles, and suggestions for improvement

186
Q

A decision to feed patients in their rooms, rather than the cafeteria is based on:

A

the philosophy of the institution

187
Q

the purpose of outcomes research is to determine

A

the most cost effective way to solve a problem

188
Q

*

what is a serious event that requires further investigation each time it occurs

A

sentinel event

ex: NPO patient receiving regular tray

189
Q

sentinel events indicators have a threshold of either 0% or 100% (never or always)

what are examples of 0% and 100%

A
  • 0% food poisoning
  • 100%. Dish-machine area floor is dry
  • 100% oncology patient are fed within 5 days
190
Q

The 4 functions of management

A

step 1. plan
step 2. organize
step 3. direct
step 4. control/evaluate

*planning is the basic function of management

Domain 3: Management of Food and Nutrition Programs and Services (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions